GCSE Biology Practice Test 8 – 60 Questions with Answers (AQA 8461)

Work through all 60 GCSE questions, checking each answer and explanation as you go.

Cell biology

Q1. Why is an electron microscope used to study cells in detail?

  • (A) It shows cells in colour more clearly
  • (B) It can view living cells more easily
  • (C) It has a much higher magnification and resolution than a light microscope
  • (D) It uses light to magnify specimens
Show Answer

Answer: C – Electron microscopes reveal fine subcellular structures because of their high resolution.

Q2. A cell image is 15 mm long and the real cell is 0.03 mm long. What is the magnification?

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 450
  • (C) 500
  • (D) 5000
Show Answer

Answer: C – Magnification equals image size divided by real size: 15 divided by 0.03 equals 500.

Q3. Which structure do plant cells use to make food using light?

  • (A) Nucleus
  • (B) Mitochondrion
  • (C) Ribosome
  • (D) Chloroplast
Show Answer

Answer: D – Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, which absorbs light energy for photosynthesis.

Q4. How is a nerve cell adapted to its function?

  • (A) It has a long axon that carries impulses over distances
  • (B) It contains many chloroplasts
  • (C) It has a large permanent vacuole
  • (D) It can contract strongly
Show Answer

Answer: A – The long axon of a neurone transmits electrical impulses quickly to other cells.

Q5. Why do muscle cells contain many mitochondria?

  • (A) Because muscle cells carry out photosynthesis
  • (B) Because muscle contraction needs a large supply of energy
  • (C) Because muscle cells store genetic information
  • (D) Because muscle cells produce antibodies
Show Answer

Answer: B – Mitochondria release energy by aerobic respiration, which powers contraction.

Q6. How is a sperm cell adapted for reaching an egg?

  • (A) It has a tail for swimming and many mitochondria for energy
  • (B) It has chloroplasts for photosynthesis
  • (C) It has a thick cell wall for protection
  • (D) It has a large vacuole for storage
Show Answer

Answer: A – The flagellum propels the sperm, and mitochondria supply energy for movement.

Q7. After mitosis, how does the chromosome number in each new cell compare with the parent cell?

  • (A) It is the same as in the parent cell
  • (B) It is half the number in the parent cell
  • (C) It is double the number in the parent cell
  • (D) It is a quarter of the number in the parent cell
Show Answer

Answer: A – Mitosis divides the copied chromosomes equally, keeping the chromosome number unchanged.

Q8. How does a larger surface area affect the rate of diffusion into a cell?

  • (A) It increases the rate because more particles can cross at once
  • (B) It decreases the rate because particles spread out
  • (C) It has no effect on diffusion
  • (D) It stops diffusion by blocking the membrane
Show Answer

Answer: A – A larger surface area provides more membrane for particles to diffuse across.

Q9. Why do growers use tissue culture from meristems?

  • (A) To create new species by sexual reproduction
  • (B) To increase genetic variation in crops
  • (C) To produce many identical, disease-free plants quickly
  • (D) To make plants grow without water
Show Answer

Answer: C – Meristem cells can divide to form clones of the parent plant, free from viruses present in older tissues.

Organisation

Q10. Why does amylase from saliva stop working well in the stomach?

  • (A) Bile neutralises the enzyme in the stomach
  • (B) The stomach is too warm for enzymes
  • (C) Stomach acid denatures the enzyme by changing its shape
  • (D) Amylase only works on proteins
Show Answer

Answer: C – The low pH in the stomach denatures salivary amylase, so it no longer fits its substrate.

Q11. How does bile help lipase digest fats?

  • (A) It breaks fats directly into glucose
  • (B) It changes the pH to acidic for lipase
  • (C) It breaks large fat droplets into smaller ones, increasing surface area for lipase
  • (D) It carries fats into the blood
Show Answer

Answer: C – Emulsification by bile gives lipase a much larger surface area to act on.

Q12. Which enzymes are produced by the pancreas?

  • (A) Amylase, protease and lipase
  • (B) Amylase only
  • (C) Pepsin only
  • (D) Insulin and glucagon only
Show Answer

Answer: A – Pancreatic juice contains carbohydrase, protease and lipase for digestion in the small intestine.

