This test covers the meaning, purpose and types of educational research, the research process, research problems, variables and hypotheses, literature review and sampling, research tools, data and designs, descriptive and inferential statistics, the action research cycle, research ethics, and report writing and referencing.
Section 1: Meaning, Purpose and Types of Research
Q1. Educational research is most useful to a classroom teacher when it:
- (A) Confirms every existing teaching habit without question
- (B) Provides dependable evidence for choosing and improving teaching approaches
- (C) Lengthens staff meetings with extra reports
- (D) Replaces lesson planning with administrative orders
Show Answer
Answer: B – Research gives teachers evidence on which to base and improve their practice, rather than replacing professional judgement.
Q2. Basic research in education is primarily concerned with:
- (A) Solving one teacher’s immediate timetable problem
- (B) Evaluating a single textbook for a single class
- (C) Training teachers in a new administrative procedure
- (D) Expanding general knowledge and developing theory
Show Answer
Answer: D – Basic research seeks general understanding and theory, even when it has no immediate practical application.
Q3. Applied research is best described as research that:
- (A) Uses existing knowledge to solve a practical educational problem
- (B) Tests a theory with no concern for any practical outcome
- (C) Describes past events without analysing their causes
- (D) Studies a single learner in exhaustive biographical detail
Show Answer
Answer: A – Applied research is directed toward a practical problem and aims at a usable solution.
Q4. A teacher tries a new grouping strategy, records what happens, reflects on the result, and adjusts the strategy for the next lesson. This best illustrates:
- (A) Historical research
- (B) A single case study of one school
- (C) The action research cycle in classroom practice
- (D) An experimental study with random assignment
Show Answer
Answer: C – Plan, act, observe and reflect in repeated cycles is the action research pattern, carried out by the practitioner.
Q5. Research objectives are normally formulated:
- (A) After the problem is identified, to state clearly what the study intends to achieve
- (B) Only after the data have been analysed
- (C) In the final chapter, as a summary of the findings
- (D) Before any research problem is identified
Show Answer
Answer: A – Objectives translate the problem into clear, achievable aims that guide the design, tools and analysis.
Q6. In the action research cycle, after a teacher has acted on a plan and observed its effects, the next step is to:
- (A) Publish the results without any further review
- (B) Repeat exactly the same plan without change
- (C) Move to a completely unrelated classroom problem
- (D) Reflect on the evidence and revise the plan for the next cycle
Show Answer
Answer: D – Reflection on observed evidence is what turns one action cycle into an improved plan for the next cycle.
Q7. The delimitations section of a research proposal mainly states:
- (A) Every study ever done on the topic
- (B) The boundaries and limits the researcher sets for the study, such as its scope and population
- (C) The final results in advance
- (D) The personal diary of the researcher
Show Answer
Answer: B – Delimitations describe what the study will and will not cover, so readers can judge its scope.
Q8. A researcher reads the closing sections of several theses and notes the topics their authors recommend for further study. This is an example of identifying a problem from:
- (A) A classroom observation made during one lesson
- (B) The personal opinion of a single school head
- (C) Recommendations for further research in published studies
- (D) A casual conversation with a parent at a school gate
Show Answer
Answer: C – Authors often point out gaps and questions their own studies could not answer, which can become new research problems.
Q9. The methodology chapter of a research report should mainly:
- (A) List the researcher’s personal opinions about the topic
- (B) Repeat the full literature review in shorter form
- (C) Present the final conclusions and recommendations
- (D) Describe the design, sample, tools and procedure clearly enough for the study to be understood and replicated
Show Answer
Answer: D – A methodology chapter records how the study was done so that readers can judge its quality and repeat it.
Section 2: Research Problem, Variables and Hypotheses
Q10. A researcher keeps class size the same for all groups while varying homework frequency. Class size in this study is:
- (A) A control variable, held constant so it cannot explain the result
- (B) The independent variable
- (C) The dependent variable
- (D) An intervening variable
Show Answer
Answer: A – A control variable is held constant deliberately so that it cannot offer a rival explanation for the outcome.
Q11. A study follows the same group of pupils over three years to track how their reading skills grow. This design is best called:
- (A) A cross-sectional survey
- (B) A historical study
- (C) A longitudinal study
- (D) A single case experiment
Show Answer
Answer: C – A longitudinal study follows the same participants over an extended period to observe change over time.
