This test covers research techniques in education, including identifying a research problem and its sources, variables, hypotheses, literature review, sampling, research tools and designs, basic statistics, action research, research ethics and report writing.

Research Problems: Meaning, Sources and Focus

Q1. What is meant by a research problem in education?

  • (A) A list of books used in a study
  • (B) The final chapter of a thesis
  • (C) A specific question or issue that a study sets out to investigate
  • (D) A statistical formula used for analysis
Show Answer

Answer: C – A research problem states the specific issue the study will investigate.

Q2. Which feature marks a well-formulated research problem?

  • (A) It already has a well-known answer
  • (B) It is specific, researchable and worth investigating
  • (C) It covers every topic in a subject
  • (D) It can be answered without collecting any data
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Answer: B – A good problem is narrow enough to study, can be investigated and matters in practice.

Q3. A teacher notices that her Grade 7 pupils repeatedly fail questions on fractions. This observation is best described as which source of a research problem?

  • (A) A census report
  • (B) A sampling table
  • (C) A referencing style
  • (D) Classroom experience and observation of practice
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Answer: D – Problems often arise when teachers observe a recurring difficulty in their own classrooms.

Q4. Earlier studies on homework in urban schools exist, but none has examined homework in rural primary schools. This situation points to which source of a problem?

  • (A) A gap in the existing literature
  • (B) A completed data analysis
  • (C) A questionnaire pilot test
  • (D) A university admission rule
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Answer: A – A gap appears when previous research leaves an important setting or group unexamined.

Q5. A researcher wants to check whether a well-known learning theory holds true for adult learners in evening classes. The problem most likely comes from which source?

  • (A) The researcher’s own classroom experience
  • (B) An existing theory that needs to be tested in a new setting
  • (C) A gap noticed in earlier studies on the topic
  • (D) A suggestion made by an experienced supervisor
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Answer: B – Theories generate problems when researchers test whether they apply in new contexts.

Q6. A new researcher discusses possible topics with her supervisor, who suggests studying teacher feedback because it is both neglected and practical. This is an example of a problem arising from which source?

  • (A) A random number table
  • (B) Suggestions from experienced researchers or supervisors
  • (C) A library opening schedule
  • (D) A mark sheet
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Answer: B – Supervisors and experienced researchers often direct beginners toward fruitful, neglected topics.

Q7. Rising dropout rates among girls in a district are reported in local education data. A study of the causes of this dropout would be a problem arising from which source?

  • (A) A laboratory experiment
  • (B) A citation format
  • (C) A school holiday list
  • (D) A current educational or social concern
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Answer: D – Pressing social and educational concerns frequently give rise to research problems.

Q8. A researcher narrows the broad topic of science teaching to the effect of weekly practical work on Grade 9 biology scores in one district. This process is called what?

  • (A) Sampling the population
  • (B) Coding the data
  • (C) Referencing the sources
  • (D) Delimiting the research problem
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Answer: D – Delimiting narrows a broad topic to a manageable, specific problem.

Q9. What does a good statement of the problem do?

  • (A) It lists the names of all participants
  • (B) It reports the final results in advance
  • (C) It clearly states the issue, its background and why it needs study
  • (D) It copies the abstract of an earlier study
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Answer: C – The problem statement explains what is wrong or unknown and why it deserves investigation.

Q10. How does a research topic differ from a research problem?

  • (A) A topic is always a question and a problem is always a title
  • (B) A topic is a broad area, while a problem is a specific issue within that area
  • (C) A topic comes after data collection and a problem before it
  • (D) A topic needs no study and a problem needs no reading
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Answer: B – A topic names the field, whereas a problem pinpoints the exact issue to be studied.

Variables and Types of Research

Q11. In a study, the variable that the researcher changes or introduces is called what?

  • (A) The independent variable
  • (B) The dependent variable
  • (C) The control variable
  • (D) The intervening variable
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Answer: A – The independent variable is manipulated or selected by the researcher to observe its effect.

Q12. The variable that is measured to see whether it changes after an intervention is called what?

