GCSE Biology Practice Test 19 – 60 Questions with Answers (AQA 8461)
Work through the full test without rushing, then review the explanations for any questions you missed.
Cell biology
Q1. A nerve cell has a long axon. What is the advantage of this adaptation?
- (A) It carries electrical impulses over long distances quickly
- (B) It stores glucose
- (C) It produces mucus
- (D) It absorbs water
Show Answer
Answer: A – The long axon allows impulses to travel from one part of the body to another.
Q2. Bacteria reproduce asexually by which process?
- (A) Mitosis in a nucleus
- (B) Binary fission
- (C) Meiosis
- (D) Budding of spores only
Show Answer
Answer: B – Bacteria divide by binary fission, producing two identical cells.
Q3. When growing bacteria in the laboratory, why is the Petri dish lid kept on and the culture not touched?
- (A) To keep the bacteria warm only
- (B) To stop photosynthesis
- (C) To prevent contamination by other microorganisms
- (D) To prevent the agar drying in minutes
Show Answer
Answer: C – Uncontaminated cultures require aseptic technique to avoid unwanted microorganisms.
Q4. A student calculates magnification as image size 15 mm and real size 0.05 mm. What is the magnification?
- (A) x30
- (B) x750
- (C) x3
- (D) x300
Show Answer
Answer: D – 15 / 0.05 = 300, so the magnification is x300.
Q5. Convert 0.6 mm into micrometres.
- (A) 600 micrometres
- (B) 60 micrometres
- (C) 6000 micrometres
- (D) 0.6 micrometres
Show Answer
Answer: A – 1 mm = 1000 micrometres, so 0.6 mm = 600 micrometres.
Q6. Which statement about resolution is correct?
- (A) Resolution is the same as magnification
- (B) Resolution is the ability to distinguish between two points that are close together
- (C) Resolution measures the colour of a specimen
- (D) Resolution is the size of the microscope lens
Show Answer
Answer: B – High resolution allows fine detail to be seen clearly, not just enlarged.
Q7. Why can an electron microscope see viruses while a light microscope generally cannot?
- (A) Because it uses coloured light
- (B) Because it is larger
- (C) Because it has much higher resolution
- (D) Because it uses a glass lens
Show Answer
Answer: C – Electron microscopes resolve much smaller structures than light microscopes.
Q8. In which situation would there be no net movement of water by osmosis into or out of a cell?
- (A) When the outside solution is very dilute
- (B) When the outside solution is very concentrated
- (C) When the temperature is very high
- (D) When the solution outside is the same concentration as inside the cell
Show Answer
Answer: D – In an isotonic solution water moves both ways equally, so there is no net movement.
Q9. A plant cell placed in pure water gains water by osmosis. What stops it bursting?
- (A) Its strong cell wall
- (B) Its nucleus
- (C) Its chloroplasts
- (D) Its cell membrane alone
Show Answer
Answer: A – The cell wall resists the pressure of the swollen vacuole and prevents bursting.
Organisation
Q10. In a plant, which tissue carries water and mineral ions from roots to leaves?
- (A) Phloem
- (B) Xylem
- (C) Mesophyll
- (D) Epidermis
Show Answer
Answer: B – Xylem vessels transport water and dissolved minerals upwards.
Q11. Which tissue carries dissolved sugars made in photosynthesis around a plant?
- (A) Xylem
- (B) Stomata
- (C) Phloem
- (D) Cuticle
Show Answer
Answer: C – Phloem transports sugars from sources such as leaves to other parts of the plant.
Q12. Water moves from root to leaf mainly by which process through the xylem?
- (A) Active transport in the phloem
- (B) Diffusion through stomata only
- (C) Photosynthesis
- (D) Transpiration stream
Show Answer
Answer: D – The transpiration stream pulls water up the xylem as water evaporates from leaves.
Q13. Stomata are pores in leaves. What is their main function?
- (A) To allow gases in and out and control water loss
- (B) To absorb sunlight
- (C) To make chlorophyll
- (D) To store starch
Show Answer
Answer: A – Stomata allow carbon dioxide in and oxygen out, and can close to reduce water loss.
Q14. Guard cells control stomata. When guard cells take up water, what happens to the stoma?
- (A) It closes permanently
- (B) It opens
- (C) It becomes a vein
- (D) It produces sugar
Show Answer
Answer: B – Turgid guard cells bend apart and open the stoma.
Q15. Which factor increases the rate of transpiration from a leaf?
- (A) Lower light intensity
- (B) Higher humidity
- (C) Higher temperature
- (D) Still air
Show Answer
Answer: C – Higher temperature increases evaporation, raising transpiration rate.
Q16. Translocation in plants is the movement of sugars through the phloem. In which direction can it occur?
