GCSE Biology Practice Test 6 – 60 Questions with Answers (AQA 8461)
Work through all 60 GCSE questions, checking each answer and explanation as you go.
Cell biology
Q1. What is the main function of mitochondria in a cell?
- (A) To release energy from glucose by aerobic respiration
- (B) To make proteins for the cell
- (C) To control all cell activities
- (D) To store water and dissolved substances
Show Answer
Answer: A – Mitochondria are the site of aerobic respiration, which releases energy.
Q2. A drawing of a cell is 20 mm long. The real cell is 0.05 mm long. What is the magnification of the drawing?
- (A) 40
- (B) 1000
- (C) 400
- (D) 4
Show Answer
Answer: C – Magnification equals image size divided by real size: 20 divided by 0.05 equals 400.
Q3. Which part of an animal cell controls the activities of the cell?
- (A) Cell membrane
- (B) Cytoplasm
- (C) Nucleus
- (D) Ribosome
Show Answer
Answer: C – The nucleus contains genetic material and controls cell activities.
Q4. Which statement best describes diffusion?
- (A) The movement of water across a partially permeable membrane
- (B) The movement of particles against a concentration gradient using energy
- (C) The movement of particles that requires a carrier protein and energy
- (D) The net movement of particles from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
Show Answer
Answer: D – Diffusion is passive movement down a concentration gradient.
Q5. During osmosis, in which direction does water move?
- (A) From a concentrated solution to a dilute solution across a partially permeable membrane
- (B) From a region of low water concentration to high water concentration
- (C) From a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution across a partially permeable membrane
- (D) In both directions at exactly the same rate with no net movement
Show Answer
Answer: C – Osmosis is the net movement of water from dilute to concentrated solution across a partially permeable membrane.
Q6. Why does active transport in root hair cells require energy?
- (A) Because mineral ions are taken up against a concentration gradient
- (B) Because water moves into the root by osmosis
- (C) Because root hair cells have a large surface area
- (D) Because diffusion is too slow in soil water
Show Answer
Answer: A – Active transport moves substances against a gradient, so it needs energy from respiration.
Q7. What does mitosis produce?
- (A) Four genetically different haploid cells
- (B) Two genetically different diploid cells
- (C) Four genetically identical diploid cells
- (D) Two genetically identical diploid cells
Show Answer
Answer: D – Mitosis produces two identical cells for growth and repair.
Q8. Adult stem cells in bone marrow are able to develop into which type of cell?
- (A) Nerve cells only
- (B) Blood cells
- (C) Muscle cells only
- (D) Plant root cells
Show Answer
Answer: B – Bone marrow stem cells can differentiate into different types of blood cell.
Q9. Which feature is found in a bacterial cell but is not found in an animal cell?
- (A) A nucleus
- (B) A mitochondrion
- (C) A cell membrane
- (D) A plasmid
Show Answer
Answer: D – Bacterial cells have no true nucleus; their DNA includes a loop in the cytoplasm and small plasmids.
Organisation
Q10. What does amylase break down, and into what?
- (A) Protein into amino acids
- (B) Lipid into fatty acids and glycerol
- (C) Sugar into starch
- (D) Starch into sugars
Show Answer
Answer: D – Amylase is a carbohydrase that breaks down starch to sugars.
Q11. Protease enzymes break down proteins into which substances?
- (A) Fatty acids and glycerol
- (B) Simple sugars
- (C) Starch molecules
- (D) Amino acids
Show Answer
Answer: D – Proteases digest proteins to amino acids.
Q12. What is the product of lipid digestion by lipase?
- (A) Fatty acids and glycerol
- (B) Amino acids
- (C) Glucose
- (D) Starch
Show Answer
Answer: A – Lipase breaks lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
Q13. Which statement describes a function of bile?
- (A) It breaks starch into sugars
- (B) It carries oxygen around the body
- (C) It emulsifies fats and neutralises stomach acid
- (D) It produces insulin for blood glucose control
Show Answer
Answer: C – Bile emulsifies fats to increase surface area and neutralises acid from the stomach.