Q12. A student’s motivation comes between the teaching method and the pupils’ achievement, helping to explain the link, but it is not directly measured. Such a factor is best called a(n):
- (A) Independent variable
- (B) Intervening variable
- (C) Dependent variable
- (D) Research hypothesis
Show Answer
Answer: B – An intervening variable operates between the independent and dependent variables and helps explain their relationship.
Q13. A researcher keeps the length of the lesson, the textbook and the test the same for both groups, changing only the teaching method. The factors kept the same are:
- (A) Dependent variables
- (B) Intervening variables
- (C) Extraneous variables that were ignored
- (D) Control variables
Show Answer
Answer: D – Control variables are deliberately held constant so that differences in outcome can be attributed to the independent variable.
Q14. Which of the following claims would a statistical test most directly examine as a statement of no effect?
- (A) Homework frequency has no significant effect on mathematics scores
- (B) More homework always raises scores
- (C) Homework harms weaker pupils
- (D) Homework and scores rise together
Show Answer
Answer: A – A null hypothesis asserts no difference or no relationship, which is what statistical testing examines.
Q15. A hypothesis that predicts pupils taught by a new method will score higher than pupils taught by the usual method is:
- (A) Null hypothesis
- (B) Directional alternative hypothesis
- (C) Non-directional hypothesis
- (D) Sampling plan
Show Answer
Answer: B – It is an alternative to the null and it states the direction of the expected difference.
Q16. A research question differs from a hypothesis mainly in that a research question:
- (A) States a predicted answer in advance
- (B) Is the statement tested statistically
- (C) Asks what will be found, without predicting the answer in advance
- (D) Is written only in the final chapter
Show Answer
Answer: C – A question asks; a hypothesis predicts. The study then seeks an answer to the question.
Q17. A hypothesis is most useful to a researcher when it is:
- (A) Testable, clear and stated in advance of data collection
- (B) Deliberately vague so that any result can support it
- (C) Changed after every new observation during analysis
- (D) Written only after the conclusions are already known
Show Answer
Answer: A – A testable hypothesis stated beforehand gives the study direction and a clear basis for accepting or rejecting it.
Q18. Which practice best protects the rights of research participants?
- (A) Recording interviews without telling participants
- (B) Pressuring reluctant teachers to complete a questionnaire
- (C) Using participants’ real names in published examples
- (D) Allowing participants to withdraw at any stage without penalty
Show Answer
Answer: D – Voluntary participation includes the right to withdraw at any time without facing any penalty.
Section 3: Literature Review and Sampling
Q19. A literature review that merely lists studies one after another, without synthesis, is weak mainly because it:
- (A) Uses too many references for one study
- (B) Is always too long to read
- (C) Fails to show how the studies connect or where the gap lies
- (D) Contains no statistical analysis
Show Answer
Answer: C – A review must synthesise: show patterns, agreements, disagreements and the gap the new study fills, not just list summaries.
Q20. When a researcher uses the exact words of another author in a report, correct referencing requires that the researcher:
- (A) Change a few words and present the passage as original writing
- (B) Place the words in quotation marks and cite the source
- (C) Mention the author only in the acknowledgements
- (D) Omit the source if the passage is shorter than one paragraph
Show Answer
Answer: B – Exact wording must be shown as a quotation and credited to its source to avoid plagiarism.
Q21. In sampling terminology, the population of a study is:
- (A) The small group actually studied in detail
- (B) The list of names used to draw the sample
- (C) The statistical test applied to the data
- (D) The complete group to which results are to be generalised
Show Answer
Answer: D – The population is the whole group of interest, while the sample is only the part actually studied.
Q22. Simple random sampling is characterised by the fact that:
- (A) Every member of the population has an equal chance of selection
- (B) Only the most willing volunteers are included
- (C) The researcher hand-picks experts for their special knowledge
- (D) Whole schools are selected as intact clusters
Show Answer
Answer: A – In simple random sampling selection is by chance, giving every member an equal probability of being chosen.
Q23. The main difference between stratified sampling and cluster sampling is that:
- (A) Stratified sampling uses no random selection at all
- (B) Cluster sampling studies every member of the population
- (C) Stratified sampling selects randomly within every group, while cluster sampling selects whole groups at random
- (D) Stratified sampling is used only for small populations
Show Answer
Answer: C – Stratification divides the population and samples inside each stratum; cluster sampling draws intact groups as the units.