  • (A) The independent variable
  • (B) The extraneous variable
  • (C) The dependent variable
  • (D) The constant variable
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Answer: C – The dependent variable is the outcome that is observed and measured.

Q13. A researcher compares two teaching methods to see their effect on pupils’ test scores. In this study, the teaching method is which variable?

  • (A) The dependent variable
  • (B) The intervening variable
  • (C) The independent variable
  • (D) The sampling variable
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Answer: C – The teaching method is what the researcher varies, so it is the independent variable.

Q14. In a comparison of two teaching methods, the method itself (not the test scores) is which variable?

  • (A) The dependent variable
  • (B) The control variable
  • (C) The moderator variable
  • (D) The independent variable
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Answer: D – The teaching method is the factor varied by the study, while scores are the outcome measured.

Q15. A study of a new reading programme finds that pupils who already read well at home score higher, regardless of the programme. Prior reading ability here is best described as what?

  • (A) An independent variable
  • (B) A dependent variable
  • (C) An extraneous variable
  • (D) A research hypothesis
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Answer: C – An extraneous variable is an outside factor that may affect the outcome but is not the focus of the study.

Q16. A researcher finds that praise improves performance mainly because it raises pupils’ confidence. Confidence, which links praise to performance but is not directly observed, is best described as what?

  • (A) A dependent variable
  • (B) A sampling frame
  • (C) A questionnaire item
  • (D) An intervening variable
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Answer: D – An intervening variable comes between the independent and dependent variables and helps explain the link.

Q17. To compare two groups fairly, a researcher gives both groups the same textbook, the same test and the same lesson time. The textbook and lesson time are being used as what?

  • (A) Control variables
  • (B) Dependent variables
  • (C) Intervening variables
  • (D) Hypotheses
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Answer: A – Control variables are kept constant so that differences in outcome can be attributed to the independent variable.

Q18. A variable such as height, weight or test score, which can take numerical values on a scale, is classified as what?

  • (A) A categorical variable
  • (B) A quantitative variable
  • (C) A constant variable
  • (D) A nominal hypothesis
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Answer: B – Quantitative variables are expressed in numbers and can be measured on a scale.

Q19. A variable such as school type or mother tongue, which places cases into categories rather than numbers, is classified as what?

  • (A) A continuous variable
  • (B) A dependent constant
  • (C) A statistical test
  • (D) A qualitative or categorical variable
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Answer: D – Categorical variables classify cases into groups rather than measuring them numerically.

Q20. Research carried out mainly to expand knowledge, without an immediate practical application in mind, is known as what?

  • (A) Basic research
  • (B) Action research
  • (C) Applied research
  • (D) Historical research
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Answer: A – Basic research seeks to advance understanding rather than solve an immediate practical problem.

Hypotheses and Literature Review

Q21. What is a research hypothesis?

  • (A) A summary of all previous studies
  • (B) A tentative, testable statement predicting a relationship between variables
  • (C) A list of questions for an interview
  • (D) The final conclusion of a study
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Answer: B – A hypothesis is a prediction that a study is designed to test.

Q22. A researcher wants to test whether a new reading scheme affects scores, and first states that it makes no difference. That preliminary statement is a:

  • (A) Null hypothesis
  • (B) Research objective
  • (C) Sampling frame
  • (D) Conclusion
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Answer: A – A null hypothesis states that there is no difference or no relationship, and it is the statement a study sets out to test.

Q23. A claim that a new method does improve scores, stated before data collection, is best called a:

  • (A) Null hypothesis
  • (B) Limitation of the study
  • (C) Delimitation of the study
  • (D) Research (alternative) hypothesis
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Answer: D – A research hypothesis asserts the difference or relationship the study expects to find.

Q24. A hypothesis that predicts the direction of a difference, for example that one group will score higher than another, is called what?

  • (A) A non-directional hypothesis
  • (B) A directional hypothesis
  • (C) A null hypothesis
  • (D) A descriptive hypothesis
Show Answer

Answer: B – A directional hypothesis specifies which group or direction is expected to be higher.

Q25. A hypothesis that is tested statistically is usually first stated in which form?