Q13. Which vessel carries oxygenated blood at high pressure from the heart to the body?

  • (A) The pulmonary artery
  • (B) The vena cava
  • (C) The aorta
  • (D) The pulmonary vein
Show Answer

Answer: C – The aorta is the largest artery and carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle around the body.

Q14. Which vessel returns deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium?

  • (A) The aorta
  • (B) The vena cava
  • (C) The pulmonary vein
  • (D) The coronary artery
Show Answer

Answer: B – The vena cava brings deoxygenated blood back to the right side of the heart.

Q15. What does blood plasma transport?

  • (A) Oxygen bound to haemoglobin only
  • (B) Red blood cells only
  • (C) Nerve impulses to muscles
  • (D) Dissolved nutrients, hormones, carbon dioxide, urea and other substances
Show Answer

Answer: D – Plasma is the liquid part of blood carrying dissolved substances around the body.

Q16. Plasma makes up about 55 percent of blood. What does plasma transport?

  • (A) Oxygen bound to haemoglobin only
  • (B) Only white blood cells
  • (C) Only hormones
  • (D) Dissolved nutrients, hormones, carbon dioxide, urea and plasma proteins
Show Answer

Answer: D – Plasma is the liquid part of blood and carries dissolved substances around the body.

Q17. Why does the heart muscle need its own blood supply through coronary arteries?

  • (A) Because the heart stores blood for the body
  • (B) Because coronary arteries carry blood to the lungs
  • (C) Because heart muscle cells need oxygen and glucose for continuous contraction
  • (D) Because the heart cannot use blood inside its chambers
Show Answer

Answer: C – Coronary arteries supply the working heart muscle with oxygen and nutrients.

Q18. Which leaf tissue carries out most photosynthesis?

  • (A) Epidermis
  • (B) Palisade mesophyll
  • (C) Xylem
  • (D) Guard cells
Show Answer

Answer: B – Palisade cells are packed with chloroplasts near the upper surface where light is strongest.

Infection and response

Q19. Salmonella food poisoning is caused by which type of pathogen, and how is it often spread?

  • (A) A virus spread by mosquitoes
  • (B) A fungus spread by spores in soil
  • (C) A protist spread in drinking water
  • (D) Bacteria spread in contaminated food
Show Answer

Answer: D – Salmonella bacteria in undercooked or contaminated food cause diarrhoea and vomiting.

Q20. Rose black spot is a plant disease that does what?

  • (A) A virus causes roots to swell and rot
  • (B) A fungus causes dark spots on leaves, which may fall and reduce photosynthesis
  • (C) Bacteria block the xylem completely
  • (D) A protist eats the flower petals
Show Answer

Answer: B – Black spot fungus damages leaves, so the plant makes less food by photosynthesis.

Q21. How does HIV affect the body?

  • (A) It destroys red blood cells and causes anaemia only
  • (B) It blocks digestion in the small intestine
  • (C) It prevents blood clotting
  • (D) It attacks white blood cells of the immune system, reducing the ability to fight infection
Show Answer

Answer: D – HIV damages lymphocytes, weakening the immune response and making other infections more serious.

Q22. Which is a first line of defence against pathogens entering the body?

  • (A) Antibody production in the blood
  • (B) Phagocytosis by white blood cells
  • (C) The skin acting as a barrier
  • (D) Vaccination with a weakened pathogen
Show Answer

Answer: C – Intact skin prevents most pathogens from entering, before the immune response is needed.

Q23. Why is a second infection by the same pathogen usually fought more quickly?

  • (A) The skin becomes thicker after the first infection
  • (B) Memory cells recognise the pathogen and produce antibodies rapidly
  • (C) Antibiotics remain in the blood permanently
  • (D) White blood cells become larger
Show Answer

Answer: B – Memory lymphocytes from the first response give a faster, stronger secondary response.

Q24. Painkillers are useful in treating illness, but what do they not do?

  • (A) They do not relieve pain
  • (B) They do not reduce a fever
  • (C) They do not work for headaches
  • (D) They do not kill the pathogen causing the illness
Show Answer

Answer: D – Painkillers relieve symptoms such as pain, but they do not destroy pathogens.

Q25. What is tested during the preclinical stage of drug development?

