GCSE Biology Practice Test 9 – 60 Questions with Answers (AQA 8461)

Work through all 60 GCSE questions, checking each answer and explanation as you go.

Cell biology

Q1. How do ciliated epithelial cells in the airways help defend the body?

  • (A) They produce antibodies against pathogens
  • (B) They absorb oxygen into the blood
  • (C) They divide to make new lung tissue
  • (D) Their cilia sweep mucus containing trapped dust and pathogens upwards
Show Answer

Answer: D – Cilia move mucus away from the lungs, removing trapped particles.

Q2. How is an egg cell adapted to its function?

  • (A) It has a tail for swimming
  • (B) It contains many chloroplasts
  • (C) It has a thick cell wall
  • (D) It is large and contains nutrient stores in its cytoplasm for the early embryo
Show Answer

Answer: D – The large egg cell provides nutrients for cell division after fertilisation.

Q3. What happens during cell differentiation?

  • (A) All cells keep exactly the same structure
  • (B) Chromosome number doubles in every cell
  • (C) Cells develop different structures to suit particular functions
  • (D) Cells lose their nucleus permanently
Show Answer

Answer: C – Differentiation produces specialised cells, such as nerve and muscle cells.

Q4. A microscope image is 10 mm long at a magnification of 200. What is the real size of the specimen?

  • (A) 0.05 mm
  • (B) 0.5 mm
  • (C) 2000 mm
  • (D) 0.005 mm
Show Answer

Answer: A – Real size equals image size divided by magnification: 10 divided by 200 equals 0.05 mm.

Q5. Why does oxygen diffuse from alveoli into the blood?

  • (A) Oxygen concentration is lower in the alveoli than in the blood
  • (B) Oxygen concentration is higher in the alveoli than in the blood
  • (C) Carbon dioxide pushes oxygen into the blood
  • (D) The alveoli actively pump oxygen using energy
Show Answer

Answer: B – Diffusion moves oxygen down its concentration gradient into the blood.

Q6. What happens to an animal cell placed in a concentrated salt solution?

  • (A) Water enters the cell and it bursts
  • (B) The cell becomes turgid
  • (C) Water leaves the cell by osmosis and the cell shrinks
  • (D) Nothing happens because animal cells have a wall
Show Answer

Answer: C – Water moves out towards the more concentrated solution, so the cell shrivels.

Q7. How are amino acids absorbed from the small intestine when their concentration in the gut is lower than in blood cells?

  • (A) By osmosis through the villi
  • (B) By active transport using energy
  • (C) By diffusion down a gradient
  • (D) By photosynthesis in gut cells
Show Answer

Answer: B – Movement against the gradient requires energy, so active transport is used.

Q8. What must happen to DNA before a cell divides by mitosis?

  • (A) The DNA is halved and not copied
  • (B) The DNA is destroyed
  • (C) The DNA is copied so each new cell receives a full set
  • (D) The DNA moves into the mitochondria
Show Answer

Answer: C – DNA replication before mitosis ensures both daughter cells get identical genetic material.

Organisation

Q9. Why is each enzyme specific to one substrate?

  • (A) All enzymes have the same active site
  • (B) Its active site has a shape complementary to that substrate
  • (C) Enzymes change shape to fit any substrate
  • (D) Substrates change shape to fit the enzyme
Show Answer

Answer: B – Only a substrate fitting the active site can bind and be acted on.

Q10. What happens to enzyme activity as temperature rises above the optimum?

  • (A) Activity falls because the enzyme is denatured
  • (B) Activity keeps rising indefinitely
  • (C) Activity stays at the optimum level
  • (D) Activity falls because the substrate is used up
Show Answer

Answer: A – Above the optimum, heat changes the active site shape and the enzyme denatures.

Q11. How does mucus protect the stomach?

  • (A) It forms a layer that prevents acid damaging the stomach wall
  • (B) It digests proteins in the stomach
  • (C) It neutralises all stomach acid
  • (D) It absorbs amino acids
Show Answer

Answer: A – The mucus layer shields stomach cells from hydrochloric acid and enzymes.

Q12. Where do fatty acids and glycerol pass after absorption in the small intestine?

