Q1. Research ethics require a researcher to:

• (A) Protect participants, obtain consent and report findings honestly
• (B) Publish participants’ names without permission
• (C) Hide the method from readers
• (D) Report only the results that favour the hypothesis

Q2. Which is an example of applied research?

• (A) Developing a general theory of learning with no immediate application
• (B) Tracing the history of a university over a century
• (C) Testing which remedial method best helps struggling readers in a district
• (D) Describing one student’s life story in full detail

Q3. A university scholar studies how children form scientific concepts, mainly to build theory rather than to solve a school’s immediate problem. This is:

• (A) Action research
• (B) Survey research
• (C) Historical research
• (D) Basic research

Q4. Action research is most often conducted by:

• (A) External examiners marking final papers
• (B) Teachers and other practitioners studying their own classrooms
• (C) Publishers preparing new textbooks
• (D) Inspectors carrying out routine school visits

Q5. An abstract of a research report should mainly:

• (A) Present detailed data tables for every variable measured
• (B) Briefly summarise the purpose, method, main findings and conclusions
• (C) Discuss every study cited in the literature review in full
• (D) Give recommendations only, without describing the method or findings

Q6. A research problem that is too broad should be:

• (A) Narrowed to a specific, manageable question that can actually be studied
• (B) Left broad so that every possible finding can be claimed
• (C) Replaced by a list of textbooks on the subject
• (D) Studied without any objectives or plan

Q7. The delimitations of a study are mainly concerned with:

• (A) The full history of the research topic
• (B) Results already found in other countries
• (C) The researcher’s personal biography
• (D) The scope, population and setting the researcher deliberately limits the study to

Q8. To protect participants’ confidentiality, a researcher should:

• (A) Publish interview transcripts with real names attached
• (B) Leave identifiable questionnaires in a shared staff room
• (C) Store identifiable data securely and report findings without linking them to named individuals
• (D) Share participants’ contact details with other researchers without permission

Q9. Informed consent should normally be obtained:

• (A) After the data have already been published
• (B) Only from participants who ask about the study
• (C) Without explaining any risks, to avoid worrying participants
• (D) Before data collection, after explaining the purpose, procedures and risks, with participation voluntary

Q10. A researcher compares two methods of teaching grammar and measures students’ grammar scores. The teaching method is the:

• (A) Dependent variable
• (B) Independent variable
• (C) Intervening variable
• (D) Sampling unit

Q11. In the grammar study above, the teaching method given to each group is the:

• (A) Independent variable, because it is the factor varied
• (B) Control variable, because it is held constant
• (C) Outcome measured at the end
• (D) Population from which the sample was drawn

Q12. A student’s interest in a subject comes between the teaching method used and the pupils’ final achievement, without being directly measured. This is an example of a(n):

• (A) Dependent variable
• (B) Independent variable
• (C) Intervening variable
• (D) Research objective

Q13. A thesis or dissertation normally follows which broad order?

• (A) Results, then introduction, then literature review
• (B) References, then methodology, then findings
• (C) Introduction, literature review, methodology, results and discussion, conclusions and references
• (D) Conclusions, then data collection, then problem statement

Q14. A statement that asserts no relationship between two variables is called a:

• (A) Directional hypothesis
• (B) Research question
• (C) Sampling plan
• (D) Null hypothesis

Q15. The hypothesis “There is a significant difference in achievement between students taught by activity method and those taught by lecture method” is:

• (A) A null hypothesis
• (B) A non-directional alternative hypothesis
• (C) A statement of the sampling plan
• (D) A conclusion of the study

Q16. A directional hypothesis is one that:

• (A) Predicts the direction of a difference or relationship, such as higher or lower
• (B) States that no difference exists between groups
• (C) Describes the sample without making any prediction
• (D) Is written only after the data have been analysed

Q17. A researcher should formulate hypotheses:

• (A) Before collecting data, so that the study has a clear focus to test
• (B) After writing the conclusions, to match whatever was found
• (C) Only when the results turn out to be significant
• (D) Without reference to the research problem

Q18. A conceptual definition differs from an operational definition mainly because a conceptual definition:

• (A) States how a variable will be measured in the study
• (B) Explains what a variable means in theory, without saying how it will be measured
• (C) Is kept secret from the participants
• (D) Changes its meaning during data analysis

Q19. In a literature review, studies are usually organised mainly by:

• (A) The age of the authors who wrote them
• (B) The length of each study
• (C) Themes, questions or findings relevant to the present study
• (D) The price of the journals they appeared in

Q20. When a literature review cites only secondary sources, the main risk is that:

• (A) The review will be too short to publish
• (B) The review will contain no references at all
• (C) The researcher will have to collect new data
• (D) Second-hand errors or outdated claims may be repeated without checking the originals

Q21. The sample of a study is:

• (A) The entire population the researcher wishes to study
• (B) The smaller group actually selected from the population for study
• (C) The statistical test used to analyse the data
• (D) The list of references at the end of the report

Q22. A researcher uses a lottery to draw names from a complete class list. This method is best described as:

• (A) Purposive sampling of typical cases
• (B) Quota sampling with fixed numbers
• (C) Convenience sampling of whoever is available
• (D) Simple random sampling

Q23. A researcher divides teachers into primary, middle and secondary strata and samples randomly within each. This is:

• (A) Stratified random sampling
• (B) Convenience sampling
• (C) Snowball sampling
• (D) Quota sampling

Q24. Cluster sampling involves:

• (A) Selecting only expert informants by judgement
• (B) Picking every tenth name from a list
• (C) Randomly selecting intact groups, such as whole classes, and studying all members within them
• (D) Filling fixed numbers from each subgroup without random selection

Q25. Systematic sampling is carried out by:

• (A) Selecting every kth individual from a list after a random start
• (B) Choosing only participants who are easiest to reach
• (C) Asking participants to recommend further participants
• (D) Hand-picking cases that fit the researcher’s purpose

Q26. A researcher studying school leadership interviews only principals who have introduced a successful reform. This is:

• (A) Simple random sampling
• (B) Systematic sampling
• (C) Cluster sampling
• (D) Purposive sampling

Q27. Convenience sampling is characterised by selecting participants who are:

• (A) Randomly drawn from a complete population list
• (B) Readily available and easy for the researcher to reach
• (C) Recommended by other participants
• (D) Chosen to fill a set quota in each subgroup

Q28. Snowball sampling begins with a few participants who then:

• (A) Are replaced by a random sample from the population
• (B) Select the research tools for the study
• (C) Refer the researcher to other people who meet the study criteria
• (D) Form fixed quotas for each subgroup

Q29. A researcher needs 20 male and 20 female teachers but picks whoever is available until each number is reached. This is:

• (A) Simple random sampling
• (B) Cluster sampling
• (C) Systematic sampling
• (D) Quota sampling

Q30. Action research is most clearly different from traditional research because in action research:

• (A) The practitioner studies and improves his or her own practice
• (B) No data of any kind are collected
• (C) Results must apply to every school in the country
• (D) The researcher never reflects on the findings

Q31. An achievement test as a research tool is mainly used to measure:

• (A) A teacher’s attitude toward a new syllabus
• (B) A student’s personality traits
• (C) What a student has learned in a subject area
• (D) A parent’s opinion of school management

Q32. The main advantage of asking every respondent the same questions in the same order is that it:

• (A) Lets the conversation wander wherever the respondent wishes
• (B) Makes answers comparable across respondents
• (C) Removes the need to record any answers
• (D) Works only when questions are sent by post

Q33. Participant observation differs from non-participant observation because the observer:

• (A) Records behaviour from outside the group
• (B) Uses a questionnaire instead of watching
• (C) Interviews participants after the lesson only
• (D) Joins the group and takes part in its activities while observing

Q34. A questionnaire with closed-ended questions is advantageous because it:

• (A) Produces answers that are easy to code, compare and analyse
• (B) Allows unlimited free expression in every answer
• (C) Requires no planning of response options
• (D) Guarantees that every respondent understands every question

Q35. Quantitative data are best described as data that are:

• (A) Expressed only in words describing feelings
• (B) Numerical and capable of being counted, measured or analysed statistically
• (C) Collected only from historical documents
• (D) Based solely on a single case study

Q36. Secondary data differ from primary data in that secondary data:

• (A) Are collected by the researcher for the present study
• (B) Are gathered through a new experiment
• (C) Already exist, having been collected earlier by someone else
• (D) Can only be obtained through interviews

Q37. A true experimental design must include:

• (A) Manipulation of a treatment, a comparison group and random assignment
• (B) Study of past documents only
• (C) A survey of opinions at a single point in time
• (D) In-depth study of one case without comparison

Q38. A researcher uses two existing classes as experimental and control groups because random assignment is not possible. This is a:

• (A) True experiment
• (B) Survey design
• (C) Case study
• (D) Quasi-experimental design

Q39. A case study of one struggling school would be most appropriate to:

• (A) Estimate the average score of all schools in a province
• (B) Test a treatment with randomly assigned groups
• (C) Understand that school’s problems, practices and context in depth
• (D) Survey opinions across thousands of teachers

Q40. Ex post facto research starts with:

• (A) A new treatment introduced by the researcher
• (B) An outcome that has already occurred, then looks back for possible causes
• (C) Random assignment to experimental groups
• (D) A questionnaire about future intentions only

Q41. Correlational research can show that two variables are related, but it cannot by itself show that:

• (A) The variables vary together
• (B) The relationship is strong or weak
• (C) The relationship is positive or negative
• (D) One variable causes the other

Q42. Historical research would most likely use which source?