Q14. Which side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs, and at what pressure compared with the body circulation?
- (A) The right side, at lower pressure
- (B) The left side, at lower pressure
- (C) The right side, at higher pressure
- (D) Both sides at equal pressure
Show Answer
Answer: A – The right ventricle pumps blood only the short distance to the lungs, so lower pressure protects the lung capillaries.
Q15. Which adaptation of red blood cells helps them carry oxygen?
- (A) They contain a large nucleus
- (B) They have a thick cell wall
- (C) They can divide by mitosis in the blood
- (D) They contain haemoglobin and have no nucleus
Show Answer
Answer: D – Haemoglobin binds oxygen, and the lack of a nucleus leaves more space for it.
Q16. Which feature is characteristic of arteries?
- (A) Thin walls with valves to prevent backflow
- (B) Thick, muscular, elastic walls that withstand high pressure
- (C) A very large surface area for exchange
- (D) Walls one cell thick
Show Answer
Answer: B – Arteries carry blood at high pressure away from the heart, so their walls are thick and elastic.
Q17. Which plant tissue transports water and mineral ions from the roots to the leaves?
- (A) Phloem
- (B) Xylem
- (C) Mesophyll
- (D) Epidermis
Show Answer
Answer: B – Xylem vessels carry water and dissolved mineral ions upwards through the plant.
Q18. What is the function of guard cells in a leaf?
- (A) They open and close stomata to control gas exchange and water loss
- (B) They carry out most photosynthesis
- (C) They transport sugars to the roots
- (D) They absorb water from the soil
Show Answer
Answer: A – Guard cells change shape to open or close the stomatal pore.
Infection and response
Q19. Salmonella bacteria cause food poisoning. How do they usually enter the body?
- (A) Through cuts in the skin only
- (B) By insect bites
- (C) In contaminated food or water
- (D) Through the lungs in the air
Show Answer
Answer: C – Salmonella is ingested with food or water contaminated by the bacteria.
Q20. Why do antibiotics not cure a cold caused by a virus?
- (A) Viruses are too large for antibiotics to reach
- (B) Antibiotics only work in the stomach
- (C) Viruses are killed by vaccines instead of drugs
- (D) Antibiotics kill bacteria, not viruses
Show Answer
Answer: D – Antibiotics target bacterial structures and processes, so they do not destroy viruses.
Q21. During phagocytosis, what does a white blood cell do?
- (A) It produces antibodies in the blood
- (B) It engulfs and digests a pathogen
- (C) It releases antitoxins into the plasma
- (D) It copies the pathogen to make a vaccine
Show Answer
Answer: B – Phagocytes ingest pathogens and break them down with enzymes.
Q22. Why is a second dose, or booster, of a vaccine sometimes given?
- (A) The first dose kills the pathogen directly
- (B) To replace antibodies used up by the skin
- (C) To strengthen the immune response and increase memory cells
- (D) To cure the disease if the first dose fails
Show Answer
Answer: C – A booster raises antibody levels and increases the number of memory cells for faster future protection.
Q23. Which practice increases the risk of antibiotic-resistant bacteria spreading?
- (A) Taking the full prescribed course
- (B) Using antibiotics only for bacterial infections
- (C) Washing hands before handling food
- (D) Stopping a course of antibiotics early
Show Answer
Answer: D – Incomplete courses can leave resistant bacteria alive to multiply and spread.
Q24. In drug development, what is the purpose of a double-blind trial?
- (A) To test the drug on twice as many animals
- (B) To check the drug works in two countries at once
- (C) To prevent bias because neither patients nor doctors know who receives the real drug
- (D) To give every patient two different drugs
Show Answer
Answer: C – Double-blind trials reduce bias from expectations of patients and researchers.
Q25. Malaria is caused by which type of pathogen?
- (A) A bacterium
- (B) A virus
- (C) A protist
- (D) A fungus
Show Answer
Answer: C – Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, a protist spread by mosquitoes.
Q26. Why is each antibody specific to one antigen?
