This practice test covers the meaning, purpose and types of educational research, the research process, variables and hypotheses, literature review, sampling methods, research tools, research designs, basic statistics, action research, ethics and report writing, with special emphasis on literature review and sampling.

Meaning, Purpose and Types of Research

Q1. Which of the following activities counts as educational research rather than routine school work?

  • (A) Marking weekly class tests and recording the marks
  • (B) Preparing the annual school timetable
  • (C) Systematically investigating why absenteeism is higher in one grade than in others
  • (D) Announcing examination dates on the notice board
Show Answer

Answer: C – Systematic investigation of a question is research; routine administration is not.

Q2. Applied research differs from basic research mainly in that applied research:

  • (A) Aims at solving a specific practical problem in a real setting
  • (B) Never uses data or evidence
  • (C) Is always done without a research question
  • (D) Deals only with ancient history
Show Answer

Answer: A – Applied research targets a specific practical problem.

Q3. A teacher who studies her own classroom, tries a new grouping strategy, observes the result and adjusts it, is conducting:

  • (A) Historical research
  • (B) Survey research
  • (C) Philosophical research
  • (D) Action research
Show Answer

Answer: D – Practitioner-led cycles of trial, observation and adjustment are action research.

Q4. Which type of research is best suited to answering the question “What are the present attitudes of parents towards homework?”

  • (A) Experimental research
  • (B) Descriptive survey research
  • (C) Historical research
  • (D) Laboratory research
Show Answer

Answer: B – A descriptive survey portrays present attitudes as they are.

Q5. Quantitative research is characterised mainly by:

  • (A) Collecting only personal stories with no counting
  • (B) Avoiding any form of measurement
  • (C) Studying a single case in great narrative depth
  • (D) Collecting numerical data and analysing it statistically
Show Answer

Answer: D – Quantitative research works with numerical data and statistical analysis.

Q6. Qualitative research is most appropriate when the researcher wants to:

  • (A) Test a hypothesis with a large random sample
  • (B) Measure the exact difference between two group means
  • (C) Understand experiences, meanings and processes in depth from participants’ perspectives
  • (D) Rank schools by examination results alone
Show Answer

Answer: C – Qualitative research explores meanings and experiences in depth.

Q7. Research is most valuable for improving education when its findings are:

  • (A) Based on systematic evidence and reported clearly enough for others to use and check
  • (B) Based on one teacher’s personal opinion
  • (C) Kept private by the researcher
  • (D) Published without any method described
Show Answer

Answer: A – Findings help practice only when they rest on evidence and are reported transparently enough to be used and checked.

Q8. A study that traces how the curriculum for primary science has changed over three decades is an example of:

  • (A) Experimental research
  • (B) Historical research
  • (C) Correlational research
  • (D) Action research
Show Answer

Answer: B – Tracing change over time from records is historical research.

Q9. Which statement about scientific research is correct?

  • (A) Its methods are kept secret from other researchers
  • (B) Its conclusions are accepted without any evidence
  • (C) Its findings depend only on the researcher’s reputation
  • (D) Its procedures are reported clearly enough for others to check or repeat the work
Show Answer

Answer: D – Scientific research is transparent and open to checking and replication.

Q10. A researcher who develops a new theory of classroom discipline from general principles, without collecting new school data, is mainly doing:

  • (A) Basic or theoretical research
  • (B) Survey research
  • (C) Experimental research
  • (D) Case study research
Show Answer

Answer: A – Theory-building without an immediate practical test is basic research.

Research Process and Problem Identification

Q11. The research process normally moves from problem identification to:

  • (A) Writing conclusions before any data are gathered
  • (B) Reviewing literature, designing the study, collecting and analysing data, then reporting
  • (C) Publishing results, then selecting a sample
  • (D) Analysing data, then formulating the problem
Show Answer

Answer: B – The standard sequence is review, design, collection, analysis and reporting.