- (A) Only upwards
- (B) Only downwards
- (C) Only towards roots
- (D) Both up and down the plant
Show Answer
Answer: D – Phloem transport moves sugars to growing parts and storage organs in either direction.
Q17. Why is the large intestine important even though little digestion happens there?
- (A) Water is absorbed from undigested food there
- (B) Proteins are digested there
- (C) Bile is made there
- (D) Glucose is absorbed into villi there
Show Answer
Answer: A – The large intestine absorbs water, forming faeces from undigested material.
Infection and response
Q18. Which symptom is a sign that the body is fighting an infection?
- (A) Low blood sugar
- (B) A fever
- (C) A broken bone
- (D) Hair loss
Show Answer
Answer: B – Fever is part of the immune response and can help slow pathogen growth.
Q19. Antitoxins are produced by white blood cells to counteract which harmful substances?
- (A) Antibodies
- (B) Hormones
- (C) Toxins produced by bacteria
- (D) Digestive enzymes
Show Answer
Answer: C – Antitoxins neutralise toxins released by pathogens.
Q20. Why can a new strain of flu cause illness even in people vaccinated against an older strain?
- (A) Because vaccines expire in a day
- (B) Because flu is bacterial
- (C) Because memory cells die immediately
- (D) Because the antigens on the virus have changed
Show Answer
Answer: D – Changed antigens mean existing antibodies may not recognise the new strain.
Q21. Which method helps prevent the spread of disease in hospitals?
- (A) Washing hands and using sterile equipment
- (B) Sharing towels
- (C) Leaving wounds uncovered
- (D) Stopping vaccination
Show Answer
Answer: A – Good hygiene and aseptic technique reduce transmission of pathogens.
Q22. Cholera is spread mainly through contaminated water. Which type of pathogen causes it?
- (A) A virus
- (B) A bacterium
- (C) A fungus
- (D) A worm
Show Answer
Answer: B – Cholera is caused by bacteria in contaminated water or food.
Q23. Tobacco mosaic virus affects plants. What symptom does it show in leaves?
- (A) Wilting only in roots
- (B) Extra flowers
- (C) A mosaic pattern of discolouration
- (D) Thicker stems
Show Answer
Answer: C – TMV causes yellow mosaic discolouration and reduces photosynthesis in leaves.
Q24. Rose black spot is a plant disease caused by a fungus. What does it do to the plant?
- (A) It increases root growth
- (B) It makes flowers larger
- (C) It improves water uptake
- (D) It damages leaves, reducing photosynthesis and growth
Show Answer
Answer: D – Black spot lesions reduce leaf area for photosynthesis, weakening the plant.
Q25. Aphids damage plants by feeding on sap. They can also spread disease by doing what?
- (A) Carrying viruses from plant to plant
- (B) Producing antibiotics
- (C) Blocking stomata with soil
- (D) Eating roots only
Show Answer
Answer: A – Aphids act as vectors, transferring plant viruses as they feed.
Bioenergetics
Q26. Which description of anaerobic respiration is accurate?
- (A) It uses oxygen and releases more energy
- (B) It releases less energy than aerobic respiration and does not use oxygen
- (C) It produces glucose
- (D) It only happens in plants
Show Answer
Answer: B – Anaerobic respiration is incomplete breakdown of glucose without oxygen, releasing less energy.
Q27. A baker uses yeast to make bread rise. Which product of yeast respiration causes the dough to rise?
- (A) Ethanol
- (B) Lactic acid
- (C) Carbon dioxide gas
- (D) Oxygen
Show Answer
Answer: C – Carbon dioxide bubbles expand the dough, while ethanol evaporates during baking.
Q28. In brewing, yeast is used to produce ethanol. What conditions favour anaerobic respiration by yeast?
- (A) Bright light
- (B) Very low temperature
- (C) Presence of antibiotics
- (D) Absence of oxygen
Show Answer
Answer: D – Without oxygen yeast respires anaerobically, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Q29. During a sprint, an athlete’s muscles may respire anaerobically because oxygen cannot be supplied fast enough. What builds up as a result?
- (A) Lactic acid
- (B) Ethanol
- (C) Starch
- (D) Glycogen
Show Answer
Answer: A – Anaerobic respiration in muscle produces lactic acid.
Q30. Which organ converts lactic acid back to glucose after exercise?
- (A) The lung
- (B) The liver
- (C) The kidney
- (D) The stomach
Show Answer
Answer: B – The liver oxidises some lactic acid and converts the rest back to glucose.
Q31. The heart rate of a fit person recovers faster after exercise than that of an unfit person. What does this suggest?
- (A) An unfit person has a larger heart
- (B) A fit person produces no lactic acid
- (C) A fit person’s circulation supplies oxygen more efficiently
- (D) An unfit person breathes slower at rest
Show Answer
Answer: C – Efficient oxygen delivery allows faster removal of lactic acid and recovery.