- (A) Its shape is complementary to that antigen
- (B) It is produced only in the bone marrow
- (C) It contains a copy of the pathogen DNA
- (D) It changes shape to fit any pathogen
Show Answer
Answer: A – An antibody binds to a specific antigen because their shapes fit together.
Bioenergetics
Q27. Which substance is taken in by a leaf for photosynthesis?
- (A) Carbon dioxide
- (B) Oxygen
- (C) Glucose
- (D) Ethanol
Show Answer
Answer: A – Carbon dioxide diffuses into the leaf through the stomata and is used to make glucose.
Q28. A student increases light intensity but the rate of photosynthesis stops rising. What is the most likely explanation?
- (A) The plant has run out of chlorophyll
- (B) Another factor, such as carbon dioxide concentration or temperature, is now limiting the rate
- (C) Photosynthesis has stopped completely
- (D) Light intensity no longer affects the rate at any level
Show Answer
Answer: B – When one factor is no longer limiting, another factor limits the rate.
Q29. During respiration, which molecule is broken down to release energy?
- (A) Oxygen
- (B) Glucose
- (C) Carbon dioxide
- (D) Water
Show Answer
Answer: B – Glucose is broken down in respiration, releasing energy for cell processes.
Q30. During vigorous exercise, muscles may respire anaerobically. What is produced in muscle cells?
- (A) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
- (B) Glucose and oxygen
- (C) Carbon dioxide and water only
- (D) Lactic acid
Show Answer
Answer: D – Anaerobic respiration in muscle produces lactic acid.
Q31. Yeast respiring anaerobically produces which substances?
- (A) Lactic acid and water
- (B) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
- (C) Glucose and oxygen
- (D) Ethanol and oxygen
Show Answer
Answer: B – Fermentation in yeast produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Q32. Why do heart rate and breathing rate increase during exercise?
- (A) To reduce the amount of blood reaching the muscles
- (B) To supply more oxygen and glucose to muscles and remove more carbon dioxide
- (C) To slow down respiration in muscle cells
- (D) To store glycogen in the liver
Show Answer
Answer: B – Exercise raises demand for oxygen and glucose delivery and carbon dioxide removal.
Q33. A leaf is thin. How does this help photosynthesis?
- (A) It prevents all water loss from the leaf
- (B) It increases the distance light must travel
- (C) It stops the leaf absorbing light
- (D) It gives a short diffusion distance for carbon dioxide and oxygen
Show Answer
Answer: D – A thin leaf shortens the diffusion pathway for gases into and out of photosynthetic cells.
Q34. Which process releases energy from glucose without using oxygen in a muscle cell, and is less efficient than aerobic respiration?
- (A) Anaerobic respiration
- (B) Photosynthesis
- (C) Digestion
- (D) Osmosis
Show Answer
Answer: A – Anaerobic respiration releases less energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration.
Homeostasis and response
Q35. Which sequence correctly describes a reflex arc?
- (A) Effector -> motor neurone -> relay neurone -> sensory neurone -> receptor
- (B) Receptor -> sensory neurone -> relay neurone -> motor neurone -> effector
- (C) Receptor -> motor neurone -> relay neurone -> sensory neurone -> effector
- (D) Sensory neurone -> receptor -> motor neurone -> relay neurone -> effector
Show Answer
Answer: B – In a reflex, an impulse passes from receptor to sensory neurone, relay neurone, motor neurone and effector.
Q36. What makes up the central nervous system?
- (A) The brain and all sensory receptors
- (B) The spinal cord and all motor neurones
- (C) All nerves in the arms and legs
- (D) The brain and the spinal cord
Show Answer
Answer: D – The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.
Q37. What happens at a synapse?
- (A) An electrical impulse jumps directly between bones
- (B) A chemical transmitter diffuses across a small gap to the next neurone
- (C) A hormone travels in the blood to a target organ
- (D) The impulse stops and does not continue
Show Answer
Answer: B – At a synapse, transmitter chemicals diffuse across the gap and trigger an impulse in the next neurone.
Q38. What is the effect of insulin on blood glucose concentration?