  • (A) Directional form, predicting which group will do better
  • (B) As a research question with no predicted answer
  • (C) Null form, stating no difference or no relationship
  • (D) As a conclusion drawn from the results
Show Answer

Answer: C – Statistical testing normally examines the null statement of no difference or no relationship.

Q26. A researcher writes: There is no significant difference in reading scores between pupils taught with Method A and Method B. This statement is which type of hypothesis?

  • (A) A directional hypothesis
  • (B) A null hypothesis
  • (C) An alternative hypothesis
  • (D) A research question
Show Answer

Answer: B – Stating no significant difference is the defining form of a null hypothesis.

Q27. A researcher writes: Pupils taught through group discussion will score higher in science than pupils taught through lectures. This statement is which type of hypothesis?

  • (A) A directional hypothesis
  • (B) A null hypothesis
  • (C) A non-directional hypothesis
  • (D) A sampling plan
Show Answer

Answer: A – The prediction names the group expected to score higher, so it is directional.

Q28. Which quality is essential for a good hypothesis?

  • (A) It is so broad that it cannot be disproved
  • (B) It uses vague terms with no clear meaning
  • (C) It can be tested with evidence collected in the study
  • (D) It states the conclusion before data are collected
Show Answer

Answer: C – A hypothesis must be clear and testable so that evidence can support or reject it.

Q29. What is the main purpose of a literature review in a research study?

  • (A) To collect data from participants
  • (B) To summarise and evaluate previous studies and identify a gap for the new study
  • (C) To analyse test scores statistically
  • (D) To publish the final results
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Answer: B – A literature review examines what is already known so the new study can build on it and fill a gap.

Q30. Which of the following is a primary source for a literature review?

  • (A) A textbook summarising many studies
  • (B) An encyclopaedia entry on education
  • (C) A newspaper editorial about schools
  • (D) An original journal article reporting the author’s own study
Show Answer

Answer: D – Primary sources report original research first-hand, whereas textbooks and encyclopaedias summarise it.

Sampling: Population, Sample and Techniques

Q31. What is the difference between a population and a sample in research?

  • (A) The population is always small and the sample is always large
  • (B) The population is the whole group of interest, while a sample is a smaller part selected from it
  • (C) The population is the researcher and the sample is the supervisor
  • (D) The population and the sample are the same group in every study
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Answer: B – A sample is drawn from a population so findings can be studied without covering everyone.

Q32. In simple random sampling, the selection of one member must:

  • (A) Depend on the researcher’s personal judgement
  • (B) Not affect the chance of any other member being selected
  • (C) Follow a fixed interval through the list
  • (D) Use whole classes as sampling units
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Answer: B – Random selection is independent: choosing one member must not change another member’s chance of selection.

Q33. The first step in stratified sampling is to:

  • (A) Select volunteers from whoever is available
  • (B) Draw a random sample from the whole population at once
  • (C) Divide the population into strata based on a characteristic relevant to the study
  • (D) Choose the sample size for the largest stratum only
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Answer: C – Stratification begins by dividing the population into homogeneous subgroups; random sampling within each stratum comes afterwards.

Q34. A researcher randomly selects five whole schools and includes every pupil in those schools in the study. This technique is called what?

  • (A) Systematic sampling
  • (B) Cluster sampling
  • (C) Purposive sampling
  • (D) Quota sampling
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Answer: B – Cluster sampling selects intact groups, or clusters, rather than individual members.

Q35. From a list of 500 teachers, a researcher selects every tenth teacher after a random start. This technique is called what?

  • (A) Stratified sampling
  • (B) Snowball sampling
  • (C) Convenience sampling
  • (D) Systematic sampling
Show Answer

Answer: D – Systematic sampling picks every kth member from an ordered list after a random start.

Q36. A researcher deliberately selects only head teachers with at least ten years of experience because their views are most relevant. This technique is called what?

  • (A) Purposive sampling
  • (B) Simple random sampling
  • (C) Cluster sampling
  • (D) Systematic sampling
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Answer: A – Purposive sampling selects participants because they have the characteristics the study needs.