Q12. Which of the following problems is too broad for a single small-scale study?

  • (A) The effect of storybooks on the vocabulary of Grade 3 pupils in one school
  • (B) Teachers’ use of questioning in two science classes
  • (C) Pupils’ homework habits in one district
  • (D) The problems of education in the whole world
Show Answer

Answer: D – A worldwide problem is far too broad for one small study.

Q13. Personal classroom experience, previous studies, theory and discussion with experts are all recognised as:

  • (A) Statistical tests
  • (B) Sampling frames
  • (C) Sources of research problems
  • (D) Types of research instruments
Show Answer

Answer: C – Problems arise from experience, earlier work, theory and expert discussion.

Q14. Research questions differ from research objectives in that research questions:

  • (A) Are broader and more general than research objectives
  • (B) Are phrased as questions the study will answer, while objectives state intended outcomes
  • (C) Are not answered by the study, while objectives are answered directly
  • (D) Come only after data have been collected and analysed
Show Answer

Answer: B – Questions ask what will be found; objectives state what the study intends to achieve.

Q15. The significance of a study explains:

  • (A) Who may benefit from the findings and how
  • (B) The researcher’s salary during the study
  • (C) The number of pages in the thesis
  • (D) The names of all participants
Show Answer

Answer: A – Significance states the study’s value and its beneficiaries.

Q16. Which of the following is a limitation, rather than a delimitation, of a study?

  • (A) The researcher chose to study only Grade 10 pupils
  • (B) The researcher chose one district for convenience
  • (C) Some questionnaires were not returned, reducing the achieved sample
  • (D) The study was limited to public schools by design
Show Answer

Answer: C – Non-return of questionnaires is an uncontrolled limitation, not a chosen boundary.

Q17. Before collecting data, a researcher should normally:

  • (A) Write the conclusions
  • (B) Publish the findings
  • (C) Destroy the research proposal
  • (D) Pilot-test the instruments and finalise the design and sample
Show Answer

Answer: D – Pilot testing and finalising design and sample come before main data collection.

Q18. A study that first states “Does remedial teaching improve spelling?” and then tests it is following which step?

  • (A) Sampling
  • (B) Formulating a research question and hypothesis
  • (C) Referencing
  • (D) Data coding
Show Answer

Answer: B – Stating a question to be tested is formulating a research question and hypothesis.

Q19. Operationally defining a variable means:

  • (A) Explaining how it will be measured or observed in this study
  • (B) Giving its dictionary meaning only
  • (C) Keeping it secret from readers
  • (D) Changing it during data analysis
Show Answer

Answer: A – An operational definition states how a variable is measured in the study.

Q20. Which sequence correctly places data analysis in the research process?

  • (A) Problem, literature, design, data collection, analysis, interpretation, report
  • (B) Report, problem, design, analysis, collection
  • (C) Problem, analysis, literature, collection, report
  • (D) Collection, problem, report, analysis, literature
Show Answer

Answer: A – Analysis follows data collection and precedes interpretation and reporting.

Variables and Hypotheses

Q21. In a study of whether class size affects pupils’ participation, class size is the:

  • (A) Dependent variable
  • (B) Control variable
  • (C) Intervening variable
  • (D) Independent variable
Show Answer

Answer: D – Class size is the factor examined as a possible cause, so it is independent.

Q22. In the same study, pupils’ participation is the:

  • (A) Dependent variable
  • (B) Independent variable
  • (C) Extraneous variable
  • (D) Sampling variable
Show Answer

Answer: A – Participation is the outcome being measured, so it is dependent.

Q23. A researcher compares two schools but one school also has better library facilities, which may affect reading scores. Library facilities act here as a/an:

  • (A) Dependent variable
  • (B) Hypothesis
  • (C) Extraneous variable
  • (D) Research objective
Show Answer

Answer: C – An uncontrolled factor that may affect the outcome is extraneous.

