GCSE Biology Practice Test 20 – 60 Questions with Answers (AQA 8461)

Q1. Which process requires energy released by respiration?

• (A) Active transport
• (B) Diffusion
• (C) Osmosis
• (D) Dissolving

Q2. An egg cell contains food stores in its cytoplasm. What is their function?

• (A) To attract sperm
• (B) To nourish the early embryo after fertilisation
• (C) To produce hormones
• (D) To protect against infection

Q3. Which feature of a root hair cell increases the rate of water and mineral uptake?

• (A) A thick waxy cuticle
• (B) Many chloroplasts
• (C) A long thin extension giving a large surface area
• (D) A large nucleus

Q4. Cancer is linked to uncontrolled division of cells. Which type of division is involved?

• (A) Meiosis
• (B) Binary fission
• (C) Fertilisation
• (D) Mitosis

Q5. Embryonic stem cells are of particular interest to researchers because they can become which of the following?

• (A) Almost any type of specialised cell
• (B) Only blood cells
• (C) Only plant cells
• (D) Only skin cells

Q6. Therapeutic cloning produces an embryo with the same genes as the patient. What is a proposed medical benefit?

• (A) A new identical person
• (B) Stem cells that will not be rejected by the patient
• (C) Cells that need no nutrients
• (D) A cure for all infections

Q7. A student wants to compare the size of two cells seen under a microscope. The first image is 8 mm and the real size is 0.04 mm. What is the magnification?

• (A) x20
• (B) x320
• (C) x200
• (D) x2

Q8. Which pair of structures is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

• (A) Nucleus and mitochondria
• (B) Cell membrane and ribosomes
• (C) Cytoplasm and vacuole
• (D) Cell wall and chloroplasts

Q9. During which stage of the cell cycle does the cell grow and copy its DNA before division?

• (A) Interphase
• (B) Cytokinesis only
• (C) Fertilisation
• (D) Differentiation

Q10. A person eats a meal rich in protein. Which enzyme will be most important in digesting it in the stomach?

• (A) Amylase
• (B) Pepsin, a protease
• (C) Lipase
• (D) Cellulase

Q11. The small intestine is alkaline. Why is this helpful for enzymes there?

• (A) Because acid kills all enzymes
• (B) Because bile needs acid
• (C) Because pancreatic enzymes work best in alkaline conditions
• (D) Because villi need acid

Q12. Which sequence correctly describes blood flow through the heart starting at the right atrium?

• (A) Left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body
• (B) Right ventricle, right atrium, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, body
• (C) Right atrium, lungs, right ventricle, left atrium, body, left ventricle
• (D) Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body

Q13. A red blood cell has no nucleus. What is the advantage for oxygen transport?

• (A) More space for haemoglobin
• (B) Faster division
• (C) Better clotting
• (D) Longer life in plasma

Q14. Through which blood vessel does deoxygenated blood leave the heart for the lungs?

• (A) The pulmonary vein
• (B) The pulmonary artery
• (C) The aorta
• (D) The coronary artery

Q15. The aorta carries blood from the left ventricle to which destination?

• (A) The lungs
• (B) The heart muscle only
• (C) The body
• (D) The liver only

Q16. What is the function of the valves inside the heart?

• (A) To pump blood
• (B) To filter pathogens
• (C) To add oxygen to blood
• (D) To prevent blood flowing backwards between chambers and vessels

Q17. In plants, root hair cells absorb water by osmosis. What does this require?

• (A) A higher water concentration in the soil than in the root cell
• (B) A higher salt concentration in the soil
• (C) Energy from respiration only
• (D) A waxy cuticle

Q18. Which plant tissue is made of dead hollow cells that form continuous tubes?

• (A) Phloem
• (B) Xylem
• (C) Epidermis
• (D) Palisade mesophyll

Q19. Which plant defence is a physical barrier against pathogens?

• (A) Antibacterial chemicals only
• (B) Thorns only
• (C) A waxy cuticle
• (D) Cellulose in the stem

Q20. Plants also defend themselves chemically. Which is an example?

• (A) Growing taller
• (B) Opening stomata wider
• (C) Producing more chlorophyll
• (D) Producing antimicrobial substances

Q21. Why is the search for new antibiotics continuing?