Q37. A researcher collects data from the students who happen to be present in the college canteen on one afternoon. This technique is called what?

  • (A) Stratified sampling
  • (B) Snowball sampling
  • (C) Convenience sampling
  • (D) Systematic sampling
Show Answer

Answer: C – Convenience sampling uses participants who are easily available to the researcher.

Q38. A researcher needs 30 male and 30 female teachers but selects them by availability rather than by chance. This technique is called what?

  • (A) Simple random sampling
  • (B) Cluster sampling
  • (C) Quota sampling
  • (D) Snowball sampling
Show Answer

Answer: C – Quota sampling fills fixed quotas from subgroups, but selection within each quota is not random.

Q39. A researcher studying teachers in unregistered private schools asks each participant to suggest other similar teachers. This technique is called what?

  • (A) Stratified sampling
  • (B) Systematic sampling
  • (C) Snowball sampling
  • (D) Cluster sampling
Show Answer

Answer: C – Snowball sampling grows through referrals and suits groups that are hard to reach directly.

Q40. Why does a researcher prefer a representative sample?

  • (A) So that data collection takes no time at all
  • (B) So that no analysis is needed
  • (C) So that every member of the population is included
  • (D) So that findings can reasonably be generalised to the wider population
Show Answer

Answer: D – A representative sample resembles the population, which supports generalisation of the results.

Research Tools, Data and Designs

Q41. Which advantage best describes a questionnaire as a research tool?

  • (A) It can gather data from a large number of people at low cost
  • (B) It always guarantees honest answers
  • (C) It needs no planning or piloting
  • (D) It works only with very small groups
Show Answer

Answer: A – Questionnaires are economical for large samples, though they still need careful design and piloting.

Q42. An interview is most useful when a researcher wants what?

  • (A) Answers with no contact at all
  • (B) Data from thousands of people in one day
  • (C) Scores that need no interpretation
  • (D) In-depth information and the chance to ask follow-up questions
Show Answer

Answer: D – Interviews allow probing and clarification, which yields rich, detailed responses.

Q43. Observation as a research tool is best described as what?

  • (A) Asking participants to fill in a form
  • (B) Testing pupils with a written paper
  • (C) Reading old school records
  • (D) Watching and recording behaviour in its natural setting
Show Answer

Answer: D – Observation records what people actually do, rather than what they say they do.

Q44. A researcher uses a scale with the points Strongly Agree, Agree, Neutral, Disagree and Strongly Disagree to measure teachers’ attitudes. What does a respondent’s mark on such a scale show?

  • (A) The degree or strength of an opinion or attitude
  • (B) A category with no order, like the subject a teacher teaches
  • (C) A count of how often the respondent performed an action
  • (D) A rank position, like first or second in a class
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Answer: A – Rating scales measure the intensity of attitudes, opinions or judgements.

Q45. Board examination records used by a researcher for a new study are an example of which type of data?

  • (A) Primary data
  • (B) Secondary data
  • (C) Experimental data
  • (D) Interview data
Show Answer

Answer: B – Secondary data were collected earlier by others and are reused for a new purpose.

Q46. In an experimental design, what combination allows the strongest claim about cause and effect?

  • (A) A single group with no comparison
  • (B) Data collected after the event only
  • (C) Manipulation of a variable, a control group and random assignment
  • (D) Opinions gathered from experts
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Answer: C – Manipulation, control and random assignment together help rule out alternative explanations.

Q47. A researcher tests a new method using two intact classes because pupils cannot be reassigned to new groups. This design is best described as what?

  • (A) Quasi-experimental
  • (B) True experimental
  • (C) Historical
  • (D) Case study
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Answer: A – Quasi-experimental designs manipulate a variable but lack random assignment to groups.

Q48. A survey design is mainly used to do what?

  • (A) Prove a cause beyond doubt
  • (B) Reconstruct events from the past
  • (C) Describe the characteristics, opinions or practices of a population from a sample
  • (D) Study one pupil in great depth
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Answer: C – Surveys describe a population by collecting standardised information from a sample.