Q24. When a researcher uses the same test, the same instructions and the same time limit for all groups, these constants are examples of:

  • (A) Dependent variables
  • (B) Control variables
  • (C) Intervening variables
  • (D) Hypotheses
Show Answer

Answer: B – Factors held constant across groups are control variables.

Q25. Interest in a subject, which is raised by a new method and in turn raises achievement, is best described as a/an:

  • (A) Dependent variable
  • (B) Independent variable
  • (C) Sampling frame
  • (D) Intervening variable
Show Answer

Answer: D – A variable acting between method and achievement is intervening.

Q26. Which of the following is a testable hypothesis?

  • (A) Good teaching is a blessing for society
  • (B) Pupils who receive weekly quizzes will score higher on the final test than pupils who do not
  • (C) Education should be valued by everyone
  • (D) Teachers work very hard in schools
Show Answer

Answer: B – It predicts a measurable relationship that evidence can support or refute.

Q27. “There is no significant relationship between teachers’ experience and pupils’ science scores” is a:

  • (A) Null hypothesis
  • (B) Directional hypothesis
  • (C) Research instrument
  • (D) Sampling technique
Show Answer

Answer: A – Stating no significant relationship is a null hypothesis.

Q28. “Female students will score significantly higher than male students in English” is a:

  • (A) Null hypothesis
  • (B) Non-directional hypothesis
  • (C) Directional alternative hypothesis
  • (D) Research objective
Show Answer

Answer: C – It predicts a specific direction, favouring one group, as an alternative to the null.

Q29. Which hypothesis does NOT state a direction?

  • (A) Group A will outperform Group B
  • (B) There is a significant difference between the attitudes of trained and untrained teachers
  • (C) More revision will lead to higher scores
  • (D) Homework will improve achievement more than no homework
Show Answer

Answer: B – It predicts a difference without saying which group will be higher.

Q30. A hypothesis is rejected or retained on the basis of:

  • (A) The researcher’s personal preference
  • (B) The length of the literature review
  • (C) The number of references cited
  • (D) Evidence from the data analysed in the study
Show Answer

Answer: D – Hypotheses are judged against the evidence in the data.

Literature Review and Sources

Q31. A literature review helps a researcher to refine the research problem by:

  • (A) Showing how earlier studies defined variables, what they found, and what remains unanswered
  • (B) Replacing data collection entirely
  • (C) Providing ready-made conclusions for the new study
  • (D) Removing the need for a sample
Show Answer

Answer: A – Earlier studies clarify definitions, findings and gaps that sharpen the problem.

Q32. A handbook that explains research methods in general, rather than reporting one study, is best described as:

  • (A) A primary source
  • (B) Raw scores collected by the researcher
  • (C) A secondary source
  • (D) An interview transcript from the present study
Show Answer

Answer: C – A handbook summarises and explains existing knowledge rather than reporting original research first-hand.

Q33. Conference proceedings and research journals are valued as literature sources mainly because they:

  • (A) Are always free of charge
  • (B) Report recent, peer-reviewed research findings in the field
  • (C) Contain no research methods at all
  • (D) Never require citation
Show Answer

Answer: B – Journals and proceedings carry recent peer-reviewed findings.

Q34. When two reviewed studies reach opposite conclusions, a good literature review should:

  • (A) Hide the study that disagrees with the researcher
  • (B) Report only the older study
  • (C) Quote both without any comment
  • (D) Compare their methods and samples and discuss possible reasons for the difference
Show Answer

Answer: D – A critical review compares methods and explains conflicting results.

Q35. The main reason for citing sources in a literature review is to:

  • (A) Make the chapter longer
  • (B) Impress the reader with difficult words
  • (C) Fill the reference list with famous names
  • (D) Give credit to original authors and allow readers to verify claims
Show Answer

Answer: D – Citations give credit to original authors and let readers verify claims.