Q32. Which of these is an example of a catabolic metabolic reaction?
- (A) Building proteins from amino acids
- (B) Converting glucose to glycogen
- (C) Making cellulose from glucose
- (D) Breaking down proteins into amino acids
Show Answer
Answer: D – Catabolism breaks large molecules down; building molecules up is anabolism.
Q33. Which of these is an example of an anabolic metabolic reaction?
- (A) Making proteins from amino acids
- (B) Breaking down fats into fatty acids
- (C) Breaking down starch into sugars
- (D) Oxidising lactic acid
Show Answer
Answer: A – Anabolism builds larger molecules from smaller ones, using energy.
Homeostasis and response
Q34. Ethene is a plant hormone that controls fruit ripening. How is it used commercially?
- (A) To prevent seeds germinating
- (B) To ripen fruit during transport and storage
- (C) To make stems shorter
- (D) To increase leaf size only
Show Answer
Answer: B – Ethene gas is used to ripen bananas and other fruit after harvest.
Q35. The kidney filters blood and produces urine. Which substance is filtered out of the blood in the kidney but is normally reabsorbed?
- (A) Urea
- (B) Excess salts only
- (C) Glucose
- (D) Proteins
Show Answer
Answer: C – Glucose is filtered and then fully reabsorbed in a healthy kidney; urea is excreted.
Q36. ADH is a hormone that controls water reabsorption in the kidney. When the body is dehydrated, what happens to ADH levels?
- (A) ADH levels fall, so less water is reabsorbed
- (B) ADH stops being made
- (C) ADH causes more water loss
- (D) ADH levels rise, so more water is reabsorbed and urine is concentrated
Show Answer
Answer: D – Dehydration raises ADH, increasing water reabsorption and producing small volumes of concentrated urine.
Q37. If a person drinks a large volume of water, what happens to ADH and urine?
- (A) ADH falls, less water is reabsorbed, and a large volume of dilute urine is produced
- (B) ADH rises and urine becomes concentrated
- (C) ADH falls and urine becomes concentrated
- (D) No change occurs
Show Answer
Answer: A – Low ADH means less water reabsorption, so excess water is excreted as dilute urine.
Q38. Which organ produces ADH?
- (A) The kidney itself
- (B) The pituitary gland, in response to signals from the brain
- (C) The adrenal gland
- (D) The pancreas
Show Answer
Answer: B – ADH is released by the pituitary gland when blood water content is low.
Q39. Which waste product is removed by the kidneys in urine?
- (A) Carbon dioxide
- (B) Faeces
- (C) Urea
- (D) Oxygen
Show Answer
Answer: C – Urea, formed in the liver from excess amino acids, is excreted by the kidneys.
Q40. Excess amino acids cannot be stored. What happens to them in the liver?
- (A) They are turned into starch
- (B) They are stored as protein
- (C) They are excreted unchanged
- (D) They are deaminated to form urea
Show Answer
Answer: D – Deamination in the liver removes the nitrogen part, forming urea for excretion.
Q41. Body temperature is controlled by a thermoregulatory centre in which organ?
- (A) The brain
- (B) The skin
- (C) The liver
- (D) The kidney
Show Answer
Answer: A – The brain monitors blood temperature and coordinates responses such as sweating and shivering.
Q42. When body temperature rises, which response helps cool the body?
- (A) Shivering
- (B) Sweating and blood vessels dilating near the skin
- (C) Hair standing on end
- (D) Blood vessels constricting
Show Answer
Answer: B – Sweat evaporation cools the skin and vasodilation increases heat loss.
Inheritance, variation and evolution
Q43. Genetic modification involves changing the genes of an organism. Which is an example in crops?
- (A) Crossing two varieties by pollination
- (B) Feeding plants extra fertiliser
- (C) Inserting a gene for insect resistance into a crop plant
- (D) Growing plants in a greenhouse
Show Answer
Answer: C – Genetic engineering transfers a specific gene, such as for pest resistance, into a crop.
Q44. A genetically modified crop may produce its own insecticide. What is a possible benefit?
- (A) The crop needs more water
- (B) The crop cannot photosynthesise
- (C) The crop becomes an animal
- (D) Less chemical pesticide spraying is needed
Show Answer
Answer: D – Pest-resistant crops can reduce pesticide use and increase yield.
Q45. What is meant by a clone?
- (A) A group of genetically identical organisms or cells
- (B) A new species formed by selective breeding
- (C) An organism with a harmful mutation
- (D) A hybrid of two different species
Show Answer
Answer: A – Clones share identical genes, whether produced naturally by cuttings or by cloning techniques.