Q24. Cluster sampling is most appropriate when:
- (A) A complete list of individuals is available and the population is small
- (B) The population is widely spread and naturally occurs in intact groups such as schools or classes
- (C) The researcher needs only a few expert informants
- (D) Participants must be found through referrals from other participants
Show Answer
Answer: B – Cluster sampling selects whole groups at random, which is practical when individuals are scattered across many locations.
Q25. In systematic sampling, the researcher selects:
- (A) A fixed quota from each subgroup without randomisation
- (B) Only those who happen to be easiest to reach
- (C) Every kth member from a list after a random start
- (D) Participants recommended by earlier participants
Show Answer
Answer: C – Systematic sampling takes every kth name from an ordered list, beginning from a randomly chosen starting point.
Q26. A researcher studying experienced head teachers deliberately selects only heads with more than ten years of service. This is:
- (A) Simple random sampling
- (B) Purposive sampling
- (C) Systematic sampling
- (D) Cluster sampling
Show Answer
Answer: B – Purposive sampling deliberately chooses participants who meet criteria judged relevant to the study.
Q27. A researcher distributes questionnaires to the teachers present in the staff room on the day of the visit because they are readily available. This is:
- (A) Convenience sampling
- (B) Stratified random sampling
- (C) Systematic sampling
- (D) Quota sampling
Show Answer
Answer: A – Convenience sampling uses participants who are easiest to reach, although it limits generalisation.
Q28. A researcher deliberately selects only experienced science teachers because their views are central to the question. This is:
- (A) Simple random sampling
- (B) Cluster sampling
- (C) Systematic sampling
- (D) Purposive sampling
Show Answer
Answer: D – Purposive sampling selects participants deliberately because they have the characteristics the study needs.
Q29. Quota sampling differs from stratified random sampling mainly because quota sampling:
- (A) Uses only one group from the population
- (B) Fills fixed category numbers without random selection within categories
- (C) Studies every member of the population
- (D) Uses no categories at all
Show Answer
Answer: B – Quota sampling fixes how many cases are needed from each category, but fills them non-randomly, unlike stratified random sampling.
Q30. A teacher tries group work, observes that weaker students still stay silent, and then plans paired work for the next lesson. This best illustrates:
- (A) A single survey with no follow-up action
- (B) A historical study of past classroom practice
- (C) A true experiment with random assignment
- (D) The action research cycle of acting, observing and replanning
Show Answer
Answer: D – Trying an action, observing its effect and replanning on that evidence is the core of the action research cycle.
Section 4: Research Tools, Data and Designs
Q31. A questionnaire is least suitable when a researcher needs to:
- (A) Reach many people cheaply
- (B) Compare answers across groups
- (C) Probe complex personal reasons in depth through follow-up questions
- (D) Collect the same items from everyone
Show Answer
Answer: C – Questionnaires cannot probe or clarify in the way an interview can, so they suit standardised items rather than deep exploration.
Q32. A semi-structured interview is characterised by:
- (A) A prepared guide of topics with freedom to probe and follow up
- (B) Identical fixed questions with no follow-up allowed
- (C) No questions prepared in advance at all
- (D) Questions sent only by post or email
Show Answer
Answer: A – Semi-structured interviews combine a planned guide with flexibility to explore answers in depth.
Q33. Non-participant observation means that the observer:
- (A) Watches and records behaviour without joining in the activity being observed
- (B) Takes part in the lesson as a co-teacher
- (C) Interviews every participant after the lesson
- (D) Distributes a questionnaire during the observation
Show Answer
Answer: A – A non-participant observer remains detached from the group so that behaviour can be recorded without interference.
Q34. A Likert-type rating scale is commonly used to measure:
- (A) A student’s exact score on a mathematics test
- (B) The height and weight of school children
- (C) Attitudes and opinions by asking agreement with statements
- (D) The number of books in a school library
Show Answer
Answer: C – Rating scales ask respondents to indicate their level of agreement, which reflects attitudes and opinions.
Q35. Enrolment figures published by a ministry, reused by a researcher who did not collect them, are:
- (A) Primary data
- (B) Qualitative interview data
- (C) Experimental data
- (D) Secondary data
Show Answer
Answer: D – Data collected by others for another purpose and reused in a new study are secondary data.