  • (A) Into lacteals, the small lymph vessels in villi
  • (B) Directly into the aorta
  • (C) Into the stomach for further digestion
  • (D) Into the large intestine
Show Answer

Answer: A – Digested fats enter lacteals and travel in lymph before reaching the blood.

Q13. What sets the basic rhythm of the heartbeat?

  • (A) A group of cells in the right atrium acting as a pacemaker
  • (B) The brain sending an impulse for every beat
  • (C) Valves opening and closing
  • (D) The lungs expanding and contracting
Show Answer

Answer: A – The sinoatrial node generates regular impulses that set heart rate.

Q14. Which blood component is mainly responsible for defending against pathogens?

  • (A) White blood cells
  • (B) Red blood cells
  • (C) Platelets
  • (D) Plasma proteins only
Show Answer

Answer: A – White blood cells carry out phagocytosis and antibody production.

Q15. How does wind increase the rate of transpiration?

  • (A) It closes the stomata
  • (B) It reduces light reaching the leaf
  • (C) It cools the leaf so less water evaporates
  • (D) It blows away water vapour around leaves, maintaining a steep diffusion gradient
Show Answer

Answer: D – Removing humid air keeps the gradient for water vapour diffusion steep, increasing loss.

Q16. What do leaf veins contain?

  • (A) Only chloroplasts
  • (B) Only guard cells
  • (C) Xylem and phloem for transport
  • (D) Only mesophyll cells
Show Answer

Answer: C – Veins carry xylem for water and phloem for sugars through the leaf.

Q17. What is an advantage of a double circulation?

  • (A) Blood is re-pressurised in the heart before being pumped to the body, maintaining a fast flow
  • (B) Blood passes through the heart only once
  • (C) Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the heart
  • (D) The heart does not need valves
Show Answer

Answer: A – Returning to the heart boosts pressure, so blood flows efficiently to body tissues.

Infection and response

Q18. Cholera is spread mainly by which route?

  • (A) Mosquito bites
  • (B) Droplets from coughing
  • (C) Drinking water contaminated with faeces containing the bacteria
  • (D) Contact with infected skin
Show Answer

Answer: C – Cholera bacteria in contaminated water cause severe diarrhoea and dehydration.

Q19. Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria that mainly affect which organ and spread how?

  • (A) The skin, spread by direct contact
  • (B) The lungs, spread in droplets from coughs and sneezes
  • (C) The liver, spread in food
  • (D) The intestines, spread by mosquitoes
Show Answer

Answer: B – Tuberculosis bacteria infect the lungs and spread through airborne droplets.

Q20. Ringworm is an example of which type of infection?

  • (A) A bacterial infection of the lungs
  • (B) A fungal infection of the skin
  • (C) A viral infection of the blood
  • (D) A protist infection of the gut
Show Answer

Answer: B – Ringworm is caused by fungi that grow on skin, hair and nails.

Q21. How can bed nets help reduce malaria?

  • (A) They kill the protist in the blood
  • (B) They prevent mosquitoes biting people and transmitting the protist
  • (C) They cure infected people
  • (D) They drain standing water
Show Answer

Answer: B – Nets act as a barrier against mosquito bites, reducing transmission of Plasmodium.

Q22. How do antibodies help destroy a pathogen after binding to it?

  • (A) They burst red blood cells
  • (B) They change the pathogen into a vaccine
  • (C) They mark it so phagocytes can recognise and engulf it more easily
  • (D) They block all blood flow to the area
Show Answer

Answer: C – Antibodies tag pathogens for destruction by white blood cells.

Q23. What does the MMR vaccine protect against?

  • (A) Malaria, measles and ringworm
  • (B) Meningitis, malaria and rubella
  • (C) Measles, mumps and rubella
  • (D) Measles only
Show Answer

Answer: C – MMR is a combined vaccine against three viral diseases.

Q24. How does a new antibiotic-resistant strain of bacteria arise?

  • (A) The antibiotic creates resistance in all bacteria at once
  • (B) Bacteria choose to become resistant
  • (C) A mutation creates a resistant variant, which survives treatment and multiplies
  • (D) Resistance is passed from humans to bacteria
Show Answer

Answer: C – Mutation produces variation; antibiotics select resistant bacteria, which then reproduce.