  • (A) Whether the drug sells well in shops
  • (B) The drug in large groups of patients only
  • (C) The colour and taste of the drug
  • (D) Whether the drug is toxic and effective, using cells, tissues and animals
Show Answer

Answer: D – Preclinical testing checks safety and effectiveness before human trials begin.

Q26. How does the waxy cuticle help protect a plant from disease?

  • (A) It produces antibodies against fungi
  • (B) It forms a physical barrier that makes entry difficult for pathogens
  • (C) It attracts insects that eat pathogens
  • (D) It closes the stomata permanently
Show Answer

Answer: B – A thick waxy layer on leaves helps prevent pathogens entering plant tissues.

Q27. How does an antiseptic differ from an antibiotic?

  • (A) An antiseptic only kills viruses
  • (B) An antibiotic only works on skin
  • (C) There is no difference between them
  • (D) An antiseptic kills pathogens outside the body, for example on skin, while an antibiotic works inside the body
Show Answer

Answer: D – Antiseptics are applied externally to kill microbes, whereas antibiotics treat infections inside the body.

Bioenergetics

Q28. In a pondweed experiment, why does counting bubbles give a measure of photosynthesis rate?

  • (A) The bubbles are carbon dioxide taken in by the plant
  • (B) The bubbles are nitrogen from the water
  • (C) The bubbles are oxygen released by photosynthesis
  • (D) The bubbles show the rate of respiration only
Show Answer

Answer: C – Oxygen is a product of photosynthesis, so faster bubbling means a faster rate.

Q29. What happens to the rate of photosynthesis if temperature rises well above the optimum?

  • (A) The rate keeps rising without limit
  • (B) The rate stays exactly the same
  • (C) The rate falls because enzymes involved are denatured
  • (D) Photosynthesis stops because light is blocked
Show Answer

Answer: C – High temperatures change enzyme shape, reducing photosynthesis.

Q30. How does a large leaf surface area help photosynthesis?

  • (A) It captures more light energy
  • (B) It reduces water loss to zero
  • (C) It increases the thickness of the leaf
  • (D) It prevents carbon dioxide entering
Show Answer

Answer: A – A broad leaf intercepts more light for chloroplasts to absorb.


Q31. Glucose from photosynthesis can be converted into cellulose. What is cellulose used for in plants?

  • (A) To store energy in seeds
  • (B) To make proteins
  • (C) To make strong cell walls
  • (D) To attract pollinators
Show Answer

Answer: C – Cellulose fibres strengthen plant cell walls.

Q32. Energy released by respiration is used for which process in animals?

  • (A) Photosynthesis in the skin
  • (B) Absorbing light in the eye only
  • (C) Muscle contraction and maintaining body temperature
  • (D) Producing oxygen in the lungs
Show Answer

Answer: C – Respiration supplies energy for movement, active transport, growth and keeping warm.

Q33. In the production of alcoholic drinks, what does yeast fermentation produce?

  • (A) Lactic acid, which flavours the drink
  • (B) Ethanol, which is the alcohol in the drink
  • (C) Glucose, which sweetens the drink
  • (D) Oxygen, which carbonates the drink
Show Answer

Answer: B – Yeast ferments sugars to ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q34. Why do muscles feel tired after prolonged vigorous exercise?

  • (A) Glucose builds up in muscle cells
  • (B) Oxygen builds up in the blood
  • (C) Lactic acid builds up from anaerobic respiration
  • (D) Muscles run out of water completely
Show Answer

Answer: C – Lactic acid accumulation is associated with muscle fatigue during anaerobic respiration.

Q35. Why might a very active person need more energy in their diet than a less active person?

  • (A) Because active people digest food more slowly
  • (B) Because exercise reduces the need for respiration
  • (C) Because active people store more fat automatically
  • (D) Because a higher metabolic rate and more muscle activity use more energy
Show Answer

Answer: D – Metabolic rate and activity level determine energy demand.

Q36. At night, what gas do plants release overall, and why?

  • (A) Carbon dioxide, because they respire but do not photosynthesise in the dark
  • (B) Oxygen, because they photosynthesise at night
  • (C) Nitrogen, because they fix nitrogen at night
  • (D) No gas, because plants stop respiring at night
Show Answer

Answer: A – Plants respire all the time; without light there is no photosynthesis to take in carbon dioxide.