Q36. Test scores expressed as numbers and analysed statistically are an example of:
- (A) Qualitative data
- (B) Quantitative data
- (C) Historical data
- (D) Secondary opinion data
Show Answer
Answer: B – Quantitative data are numerical and can be summarised and tested statistically.
Q37. In an experimental design, the essential feature is that the researcher:
- (A) Studies events exactly as they occurred in the past
- (B) Describes a single case in great depth without comparison
- (C) Manipulates the independent variable and controls other conditions
- (D) Surveys opinions without any comparison group
Show Answer
Answer: C – Experiments manipulate a treatment while controlling other factors so that effects can be attributed to the treatment.
Q38. Quasi-experimental designs are most often used in schools because:
- (A) Random assignment to new groups is often impossible in real classrooms
- (B) They need no comparison group at all
- (C) They study only events from the distant past
- (D) They collect no quantitative data
Show Answer
Answer: A – When pupils cannot be reassigned, researchers use intact classes and accept the lack of random assignment.
Q39. A survey design is best suited to:
- (A) Establishing a strict cause-and-effect relationship in a laboratory
- (B) Describing the characteristics, opinions or practices of a large group at one point in time
- (C) Tracing the history of a school over fifty years
- (D) Studying one exceptional student in exhaustive detail
Show Answer
Answer: B – Surveys describe what is true of a population at a given time, usually through questionnaires or interviews.
Q40. Ex post facto research is characterised by the fact that the researcher:
- (A) Manipulates the independent variable before measuring outcomes
- (B) Randomly assigns students to treatment and control groups
- (C) Creates a new teaching method and tests it immediately
- (D) Studies an effect after the presumed cause has already occurred, without manipulation
Show Answer
Answer: D – In ex post facto research the cause has already happened, so the researcher looks back rather than intervening.
Q41. Correlational research is primarily used to:
- (A) Determine whether two variables vary together and how strongly
- (B) Prove that one variable causes another variable
- (C) Describe the past development of an institution
- (D) Manipulate a treatment under controlled conditions
Show Answer
Answer: A – Correlation measures the strength and direction of association between variables, but it does not by itself prove causation.
Q42. When a historian checks whether an old school record is genuine and accurate before using it, this checking is called:
- (A) Random sampling of documents
- (B) Surveying present opinions
- (C) Historical criticism of sources
- (D) Experimental control
Show Answer
Answer: C – Historical criticism examines the authenticity and accuracy of surviving sources before they are used as evidence.
Section 5: Descriptive and Inferential Statistics Basics
Q43. The mean of a set of scores is:
- (A) The most frequently occurring score
- (B) The middle score when scores are arranged in order
- (C) The difference between the highest and lowest scores
- (D) The sum of all scores divided by the number of scores
Show Answer
Answer: D – The mean is the arithmetic average, found by dividing the total of the scores by how many scores there are.
Q44. For an even number of scores, the median is found by:
- (A) Taking the most frequently occurring score
- (B) Taking the mean of the two middle scores
- (C) Taking the difference between the highest and lowest scores
- (D) Taking the score that occurs exactly twice
Show Answer
Answer: B – With an even count there is no single middle score, so the median is the average of the two middle values.
Q45. In the scores 5, 8, 8, 11, 14, 14, 14 and 19, the mode is:
- (A) 8
- (B) 14
- (C) 11
- (D) 12
Show Answer
Answer: B – The mode is the score that occurs most often, and 14 occurs three times in this set.
Q46. Standard deviation is best understood as a measure of:
- (A) How spread out scores are around their mean
- (B) The most common score in a distribution
- (C) The middle point of a distribution
- (D) The total number of scores collected
Show Answer
Answer: A – Standard deviation shows the typical distance of scores from the mean, so a larger value means greater spread.
Q47. A correlation coefficient of +0.82 between study hours and test scores suggests:
- (A) No relationship between the two variables
- (B) A weak negative relationship
- (C) That study hours cause high scores in every case
- (D) A strong positive relationship
Show Answer
Answer: D – A coefficient near +1 indicates a strong positive association, where higher values of one variable tend to go with higher values of the other.
Q48. Descriptive statistics are used to:
- (A) Test hypotheses about a wider population
- (B) Estimate population values from a sample
- (C) Summarise and describe the data actually collected
- (D) Decide whether a result is statistically significant
Show Answer
Answer: C – Descriptive statistics organise and summarise a data set, for example through means, percentages and graphs.