• (A) Old school registers, minutes and policy documents
• (B) A new achievement test administered today
• (C) A questionnaire given to current students
• (D) An experiment conducted in a present-day classroom

Q43. The mean is most affected by:

• (A) The most frequent score
• (B) The middle score in an ordered list
• (C) Extreme scores, because every score contributes to the total
• (D) The number of categories in a table

Q44. For the scores 3, 6, 8, 10, 15 and 20, the median is:

• (A) 8
• (B) 9
• (C) 10
• (D) 12

Q45. A distribution with scores 2, 4, 4, 7, 9 and 12 has a mode of:

• (A) 2
• (B) 7
• (C) 4
• (D) 6

Q46. If two classes have the same mean score but one has a much larger standard deviation, that class has:

• (A) Fewer students than the other class
• (B) Scores more widely spread around the mean
• (C) A higher most frequent score
• (D) A lower median score in every case

Q47. A correlation coefficient of 0.00 between two variables indicates:

• (A) No linear relationship between the variables
• (B) A perfect positive relationship
• (C) A perfect negative relationship
• (D) That one variable causes the other

Q48. Which task belongs to inferential statistics rather than descriptive statistics?

• (A) Drawing a bar chart of the sample scores
• (B) Calculating the percentage of students who passed
• (C) Reporting the mean score of the class studied
• (D) Testing whether a sample difference is likely to hold in the population

Q49. A researcher wants to compare the mean scores of a treatment group and a control group. The most suitable basic test is a:

• (A) Chi-square test on category frequencies
• (B) t-test on the two group means
• (C) Test of the mode alone
• (D) Test of the sample size alone

Q50. A chi-square test would be suitable to examine whether:

• (A) Two group means differ significantly
• (B) Two variables are correlated in a linear way
• (C) Scores are spread widely around the mean
• (D) Observed frequencies in categories differ from expected frequencies

Q51. A correlation of +0.91 is best described as:

• (A) Weak and negative
• (B) Moderate and negative
• (C) Very strong and positive
• (D) Unrelated to either variable

Q52. Descriptive statistics include:

• (A) Means, medians, percentages and graphs that summarise collected data
• (B) Hypothesis tests about an unstudied population
• (C) Estimates of sampling error for generalisation
• (D) Decisions about statistical significance at a set level

Q53. If a result is significant at the 0.01 level, it means the probability that the result arose by chance is:

• (A) 1 percent or less
• (B) 10 percent or more
• (C) Exactly 50 percent
• (D) Zero in every possible replication

Q54. In a common author-date referencing style, an in-text citation normally gives the:

• (A) Full address of the publisher
• (B) Title of the journal only
• (C) Author’s surname and the year of publication
• (D) Page numbers of the entire book

Q55. The first step in an action research cycle is normally to:

• (A) Observe a colleague’s lesson without any focus or question in mind
• (B) Implement a ready-made solution before examining the problem
• (C) Review all available literature before identifying any practical problem
• (D) Identify a practical problem in one’s own practice and plan an action

Q56. During the observation stage of action research, the practitioner should:

• (A) Ignore any evidence that contradicts the original plan
• (B) Systematically record what happens when the planned action is carried out
• (C) Stop the cycle and write conclusions immediately
• (D) Change the problem to fit the results obtained

Q57. A researcher reports a result that contradicts the hypothesis, rather than hiding it. This practice best reflects:

• (A) Sampling error
• (B) Piloting a questionnaire
• (C) Honesty and objectivity in reporting
• (D) Generalisation to a population

Q58. Anonymity in research means that:

• (A) Even the researcher cannot link responses to particular participants
• (B) Participants’ names are published with their answers
• (C) Raw data are shared openly with the public
• (D) Participants are told the results before data collection

Q59. Which action counts as plagiarism?

• (A) Summarising a source in one’s own words with a citation
• (B) Copying paragraphs from a thesis into a report without acknowledgement
• (C) Quoting a short passage with quotation marks and a citation
• (D) Listing a source in the references after citing it in the text

Q60. In a reference list, entries are normally:

• (A) Listed in the order the researcher happened to read them
• (B) Grouped only by the year of publication
• (C) Mixed with the researcher’s personal notes
• (D) Arranged alphabetically by the author’s surname, including only sources cited in the text