Homeostasis and response

Q37. What is the role of a coordination centre?

  • (A) It receives information from receptors and coordinates a response
  • (B) It detects changes in the environment
  • (C) It carries out the final response
  • (D) It produces hormones in the blood
Show Answer

Answer: A – Coordination centres such as the brain, spinal cord and pancreas process information and organise responses.

Q38. Why is a reflex action faster than a conscious action?

  • (A) Reflexes use hormones instead of nerves
  • (B) Reflexes skip the receptor
  • (C) Reflexes use thicker bones
  • (D) The impulse does not have to travel to the conscious part of the brain
Show Answer

Answer: D – Reflex arcs bypass conscious processing, giving a rapid protective response.

Q39. How does myelin around an axon affect a nerve impulse?

  • (A) It slows down transmission
  • (B) It stops the impulse completely
  • (C) It changes the impulse into a hormone
  • (D) It speeds up transmission of the impulse
Show Answer

Answer: D – The myelin sheath insulates the axon and allows faster impulse conduction.

Q40. Thyroxine is produced by which gland, and what does it control?

  • (A) The thyroid gland; it controls metabolic rate
  • (B) The adrenal gland; it controls blood glucose
  • (C) The pituitary gland; it controls growth only
  • (D) The pancreas; it controls insulin release
Show Answer

Answer: A – Thyroxine from the thyroid regulates the rate of metabolism.

Q41. In the menstrual cycle, what does follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) do?

  • (A) It triggers ovulation directly
  • (B) It maintains the uterus lining
  • (C) It breaks down the uterus lining
  • (D) It stimulates an egg to mature in a follicle in the ovary
Show Answer

Answer: D – FSH causes a follicle to develop and an egg to mature.

Q42. What does oestrogen do in the menstrual cycle?

  • (A) It causes menstruation by breaking down the lining
  • (B) It stimulates repair and thickening of the uterus lining
  • (C) It prevents eggs maturing
  • (D) It lowers body temperature
Show Answer

Answer: B – Oestrogen, produced by the developing follicle, rebuilds the uterus lining.

Q43. Why is glucose normally absent from urine?

  • (A) Because it is completely reabsorbed from kidney tubules back into the blood
  • (B) Because glucose is destroyed in the bladder
  • (C) Because the kidney does not filter glucose
  • (D) Because glucose is stored in the kidney
Show Answer

Answer: A – All filtered glucose is reabsorbed in a healthy kidney, so none is excreted.

Q44. How does vasoconstriction help in cold conditions?

  • (A) Wider skin blood vessels increase heat loss
  • (B) Sweat production increases
  • (C) Hairs lie flat to lose heat
  • (D) Narrower skin blood vessels reduce heat loss from the blood
Show Answer

Answer: D – Constricting skin vessels keeps warm blood away from the surface, conserving heat.

Inheritance, variation and evolution

Q45. What is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

  • (A) It always produces more offspring
  • (B) It produces variation, which may help a species survive environmental change
  • (C) It produces genetically identical offspring
  • (D) It needs only one parent
Show Answer

Answer: B – Mixing genes from two parents creates variation for natural selection to act on.

Q46. In peas, tall (T) is dominant to dwarf (t). Two heterozygous tall plants (Tt) are crossed. What percentage of offspring are expected to be tall?

  • (A) 25%
  • (B) 75%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 100%
Show Answer

Answer: B – The cross gives TT, Tt, Tt and tt, so three quarters show the dominant tall phenotype.

Q47. Two heterozygous parents (Aa x Aa) have children. What proportion is expected to be homozygous recessive (aa)?

  • (A) All of them
  • (B) One quarter
  • (C) One half
  • (D) None of them
Show Answer

Answer: B – A Punnett square for Aa x Aa gives a 1:2:1 ratio, so one quarter of offspring are expected to be aa.

Q48. Blood group is an example of which type of variation?

  • (A) Continuous variation
  • (B) Discontinuous variation
  • (C) Environmental variation only
  • (D) Variation caused by mutation only
Show Answer

Answer: B – Blood group falls into distinct categories with no intermediates, so it is discontinuous.

Q49. How can antibiotic resistance evolve in bacteria?