Q46. Cloning a plant by taking cuttings produces genetically identical plants. What is this an example of?
- (A) Sexual reproduction
- (B) Asexual reproduction
- (C) Genetic modification
- (D) Selective breeding only
Show Answer
Answer: B – Cuttings are asexual reproduction, producing clones of the parent.
Q47. Adult cell cloning, as used to produce Dolly the sheep, involves transferring a nucleus from a body cell into an empty egg cell. What is the result?
- (A) An embryo with genes from two parents
- (B) A gamete
- (C) An embryo genetically identical to the donor
- (D) A plant cutting
Show Answer
Answer: C – Nuclear transfer creates a clone with the donor’s nuclear DNA.
Q48. Classification groups organisms by shared features. Which is the correct order from largest to smallest group?
- (A) Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom
- (B) Kingdom, species, genus, family, order, class, phylum
- (C) Phylum, kingdom, class, order, genus, species, family
- (D) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
Show Answer
Answer: D – Classification ranks run from broad kingdom down to specific species.
Q49. Organisms in the same species can interbreed to produce fertile offspring. What does this definition describe?
- (A) A species
- (B) A genus
- (C) A kingdom
- (D) A phylum
Show Answer
Answer: A – A species is a group of similar organisms that can breed to produce fertile offspring.
Q50. The binomial system gives each organism a two-part scientific name. Which two parts are used?
- (A) Kingdom and phylum
- (B) Genus and species
- (C) Family and order
- (D) Class and genus
Show Answer
Answer: B – Binomial names combine genus and species, for example Homo sapiens.
Q51. Why do scientists use Latin binomial names instead of common names?
- (A) Because Latin names are shorter
- (B) Because common names are always wrong
- (C) Because common names vary by language and region, while binomial names are universal
- (D) Because binomial names change yearly
Show Answer
Answer: C – Scientific names avoid confusion caused by different local names.
Ecology
Q52. Eutrophication is caused by excess fertiliser washing into lakes. What is the sequence of events?
- (A) Fish grow larger, algae die, oxygen rises
- (B) Plants grow, oxygen rises, fish thrive
- (C) Algae are eaten, water clears
- (D) Algae bloom, light blocked, plants die, decomposers use oxygen, aquatic animals die
Show Answer
Answer: D – Nutrient enrichment causes algal blooms that block light and lead to oxygen depletion.
Q53. Why do farmers use fertilisers?
- (A) To replace minerals removed from soil by crops
- (B) To kill pests
- (C) To increase rainfall
- (D) To make soil acidic
Show Answer
Answer: A – Fertilisers add nitrates, phosphates and potassium removed by harvesting crops.
Q54. Overuse of pesticides can harm food webs. How?
- (A) It increases biodiversity
- (B) It can kill non-target species and reduce food for predators
- (C) It makes pests stronger immediately
- (D) It adds nutrients to soil
Show Answer
Answer: B – Pesticides may kill beneficial insects and reduce prey for higher consumers.
Q55. Bioaccumulation is the build-up of toxic chemicals in organisms. Why are top predators most affected?
- (A) Because predators eat less
- (B) Because predators are larger
- (C) Because chemicals concentrate at each trophic level
- (D) Because chemicals dissolve in water only
Show Answer
Answer: C – Persistent chemicals accumulate up the food chain, reaching highest levels in top predators.
Q56. Sustainable fishing uses quotas and net sizes. What is the aim?
- (A) To catch all fish quickly
- (B) To increase bycatch
- (C) To stop all fishing forever
- (D) To allow fish stocks to recover and be maintained
Show Answer
Answer: D – Quotas limit catches so populations can breed and recover.
Q57. Which action helps maintain biodiversity?
- (A) Protecting habitats and creating nature reserves
- (B) Draining wetlands
- (C) Clearing forests for farms
- (D) Introducing non-native species
Show Answer
Answer: A – Protected habitats preserve species and their ecosystems.
Q58. An invasive species can reduce biodiversity. Why?
- (A) Because it always eats native species
- (B) Because it may outcompete native species or lack predators
- (C) Because it increases habitat size
- (D) Because it is always larger
Show Answer
Answer: B – Invasive species can outcompete natives for resources and disrupt food webs.
Q59. In an ecosystem, what is meant by the term community?
- (A) A single species in an area
- (B) Only the producers
- (C) All the populations of different species living in a habitat
- (D) The physical environment only
Show Answer
Answer: C – A community is all interacting populations in a habitat.
Q60. What is the difference between a habitat and an ecosystem?
- (A) They are the same thing
- (B) A habitat includes all species
- (C) An ecosystem is only the living parts
- (D) A habitat is where an organism lives; an ecosystem includes the community and its physical environment
Show Answer
Answer: D – An ecosystem combines the community with abiotic factors such as soil and climate.
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