Q49. Inferential statistics differ from descriptive statistics because they:
- (A) Only present scores in tables and charts
- (B) Only calculate averages for the sample
- (C) Only describe qualitative interview responses
- (D) Use sample data to draw conclusions about a population
Show Answer
Answer: D – Inferential statistics generalise from a sample to the wider population and test hypotheses about it.
Q50. The median is most useful as a measure of central tendency when scores:
- (A) Are all identical
- (B) Include extreme scores that would distort the mean
- (C) Are categories with no order
- (D) Come from a single pupil only
Show Answer
Answer: B – The median, as the middle score, is not pulled by a few extreme values the way the mean is.
Q51. A chi-square test is most appropriate when the data are:
- (A) Frequencies in categories, such as numbers of students choosing each option
- (B) Exact scores measured on a continuous scale
- (C) Paired measurements from the same group over time
- (D) Correlation coefficients between two variables
Show Answer
Answer: A – Chi-square compares observed category frequencies with frequencies expected under a hypothesis.
Q52. When a researcher says a result is significant at the 0.05 level, this means the observed difference:
- (A) Is large enough to matter in every classroom
- (B) Proves the research hypothesis with certainty
- (C) Is unlikely to have occurred by chance alone, with a probability of 5 percent or less
- (D) Applies to all schools in the country without exception
Show Answer
Answer: C – The 0.05 level means there is at most a 5 percent probability that a difference of this size arose by chance.
Q53. A case study design is best used when a researcher wants to:
- (A) Survey opinions across a whole province at one time
- (B) Compare the means of two large randomly assigned groups
- (C) Investigate a single school, class or learner in great depth
- (D) Trace the history of education over several decades
Show Answer
Answer: C – A case study focuses intensively on one bounded case to understand it in depth, rather than generalising from a large sample.
Q54. A correlation of -0.68 indicates:
- (A) A strong positive relationship
- (B) Almost no relationship
- (C) A perfect positive relationship
- (D) A fairly strong negative relationship
Show Answer
Answer: D – The negative sign shows an inverse relationship, and 0.68 is fairly strong, though not perfect.
Section 6: Action Research Cycle, Ethics, Report Writing and Referencing
Q55. The main purpose of action research is to:
- (A) Create universal laws of learning for all countries
- (B) Improve practice in a particular setting through cycles of action and reflection
- (C) Study only events that happened in the past
- (D) Test hypotheses using randomly assigned samples
Show Answer
Answer: B – Action research is local and practical: practitioners act, observe, reflect and improve their own setting.
Q56. In action research, reflection after observation is important mainly because it:
- (A) Helps the practitioner judge what worked, what did not, and how to improve the next cycle
- (B) Allows the researcher to discard all collected data
- (C) Proves that the first plan was perfect
- (D) Replaces the need for any further planning
Show Answer
Answer: A – Reflection turns observations into learning that shapes a better plan for the next cycle.
Q57. In research ethics, the right to withdraw means that participants:
- (A) May leave the study at any time without penalty
- (B) Must complete every question once they have started
- (C) Are paid only if they stay to the end
- (D) Are named in the published report
Show Answer
Answer: A – Voluntary participation includes the freedom to withdraw at any point without disadvantage.
Q58. Confidentiality in research is best protected when the researcher:
- (A) Publishes participants’ names alongside their answers
- (B) Keeps identities private and reports results without linking answers to named individuals
- (C) Shares raw questionnaires with anyone who asks for them
- (D) Stores identifiable data in an unlocked public place
Show Answer
Answer: B – Confidentiality means that private information is not disclosed in a way that identifies individual participants.
Q59. Plagiarism in a research report is:
- (A) Quoting a source accurately with full acknowledgement
- (B) Paraphrasing an idea in one’s own words with a citation
- (C) Presenting another person’s words or ideas as one’s own without acknowledgement
- (D) Listing every source consulted in a bibliography
Show Answer
Answer: C – Plagiarism is the unacknowledged use of another’s work, whether quoted, paraphrased or used as an idea.
Q60. A thesis or dissertation normally ends with:
- (A) A new research problem stated without any findings
- (B) A list of tools that were never used in the study
- (C) Raw questionnaires with participants’ names attached
- (D) A summary of findings, conclusions, recommendations and references
Show Answer
Answer: D – The final chapters draw conclusions from the findings, suggest recommendations, and list the sources cited.
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