Q25. In clinical trials on patients, what is mainly being tested?

  • (A) Whether the drug can be made cheaply
  • (B) Whether the drug is effective and what dose works safely
  • (C) Whether healthy people enjoy taking it
  • (D) Whether animals tolerate the drug
Show Answer

Answer: B – Patient trials assess effectiveness and safe dosage after earlier safety testing.

Q26. Gonorrhoea is spread by which route and caused by which type of pathogen?

  • (A) Mosquito bites; virus
  • (B) Sexual contact; bacteria
  • (C) Contaminated water; protist
  • (D) Airborne droplets; fungus
Show Answer

Answer: B – Gonorrhoea is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.

Bioenergetics

Q27. What energy change occurs in photosynthesis?

  • (A) Chemical energy is converted into light energy
  • (B) Light energy is converted into chemical energy stored in glucose
  • (C) Heat energy is converted into sound energy
  • (D) Electrical energy is converted into kinetic energy
Show Answer

Answer: B – Photosynthesis stores light energy as chemical energy in organic molecules.

Q28. In an experiment, a light is moved further from pondweed and bubbling slows. Why?

  • (A) Carbon dioxide concentration rises with distance
  • (B) Light intensity falls with distance, so photosynthesis slows
  • (C) The water becomes warmer with distance
  • (D) The plant uses less oxygen at greater distances
Show Answer

Answer: B – Lower light intensity limits photosynthesis, so less oxygen is produced.

Q29. At low light intensity, why does increasing carbon dioxide have little effect on photosynthesis rate?

  • (A) Because light, not carbon dioxide, is the limiting factor
  • (B) Because carbon dioxide is toxic at low light
  • (C) Because chlorophyll is destroyed by carbon dioxide
  • (D) Because plants cannot absorb carbon dioxide in dim light
Show Answer

Answer: A – When light limits the rate, extra carbon dioxide cannot increase it.

Q30. Which word equation summarises anaerobic respiration in muscle?

  • (A) Glucose + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water + energy
  • (B) Glucose -> ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy
  • (C) Glucose -> lactic acid + energy
  • (D) Carbon dioxide + water -> glucose + oxygen
Show Answer

Answer: C – Muscle cells respiring without enough oxygen produce lactic acid.


Q31. Plants use glucose to make amino acids. What else is needed for this?

  • (A) Oxygen from respiration only
  • (B) Carbon dioxide from the air only
  • (C) Nitrate ions absorbed from the soil
  • (D) Water from the roots only
Show Answer

Answer: C – Nitrate provides nitrogen for building amino acids and proteins.

Q32. Why do many seeds store energy as fats and oils?

  • (A) Fats release more energy per gram than carbohydrates when respired
  • (B) Fats are easier to dissolve in water
  • (C) Fats prevent seeds germinating
  • (D) Fats attract animals to eat seeds
Show Answer

Answer: A – Lipids are energy-dense stores for the growing seedling.

Q33. Why does breathing rate stay high for a while after vigorous exercise stops?

  • (A) To remove glucose from the blood
  • (B) To cool the lungs down
  • (C) To take in extra oxygen to break down lactic acid and repay the oxygen debt
  • (D) To increase carbon dioxide in the blood
Show Answer

Answer: C – Recovery breathing supplies oxygen needed to oxidise lactic acid.

Q34. What happens to excess amino acids in the liver?

  • (A) They are converted directly into glucose only
  • (B) They are stored as protein in the liver
  • (C) They are excreted unchanged in urine
  • (D) They are deaminated, forming urea for excretion
Show Answer

Answer: D – Deamination removes the nitrogen part, which becomes urea.

Q35. Why is starch a good storage carbohydrate in plants?

  • (A) It dissolves easily and spreads through the plant
  • (B) It is sweet and attracts animals
  • (C) It can be used directly in respiration without conversion
  • (D) It is insoluble, so it does not affect water movement by osmosis
Show Answer

Answer: D – Insoluble starch can be stored without drawing water into cells by osmosis.

Homeostasis and response

Q36. What does a sensory neurone do?

  • (A) It carries impulses from the central nervous system to an effector
  • (B) It connects two motor neurones in a muscle
  • (C) It produces hormones in response to a stimulus
  • (D) It carries impulses from a receptor towards the central nervous system
Show Answer

Answer: D – Sensory neurones transmit signals from receptors to the brain or spinal cord.