- (A) It raises blood glucose by breaking down glycogen
- (B) It has no effect on blood glucose
- (C) It lowers blood glucose by increasing uptake into cells and conversion to glycogen
- (D) It converts glucose directly into fat only
Show Answer
Answer: C – Insulin lowers blood glucose, for example by promoting glycogen formation in the liver.
Q39. Which effect does adrenaline have during a stressful situation?
- (A) It decreases heart rate and breathing rate
- (B) It lowers blood glucose concentration
- (C) It causes the pupils to constrict
- (D) It increases heart rate and blood flow to muscles
Show Answer
Answer: D – Adrenaline prepares the body for fight or flight, raising heart rate and glucose release.
Q40. When the water content of the blood falls, what happens involving ADH?
- (A) Less ADH is released and the kidney reabsorbs less water
- (B) ADH causes the kidney to excrete more water
- (C) More ADH is released, the kidney reabsorbs more water, and a small volume of concentrated urine is produced
- (D) ADH stops the kidney filtering blood
Show Answer
Answer: C – ADH increases water reabsorption in the kidney when blood water content is low.
Q41. On a hot day, how does the body increase heat loss from the skin?
- (A) Blood vessels constrict and hairs lie flat
- (B) Shivering increases in the muscles
- (C) Blood vessels dilate and sweat evaporates from the skin surface
- (D) Sweat glands stop producing sweat
Show Answer
Answer: C – Vasodilation brings more warm blood to the skin and sweating cools by evaporation.
Q42. A seedling root grows downwards. How does auxin affect the root to produce this response?
- (A) Auxin on the lower side inhibits elongation there, so the root bends downwards
- (B) Auxin on the upper side stops all growth
- (C) Auxin makes the lower side grow faster than the upper side
- (D) Auxin blocks the root from detecting gravity
Show Answer
Answer: A – In roots, auxin inhibits cell elongation, so the side with more auxin grows more slowly and the root bends down.
Inheritance, variation and evolution
Q43. How many copies of most genes does a body cell have?
- (A) One
- (B) Four
- (C) None, genes are found only in gametes
- (D) Two, one on each homologous chromosome
Show Answer
Answer: D – Body cells are diploid, carrying two copies of each gene on a pair of homologous chromosomes.
Q44. An organism has genotype Bb for eye colour, where B is dominant. Which allele is recessive?
- (A) BB
- (B) b
- (C) The phenotype
- (D) Both alleles equally
Show Answer
Answer: B – The recessive allele b is only expressed in the phenotype when two copies are present.
Q45. What is meant by phenotype?
- (A) The combination of alleles an organism carries
- (B) The observable characteristics of an organism, resulting from genotype and environment
- (C) The number of chromosomes in a gamete
- (D) The DNA sequence of one gene only
Show Answer
Answer: B – Phenotype is what is observed, influenced by genes and environment.
Q46. A heterozygous parent (Hh) is crossed with a homozygous recessive parent (hh). What percentage of offspring is expected to be hh?
- (A) 50%
- (B) 25%
- (C) 75%
- (D) 100%
Show Answer
Answer: A – The cross gives Hh and hh in equal proportions, so 50% are expected to be hh.
Q47. What determines whether a human baby is male or female?
- (A) Whether the egg carries an X or a Y chromosome
- (B) The temperature during pregnancy
- (C) The number of chromosomes in the mother
- (D) Whether the sperm carries an X or a Y chromosome
Show Answer
Answer: D – Eggs always carry X; sperm carry X or Y, so the father determines sex, with about a 50% chance of a boy.
Q48. Height in humans is an example of which type of variation?
- (A) Discontinuous variation, controlled by a single gene only
- (B) Variation caused only by the environment
- (C) Continuous variation, influenced by genes and environment
- (D) Variation that cannot be inherited
Show Answer
Answer: C – Height varies continuously across a range and is affected by genes and environment.
Q49. Peppered moths: dark moths became common in polluted areas. Which explanation fits natural selection?