Q36. A researcher who finds that most studies on homework were done with secondary pupils, but very few with primary pupils, has identified a:

  • (A) Sampling error
  • (B) Statistical test
  • (C) Gap in the literature
  • (D) Research instrument
Show Answer

Answer: C – An under-studied area revealed by the review is a gap in the literature.

Q37. Which source should a researcher treat most cautiously in a literature review?

  • (A) A peer-reviewed journal article
  • (B) An anonymous online post with no method, data or references
  • (C) A published doctoral thesis
  • (D) A government education report with stated methods
Show Answer

Answer: B – Anonymous posts without method, data or references are the least trustworthy.

Q38. A conceptual framework differs from a simple list of studies because it:

  • (A) Lists authors in alphabetical order only
  • (B) Counts the number of pages reviewed
  • (C) Copies abstracts without analysis
  • (D) Shows how key concepts and variables are thought to relate to each other
Show Answer

Answer: D – A framework maps relationships among concepts and variables.

Q39. When reviewing literature, “primary” and “secondary” describe:

  • (A) The age of the researcher
  • (B) The size of the sample
  • (C) Whether the source is the original report or a later summary of it
  • (D) Whether the study was funded
Show Answer

Answer: C – Primary sources are original reports; secondary sources summarise them.

Q40. A good literature review ends by:

  • (A) Summarising what is known, what is missing, and how the present study will address the gap
  • (B) Presenting the new study’s data tables
  • (C) Listing the researcher’s qualifications
  • (D) Repeating the first paragraph word for word
Show Answer

Answer: A – A review closes by linking known findings and gaps to the present study.

Sampling: Population, Probability and Non-Probability Methods

Q41. If a researcher wants to study all Grade 10 science teachers in Multan district, that group is the:

  • (A) Sample
  • (B) Population
  • (C) Sampling frame
  • (D) Control group
Show Answer

Answer: B – The whole group of interest is the population.

Q42. Studying a sample instead of the whole population is usually preferred because it:

  • (A) Always gives exactly the same result as a census
  • (B) Removes all possibility of error
  • (C) Requires no planning at all
  • (D) Saves time and cost while still allowing sound conclusions if done properly
Show Answer

Answer: D – A well-chosen sample saves time and cost while supporting sound conclusions.

Q43. Which sampling method gives every member of the population an equal chance of selection?

  • (A) Simple random sampling
  • (B) Convenience sampling
  • (C) Purposive sampling
  • (D) Quota sampling
Show Answer

Answer: A – Simple random sampling gives equal chances to all members.

Q44. A researcher wants fair representation of boys and girls and of each grade, so she divides pupils by gender and grade and samples randomly within each part. This is:

  • (A) Cluster sampling
  • (B) Snowball sampling
  • (C) Stratified random sampling
  • (D) Convenience sampling
Show Answer

Answer: C – Random sampling within divided strata is stratified sampling.

Q45. A researcher randomly picks 12 villages from a district and interviews all primary teachers in those villages. This is:

  • (A) Systematic sampling
  • (B) Cluster sampling
  • (C) Stratified sampling
  • (D) Simple random sampling of teachers
Show Answer

Answer: B – Randomly chosen intact groups studied in full are clusters.

Q46. Using a random-number table to choose participants from a complete list is an example of:

  • (A) Simple random sampling
  • (B) Purposive sampling
  • (C) Quota sampling
  • (D) Snowball sampling
Show Answer

Answer: A – Random-number selection from a list is simple random sampling.

Q47. A researcher with a list of 600 students selects a random starting point and then every 15th student. This method is:

  • (A) Cluster sampling
  • (B) Stratified sampling
  • (C) Systematic sampling
  • (D) Purposive sampling
Show Answer

Answer: C – Fixed-interval selection after a random start is systematic sampling.

Q48. Which sampling method relies on the researcher’s judgement to choose participants who are most informative for the study purpose?

  • (A) Purposive sampling
  • (B) Simple random sampling
  • (C) Systematic sampling
  • (D) Cluster sampling
Show Answer

Answer: A – Purposive sampling uses judgement to select informative participants.