  • (A) Antibiotics directly change bacterial genes in every bacterium
  • (B) Resistant bacteria survive antibiotic treatment and reproduce, passing on resistance
  • (C) Bacteria learn to avoid antibiotics
  • (D) Resistant bacteria are created by the antibiotic itself
Show Answer

Answer: B – Natural selection favours bacteria carrying resistance alleles when antibiotics are present.

Q50. What is a disadvantage of selective breeding?

  • (A) It can reduce genetic variation and increase inherited health problems through inbreeding
  • (B) It always makes organisms weaker in one generation
  • (C) It prevents any variation arising
  • (D) It makes offspring genetically identical to wild organisms
Show Answer

Answer: A – Repeated breeding from a small number of parents narrows the gene pool.

Q51. Golden rice is genetically modified to contain which vitamin?

  • (A) Vitamin C
  • (B) Vitamin D
  • (C) Vitamin B12
  • (D) Vitamin A
Show Answer

Answer: D – Golden rice produces beta-carotene, a precursor of vitamin A, to help prevent deficiency.

Q52. What is meant by a species in classification?

  • (A) A group of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring
  • (B) Any group of organisms that look similar
  • (C) All organisms living in one habitat
  • (D) Organisms with the same genus name only
Show Answer

Answer: A – Members of a species can breed together and produce fertile offspring.

Ecology

Q53. In a food web, a hawk eats both rabbits and mice. If mice decline, what may happen to rabbit numbers?

  • (A) Rabbits increase because hawks stop hunting
  • (B) Hawks eat more rabbits, so rabbit numbers may fall
  • (C) Hawks become producers
  • (D) Rabbits are unaffected because food webs are fixed
Show Answer

Answer: B – When one prey declines, a predator in a food web may switch to eating more of its other prey.

Q54. In a pyramid of biomass, what is usually true?

  • (A) Top predators have the largest biomass
  • (B) All levels have equal biomass
  • (C) Producers have the largest biomass and each higher level has less
  • (D) Decomposers have the largest biomass
Show Answer

Answer: C – Biomass decreases up the pyramid because energy is lost at each transfer.

Q55. Plants in the same habitat compete for which resources?

  • (A) Prey animals and mates
  • (B) Light, water, mineral ions and space
  • (C) Nesting sites and mates only
  • (D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide only
Show Answer

Answer: B – Plants compete for the abiotic resources they need for growth.

Q56. Which of these is an abiotic factor affecting plant distribution?

  • (A) Soil pH
  • (B) Competition with other plants
  • (C) Predation by herbivores
  • (D) Disease spread by fungi
Show Answer

Answer: A – Abiotic factors are non-living, such as soil pH, light, temperature and water availability.

Q57. Which of these is a biotic factor?

  • (A) Predation
  • (B) Temperature
  • (C) Rainfall
  • (D) Soil mineral content
Show Answer

Answer: A – Biotic factors involve living organisms, including predators, competitors and pathogens.

Q58. Burning fossil fuels affects the carbon cycle by doing what?

  • (A) Releasing carbon dioxide that was locked up for millions of years
  • (B) Removing carbon dioxide from the air permanently
  • (C) Converting carbon dioxide into oxygen
  • (D) Stopping photosynthesis in plants
Show Answer

Answer: A – Fossil fuels store ancient carbon; combustion returns it to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

Q59. Which is a likely consequence of global warming?

  • (A) A fall in average global temperatures
  • (B) Less rainfall everywhere on Earth
  • (C) A decrease in carbon dioxide in the air
  • (D) Sea levels rising as ice melts and water expands
Show Answer

Answer: D – Warming melts ice and expands seawater, raising sea levels and threatening coastal habitats.

Q60. How does draining a wetland for building damage an ecosystem?

  • (A) It increases the number of aquatic species
  • (B) It improves water quality in all nearby rivers
  • (C) It destroys habitats and reduces biodiversity
  • (D) It creates new habitats for wetland birds
Show Answer

Answer: C – Wetland loss removes breeding and feeding habitats, so species decline.

Well done for completing all 60 questions – review any topics you found difficult and try them again.

📥 Prefer pen and paper? Take this test offline.

Download Printable PDF – Test 8

Free printable version: all 60 questions + answer key. Explanations stay here on the website.