- (A) Soot changed each moth’s genes during its lifetime
- (B) Dark moths were camouflaged on soot-darkened trees, survived predation better and passed on dark alleles
- (C) Birds chose to eat only pale moths because they tasted better
- (D) Moths decided to become darker
Show Answer
Answer: B – Camouflaged dark moths were less likely to be eaten, so they survived, reproduced and passed on their alleles.
Q50. Selective breeding involves humans doing what over many generations?
- (A) Inserting genes from another species into an organism
- (B) Allowing only random mating with no selection
- (C) Choosing organisms with desired characteristics to breed together
- (D) Cloning organisms in a laboratory
Show Answer
Answer: C – In selective breeding, breeders repeatedly select parents with wanted traits.
Q51. Genetic modification of bacteria to produce human insulin involves what?
- (A) Breeding bacteria with human cells
- (B) Inserting the human insulin gene into bacterial DNA so the bacteria make insulin
- (C) Treating bacteria with antibiotics until they make insulin
- (D) Removing all plasmids from the bacteria
Show Answer
Answer: B – The insulin gene is transferred into bacteria, which then produce human insulin.
Ecology
Q52. In a food chain, what is the role of a producer?
- (A) It makes its own food, usually by photosynthesis, and is eaten by consumers
- (B) It eats other animals for energy
- (C) It breaks down dead material only
- (D) It is always at the top of the food chain
Show Answer
Answer: A – Producers, such as green plants, form the first trophic level of a food chain.
Q53. Why does biomass usually decrease at each higher trophic level?
- (A) Consumers at higher levels eat less food
- (B) Producers produce less biomass each year
- (C) Energy is lost through respiration, excretion, egestion and movement
- (D) Decomposers remove all biomass from higher levels
Show Answer
Answer: C – Not all energy is transferred; much is lost, so less biomass can be supported above.
Q54. Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon dioxide back into the air?
- (A) Respiration
- (B) Photosynthesis
- (C) Fossilisation
- (D) Sedimentation
Show Answer
Answer: A – Respiration by plants, animals and decomposers releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Q55. What do decomposers do in an ecosystem?
- (A) They break down dead organisms and waste, returning nutrients to the soil
- (B) They produce food for herbivores
- (C) They eat only living producers
- (D) They remove carbon dioxide from the air
Show Answer
Answer: A – Decomposers recycle nutrients by breaking down dead material.
Q56. Large areas of peat bog are drained for farming. Why does this increase atmospheric carbon dioxide?
- (A) Peat absorbs oxygen from the air
- (B) Farming uses more sunlight
- (C) Bog plants stop respiring
- (D) Stored carbon in peat is oxidised by decomposers and released as carbon dioxide
Show Answer
Answer: D – Draining lets air in, so decomposers break down stored peat and release its carbon as carbon dioxide.
Q57. Which human activity increases methane in the atmosphere?
- (A) Planting trees
- (B) Keeping large numbers of cattle and using landfill sites
- (C) Using wind turbines
- (D) Reducing fertiliser use
Show Answer
Answer: B – Cattle produce methane during digestion and waste in landfill decomposes to release methane.
Q58. Fertiliser washing into a lake can cause eutrophication. What happens next?
- (A) Algae grow rapidly, block light, then die and are decomposed, using up oxygen in the water
- (B) Fish populations increase because of extra oxygen
- (C) The water becomes clearer and cleaner
- (D) Plants on the lake bed grow faster due to more light
Show Answer
Answer: A – Algal blooms followed by decomposition deplete dissolved oxygen, harming aquatic life.
Q59. Which action helps conserve biodiversity?
- (A) Protecting habitats and setting up seed banks
- (B) Draining wetlands for farmland
- (C) Removing all predators from an ecosystem
- (D) Introducing non-native species everywhere
Show Answer
Answer: A – Habitat protection and seed banks help preserve species and genetic diversity.
Q60. Why should quadrats be placed randomly when sampling plants?
- (A) To make sure the rarest plants are always found
- (B) To sample only the largest plants
- (C) To avoid bias and obtain a representative sample
- (D) To avoid counting any plant twice
Show Answer
Answer: C – Random placement avoids the sampler choosing favoured spots, giving a fair estimate.
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