Q37. In bright light, what happens to the pupil and why?

  • (A) It dilates to let in more light
  • (B) It stays the same size
  • (C) It closes completely
  • (D) It constricts to reduce the light reaching the retina
Show Answer

Answer: D – The iris muscles constrict the pupil in bright light to protect the retina.

Q38. Testosterone is produced where, and what does it do at puberty?

  • (A) In the testes; it stimulates development of male secondary sexual characteristics
  • (B) In the ovaries; it stimulates egg release
  • (C) In the thyroid; it controls metabolic rate
  • (D) In the adrenal glands; it controls blood glucose
Show Answer

Answer: A – Testosterone from the testes drives male puberty changes.

Q39. In a typical 28-day menstrual cycle, when does ovulation usually occur?

  • (A) On day 1
  • (B) Around day 14
  • (C) On day 28
  • (D) On day 7
Show Answer

Answer: B – Ovulation is usually around the middle of the cycle, about day 14.

Q40. How does a combined oral contraceptive prevent pregnancy?

  • (A) It kills sperm in the uterus
  • (B) It blocks the fallopian tubes permanently
  • (C) It destroys the uterus lining
  • (D) It inhibits FSH so eggs do not mature and ovulation does not occur
Show Answer

Answer: D – The hormones in the pill suppress egg maturation and ovulation.

Q41. What happens during in vitro fertilisation (IVF)?

  • (A) Eggs are fertilised outside the body and an embryo is placed in the uterus
  • (B) Eggs are fertilised inside the fallopian tube by surgery only
  • (C) Sperm are injected into the uterus lining
  • (D) The uterus lining is removed and replaced
Show Answer

Answer: A – In IVF, fertilisation occurs in a laboratory and a resulting embryo is implanted.

Q42. Which sequence correctly shows the path of urine out of the body?

  • (A) Bladder -> ureter -> kidney -> urethra
  • (B) Kidney -> urethra -> bladder -> ureter
  • (C) Kidney -> ureter -> bladder -> urethra
  • (D) Ureter -> kidney -> urethra -> bladder
Show Answer

Answer: C – Urine flows from each kidney down a ureter to the bladder, then out through the urethra.

Q43. How does hair standing on end help in cold weather?

  • (A) It traps a layer of insulating air next to the skin
  • (B) It increases sweating
  • (C) It widens blood vessels in the skin
  • (D) It makes muscles contract
Show Answer

Answer: A – Erector muscles raise hairs, trapping air that reduces heat loss.

Q44. What effect do gibberellins have on seeds?

  • (A) They prevent seeds germinating
  • (B) They cause fruit to ripen
  • (C) They promote germination by breaking dormancy
  • (D) They cause shoots to bend away from light
Show Answer

Answer: C – Gibberellins trigger enzymes that start germination in dormant seeds.

Inheritance, variation and evolution

Q45. How does the sequence of bases in a gene determine a protein?

  • (A) It determines the size of the cell
  • (B) It determines how many chromosomes a cell has
  • (C) It determines the order of amino acids in the protein
  • (D) It determines the number of ribosomes
Show Answer

Answer: C – The base sequence codes for the amino acid sequence, which determines protein shape and function.

Q46. Two carriers of a recessive condition (Aa) have children. What percentage are expected to be carriers (Aa)?

  • (A) 25%
  • (B) 75%
  • (C) 100%
  • (D) 50%
Show Answer

Answer: D – The cross Aa x Aa gives AA, Aa, Aa and aa, so half the children are expected to be carriers.

Q47. Huntington disease is caused by a dominant allele (H). If an affected heterozygous parent (Hh) has children with an unaffected parent (hh), what percentage are expected to be affected?

  • (A) 25%
  • (B) 75%
  • (C) 100%
  • (D) 50%
Show Answer

Answer: D – Children receive H from the affected parent in half of cases, so 50% are expected to be affected.

Q48. Where do new alleles come from?

  • (A) Selective breeding only
  • (B) Mutations that change the DNA base sequence
  • (C) Changes in the environment during an organism lifetime
  • (D) The mixing of chromosomes in mitosis
Show Answer

Answer: B – Mutations create new versions of genes that can be inherited.