Q49. A study that examines whether reading habits and examination scores move together, without changing either variable, uses which design?

  • (A) Experimental design
  • (B) Historical design
  • (C) Action research
  • (D) Correlational design
Show Answer

Answer: D – Correlational research measures the association between variables without manipulating them.

Q50. An in-depth study of a single school over a whole term, using interviews, documents and observation together, is best described as what?

  • (A) A survey
  • (B) An experiment
  • (C) A case study
  • (D) A historical study
Show Answer

Answer: C – A case study examines one case in depth using several sources of evidence.

Research Designs, Statistics, Ethics and Report Writing

Q51. A researcher studies pupils whose parents divorced several years ago to see whether family background is linked to their school performance. Since the event has already happened and cannot be manipulated, this is which design?

  • (A) Ex post facto research
  • (B) True experimental research
  • (C) Action research
  • (D) Survey research
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Answer: A – Ex post facto research starts after the event and looks back for possible causes.

Q52. A researcher uses old school registers, letters and inspection reports to reconstruct how teacher training developed in a district. This is which design?

  • (A) Experimental research
  • (B) Correlational research
  • (C) Case study research
  • (D) Historical research
Show Answer

Answer: D – Historical research relies on past documents to describe and interpret earlier events.

Q53. Which statement correctly describes measures of central tendency?

  • (A) The mean is the average, the median is the middle value and the mode is the most frequent value
  • (B) The mean is the middle value and the median is the average
  • (C) The mode is the spread of scores around the mean
  • (D) The median is the highest score in a set
Show Answer

Answer: A – Mean, median and mode each summarise the centre of a distribution in a different way.

Q54. Which statement correctly links standard deviation and correlation?

  • (A) Standard deviation shows spread around the mean, while correlation shows the strength and direction of a relationship
  • (B) Standard deviation shows direction and correlation shows the average
  • (C) Both standard deviation and correlation measure only the average
  • (D) Correlation measures spread and standard deviation measures cause
Show Answer

Answer: A – Standard deviation describes variability, whereas correlation describes how two variables vary together.

Q55. A researcher wants to know whether the average scores of two independent groups differ more than chance would explain. Which test is appropriate?

  • (A) A chi-square test
  • (B) A t-test
  • (C) A rating scale
  • (D) A case study
Show Answer

Answer: B – A t-test compares the means of two groups to judge whether their difference is significant.

Q56. A researcher wants to know whether choice of subject stream is associated with gender, where both variables are categories. Which test is appropriate?

  • (A) A t-test
  • (B) A chi-square test
  • (C) A mean
  • (D) A median
Show Answer

Answer: B – Chi-square tests association between categorical variables arranged in a table.

Q57. In action research, a teacher plans a change, tries it in class, observes the result and reflects on what to do next. This repeating sequence is known as what?

  • (A) The sampling frame
  • (B) The null hypothesis
  • (C) The referencing system
  • (D) The action research cycle
Show Answer

Answer: D – Action research follows a cycle of planning, acting, observing and reflecting to improve practice.

Q58. Informed consent requires that participants:

  • (A) Understand the study’s purpose and risks and agree freely to take part
  • (B) Are paid for every answer they give
  • (C) Know the researcher’s personal opinions
  • (D) Agree to be named in the published report
Show Answer

Answer: A – Consent is informed only when participants know what the study involves and take part voluntarily.

Q59. A researcher publishes quotations that reveal pupils’ names and schools without permission. This practice mainly violates which ethical principle?

  • (A) Confidentiality
  • (B) Random sampling
  • (C) Validity
  • (D) Referencing
Show Answer

Answer: A – Confidentiality requires protecting participants’ identities and private information.

Q60. Which order correctly shows the usual structure of a thesis or dissertation?

  • (A) Results, introduction, methodology, literature review, conclusion
  • (B) Methodology, results, introduction, conclusion, literature review
  • (C) Introduction, literature review, methodology, results, discussion and conclusion
  • (D) Literature review, results, discussion, introduction, methodology
Show Answer

Answer: C – A thesis normally moves from the problem and past research, through method and findings, to interpretation and conclusions.

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