• (A) Because some bacteria evolve resistance to existing antibiotics
• (B) Because old antibiotics expire in the body
• (C) Because viruses need them
• (D) Because vaccines stop working

Q22. A new drug passes preclinical testing. What is the next stage of development?

• (A) Immediate sale to the public
• (B) Clinical trials on human volunteers
• (C) Testing on plants only
• (D) Making a vaccine from it

Q23. In drug trials, why are results compared with a control group?

• (A) To increase the number of patients
• (B) To hide side effects
• (C) To check whether the drug itself causes any improvement
• (D) To reduce the dose needed

Q24. Which statement about antibiotics and the common cold is correct?

• (A) Antibiotics cure colds quickly
• (B) Antibiotics prevent colds
• (C) Antibiotics are vaccines for colds
• (D) Antibiotics will not cure a cold because colds are caused by viruses

Q25. Vaccination against measles, mumps and rubella uses which type of vaccine?

• (A) A combined vaccine containing weakened pathogens
• (B) An antibiotic mixture
• (C) A painkiller
• (D) A blood transfusion

Q26. A person is immune to a disease after recovery. What remains in their body to give this immunity?

• (A) Extra red blood cells
• (B) Memory cells specific to that pathogen
• (C) Antibiotics
• (D) A thicker skin barrier

Q27. Energy released by respiration is used for many processes. Which is NOT a direct use of this energy?

• (A) Muscle contraction
• (B) Active transport
• (C) Absorbing light in photosynthesis
• (D) Keeping body temperature constant in mammals

Q28. A plant kept in the dark for several days loses mass. Why?

• (A) It absorbs no water
• (B) It produces too much oxygen
• (C) It stops transpiring
• (D) It respires but cannot photosynthesise, so it uses stored glucose

Q29. Why do greenhouses often add extra carbon dioxide?

• (A) To increase the rate of photosynthesis and crop yield
• (B) To reduce transpiration
• (C) To kill pests only
• (D) To warm the soil only

Q30. A grower increases light intensity in a greenhouse but yield does not rise. What should they check next?

• (A) Whether the plants are too green
• (B) Whether temperature or carbon dioxide is now limiting
• (C) Whether the soil is too dark
• (D) Whether water is too pure

Q31. Which pair of processes both involve the mitochondria or chloroplasts correctly matched?

• (A) Respiration in chloroplasts; photosynthesis in mitochondria
• (B) Both in the nucleus
• (C) Respiration in mitochondria; photosynthesis in chloroplasts
• (D) Both in the vacuole

Q32. Glucose is soluble and would affect osmosis if stored in large amounts. How do plants avoid this problem?

• (A) They store glucose in the vacuole only
• (B) They export all glucose immediately
• (C) They turn glucose into water
• (D) They convert glucose to insoluble starch

Q33. During exercise, glycogen in muscles is broken down. What is it broken down into?

• (A) Glucose for respiration
• (B) Lactic acid directly
• (C) Proteins
• (D) Fatty acids

Q34. Which statement best explains why breathing rate rises before heart rate falls after exercise stops?

• (A) The lungs store oxygen
• (B) The body still needs extra oxygen to clear lactic acid
• (C) The heart stops first
• (D) Muscles stop respiring immediately

Q35. When body temperature falls, shivering helps warm the body. How does shivering generate heat?

• (A) It stops blood flow
• (B) It produces sweat
• (C) Muscle contractions release energy from respiration
• (D) It dilates skin vessels

Q36. Vasoconstriction in cold conditions reduces heat loss. How does it do this?

• (A) It widens skin vessels
• (B) It stops sweating completely
• (C) It increases blood flow to the skin
• (D) It narrows blood vessels near the skin, reducing blood flow to the surface

Q37. Which is an example of homeostasis?

• (A) Keeping blood glucose concentration steady
• (B) Growing taller
• (C) Producing gametes
• (D) Digesting food

Q38. Hormones travel through which medium to reach their target organs?

• (A) Neurones
• (B) The blood
• (C) The lymph only
• (D) The digestive tract

Q39. Compared with nerve impulses, hormonal responses are generally slower and longer lasting. Why?

• (A) Because hormones are electrical
• (B) Because nerves are slower
• (C) Because hormones travel in the blood and are broken down slowly
• (D) Because hormones act only once

Q40. The pituitary gland is sometimes called the master gland. Why?