Q49. How can pesticide resistance develop in insects?

  • (A) Pesticides change the genes of all insects equally
  • (B) Insects develop thicker skins during their lifetime and pass this on
  • (C) Resistant insects survive spraying and reproduce, passing resistance to offspring
  • (D) Pesticides make insects stronger directly
Show Answer

Answer: C – Selection by pesticide favours insects already carrying resistance alleles.

Q50. Selective breeding of dairy cows has produced animals that do what?

  • (A) Produce milk without eating
  • (B) Give birth to identical twins always
  • (C) Resist all diseases completely
  • (D) Produce a much higher milk yield than wild ancestors
Show Answer

Answer: D – Breeders selected cows with the highest milk yields over many generations.

Q51. How does a genetically modified insect-resistant crop protect itself?

  • (A) It contains a bacterial gene so it produces a protein toxic to insect pests
  • (B) It is sprayed with more pesticide
  • (C) It grows thorns to deter insects
  • (D) It produces antibodies against insects
Show Answer

Answer: A – The inserted gene makes a toxin that kills feeding insects but is harmless to the plant.

Q52. Which classification rank contains the largest number of different organisms?

  • (A) Genus
  • (B) Kingdom
  • (C) Species
  • (D) Family
Show Answer

Answer: B – Kingdom is the broadest rank in the Linnaean system, containing many species.

Ecology

Q53. A herbivore eats plant material, but only part of it becomes herbivore biomass. Why is much energy lost?

  • (A) Some material is egested as faeces and much energy is used in respiration and movement
  • (B) Herbivores cannot digest any plant material
  • (C) All plant energy is stored as starch
  • (D) Herbivores pass energy directly to decomposers only
Show Answer

Answer: A – Undigested material and energy used for life processes are not converted to new biomass.

Q54. If producers contain about 5000 kJ of energy, about how much is typically transferred to primary consumers?

  • (A) About 5000 kJ
  • (B) About 50 kJ
  • (C) About 25000 kJ
  • (D) About 500 kJ
Show Answer

Answer: D – Roughly 10% of energy is transferred between trophic levels, the rest being lost.

Q55. What is the role of earthworms in decomposition?

  • (A) They photosynthesise to make food for soil
  • (B) They eat only living plant roots
  • (C) They absorb carbon dioxide from soil
  • (D) They are detritivores that break dead material into smaller pieces for microorganisms
Show Answer

Answer: D – Detritivores shred dead material, increasing surface area for decomposers.

Q56. How is carbon transferred from a producer to a consumer?

  • (A) By feeding, when the consumer eats the producer
  • (B) By photosynthesis in the consumer
  • (C) By combustion in the consumer
  • (D) By decay of the consumer
Show Answer

Answer: A – Feeding moves carbon compounds from one trophic level to the next.

Q57. In the water cycle, what is condensation?

  • (A) Water evaporating from the sea
  • (B) Water vapour cooling to form liquid droplets in clouds
  • (C) Rain falling to the ground
  • (D) Water soaking into soil
Show Answer

Answer: B – Cooling vapour condenses into droplets that form clouds.

Q58. How does the greenhouse effect warm the Earth?

  • (A) Greenhouse gases block all sunlight reaching Earth
  • (B) Greenhouse gases create heat by burning
  • (C) Greenhouse gases reflect heat into space
  • (D) Greenhouse gases absorb heat radiated from Earth and re-radiate it, trapping warmth
Show Answer

Answer: D – Carbon dioxide and methane trap outgoing heat, warming the atmosphere.

Q59. Flooded rice fields contribute to global warming by releasing which gas?

  • (A) Oxygen
  • (B) Nitrogen
  • (C) Sulfur dioxide
  • (D) Methane
Show Answer

Answer: D – Waterlogged rice paddies release methane from anaerobic decomposition.

Q60. How can an introduced non-native species reduce biodiversity?

  • (A) It always increases the number of native species
  • (B) It may outcompete native species for food and habitat
  • (C) It prevents all predation
  • (D) It improves soil for native plants
Show Answer

Answer: B – Invasive species can displace natives that have no defences or competitors adapted to them.

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