Q49. A researcher collects data from teachers attending a training workshop because they are already gathered in one place. This is:

  • (A) Stratified sampling
  • (B) Convenience sampling
  • (C) Cluster sampling
  • (D) Systematic sampling
Show Answer

Answer: B – Using an easily available group is convenience sampling.

Q50. In quota sampling, what is fixed in advance?

  • (A) The exact names of all participants by lottery
  • (B) The statistical test to be used
  • (C) The research hypothesis
  • (D) The number of participants required from each defined category
Show Answer

Answer: D – Quota sampling fixes category numbers in advance, then fills them non-randomly.

Q51. Snowball sampling works by:

  • (A) Drawing every 10th name from a register
  • (B) Dividing the population into strata
  • (C) Selecting whole schools at random
  • (D) Asking early participants to recommend further participants
Show Answer

Answer: D – Snowball sampling grows through participant referrals.

Q52. A major weakness of non-probability sampling is that:

  • (A) It always requires a complete population list
  • (B) Findings may not be safely generalised to the whole population
  • (C) It is always more expensive than random sampling
  • (D) It can never be used in qualitative research
Show Answer

Answer: B – Without random selection, generalisation to the population is unsafe.

Tools, Designs, Statistics, Action Research, Ethics and Report Writing

Q53. Observation as a research tool is especially useful when the researcher wants to study:

  • (A) Historical documents only
  • (B) What people actually do, rather than what they say they do
  • (C) Statistical formulas in textbooks
  • (D) The contents of a library catalogue
Show Answer

Answer: B – Observation records actual behaviour rather than reported behaviour.

Q54. A rating scale is best used to:

  • (A) Select a random sample
  • (B) Test a hypothesis statistically
  • (C) Record a judgement about the degree of a trait, such as teaching quality or attitude strength
  • (D) Write the thesis introduction
Show Answer

Answer: C – Rating scales record judged degrees of a trait or attitude.

Q55. Data collected directly by the researcher for the present study, such as fresh questionnaire responses, are called:

  • (A) Secondary data
  • (B) Historical data
  • (C) Primary data
  • (D) Published data
Show Answer

Answer: C – Data gathered first-hand for the present study are primary data.

Q56. A study that examines an event after it has already happened, without manipulating variables, is best described as:

  • (A) Experimental research
  • (B) Survey research
  • (C) Action research
  • (D) Ex post facto research
Show Answer

Answer: D – Ex post facto research studies effects after the fact without manipulation.

Q57. A researcher follows one school’s improvement programme over two years, collecting interviews, documents and observations. This intensive study is best called a:

  • (A) Survey design
  • (B) Experimental design
  • (C) Case study design
  • (D) Correlational design
Show Answer

Answer: C – An intensive, multi-source study of a single case over time is a case study.

Q58. Which statement about the mean and the median is correct?

  • (A) The mean uses all scores, while the median is the middle score and is less affected by extreme values
  • (B) The median uses all scores, while the mean is the middle score
  • (C) Both are used only with categories that have no order
  • (D) Neither can be found from numerical scores
Show Answer

Answer: A – The mean averages every score, while the median simply marks the middle, so extremes move the mean more.

Q59. In a normal distribution, the percentage of scores above the mean is:

  • (A) 34 percent
  • (B) 68 percent
  • (C) 50 percent
  • (D) 95 percent
Show Answer

Answer: C – The normal curve is symmetric around the mean, so half the scores fall above it and half below it.

Q60. Which statement about a research report’s references is correct?

  • (A) Every source cited in the text should appear in the reference list, in full and accurate detail
  • (B) Only famous authors need to be listed
  • (C) References may be invented if a source is hard to find
  • (D) The list should include books the researcher never used
Show Answer

Answer: A – Accurate referencing lets readers check sources and gives credit, so cited and listed sources must match.

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