• (A) Because it is the largest gland
• (B) Because it produces all hormones
• (C) Because it controls reflexes
• (D) Because it produces hormones that control other glands

Q41. A person with kidney failure may need dialysis. What does dialysis do?

• (A) It filters waste products from the blood artificially
• (B) It replaces insulin
• (C) It increases ADH
• (D) It removes red blood cells

Q42. Which hormone is involved in the fight or flight response and is made in the adrenal glands?

• (A) Insulin
• (B) Adrenaline
• (C) Thyroxine
• (D) Oestrogen

Q43. Carl Linnaeus developed the classification system. What is the highest rank in his system?

• (A) Species
• (B) Genus
• (C) Kingdom
• (D) Domain in modern additions

Q44. Evolutionary trees show relationships between species. What does a common ancestor on a tree represent?

• (A) A fossil only
• (B) A species that is extinct today only
• (C) The oldest living species
• (D) A species from which two or more species evolved

Q45. Which evidence supports the idea that humans and chimpanzees share a recent common ancestor?

• (A) Similar DNA sequences and anatomy
• (B) Similar habitats only
• (C) Similar diets only
• (D) Similar size only

Q46. A mutation is a random change in DNA. When can a mutation be passed to offspring?

• (A) When it occurs in any body cell
• (B) When it occurs in a gamete
• (C) Only when caused by radiation
• (D) Never

Q47. Most mutations have no effect or are harmful. Why might a mutation be beneficial?

• (A) Because all mutations improve fitness
• (B) Because mutations are chosen
• (C) If it gives an advantage in a particular environment
• (D) Because mutations repair DNA

Q48. Variation caused by the environment alone cannot be inherited. Which example is environmental variation?

• (A) Eye colour
• (B) Blood group
• (C) Number of chromosomes
• (D) A scar from an injury

Q49. Two plants with identical genes grow to different heights because one receives more light. What type of variation is this?

• (A) Environmental variation
• (B) Genetic variation
• (C) Mutation
• (D) Selective breeding

Q50. In a family, a mother and father both have brown eyes but their child has blue eyes. What does this show?

• (A) Eye colour is not inherited
• (B) Both parents carry a recessive blue-eye allele
• (C) The child has a mutation only
• (D) Brown eyes are recessive

Q51. A genetic cross is carried out between a homozygous dominant plant (AA) and a homozygous recessive plant (aa). What are the genotypes of all offspring?

• (A) AA
• (B) aa
• (C) Aa
• (D) AA and aa in equal numbers

Q52. Which is an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?

• (A) Predation
• (B) Competition
• (C) Disease
• (D) Temperature

Q53. Why is competition for food classed as a biotic factor?

• (A) Because it involves interactions between living organisms
• (B) Because it changes the temperature of the habitat
• (C) Because it involves minerals in the soil
• (D) Because it only happens in water

Q54. A quadrat is used to sample plants in a field. Why are quadrats placed randomly?

• (A) To find the rarest plant
• (B) To avoid bias and get a representative sample
• (C) To count every plant
• (D) To measure temperature

Q55. A student estimates the population of daisies in a field using quadrats. What calculation is needed?

• (A) Total number counted divided by field area only
• (B) Mean number minus total area
• (C) Mean number per quadrat multiplied by total number of quadrats that would cover the field
• (D) Largest count only

Q56. Which method is suitable for estimating the population of mobile animals such as woodlice?

• (A) Counting with a quadrat only
• (B) Measuring a transect only
• (C) Weighing the habitat
• (D) Capture, mark, release and recapture

Q57. In a food chain, if the number of predators increases sharply, what is likely to happen to the prey population first?

• (A) It decreases
• (B) It increases
• (C) It stays the same
• (D) It becomes a producer

Q58. If a disease wipes out rabbits in a grassland, what is likely to happen to fox numbers?

• (A) They rise, because grass increases
• (B) They fall, because their food supply is reduced
• (C) They stay the same
• (D) They become producers

Q59. Which statement about the water cycle is correct?

• (A) Water is created by plants
• (B) Water only moves in rivers
• (C) Water evaporates from oceans, condenses into clouds, and falls as precipitation
• (D) Water is used up by animals permanently

Q60. Carbon is stored in trees as wood. When trees are cut and left to decay, what happens to the carbon?

• (A) It disappears
• (B) It becomes nitrogen
• (C) It is turned into oxygen
• (D) Decomposers release it as carbon dioxide during respiration