Q1. A school reports Ali is at the 90th percentile. The best interpretation is that Ali scored

• (A) 90 percent of the test items correctly
• (B) 90 marks in total
• (C) Better than 90 students in every school
• (D) Higher than about 90 percent of the norm group

Q2. A teacher says, ‘Sana has mastered all five objectives in Unit 2.’ This statement is

• (A) Norm-referenced
• (B) Aptitude-based
• (C) Interest-based
• (D) Criterion-referenced

Q3. Which report is norm-referenced?

• (A) ‘Bilal can add three-digit numbers correctly.’
• (B) ‘Bilal ranks third in a class of forty.’
• (C) ‘Bilal has met the passing standard for spelling.’
• (D) ‘Bilal completed all ten grammar objectives.’

Q4. A pass mark of 40 percent fixed before the test is an example of

• (A) A norm group
• (B) A percentile
• (C) A criterion
• (D) A quartile

Q5. Norm-referenced tests need a norm group that is

• (A) Made up only of top students
• (B) Representative of the students being compared
• (C) Selected after results are known
• (D) Limited to one classroom in all cases

Q6. If a test is very easy for a whole class, a norm-referenced comparison will

• (A) Prove that all students mastered every objective
• (B) Become a criterion-referenced test automatically
• (C) Lose all scoring value
• (D) Still rank students, but differences may be small and unstable

Q7. A criterion-referenced test is fairer for a mastery decision because it

• (A) Shows learning against the same standard for everyone
• (B) Ranks students even when all have learned well
• (C) Changes the standard after seeing results
• (D) Rewards only the fastest student

Q8. A selection test for ten seats from 500 applicants is best served by

• (A) Norm-referenced comparison
• (B) A diagnostic interview only
• (C) A daily homework check
• (D) An ungraded class activity

Q9. Which pair contrasts the two approaches correctly?

• (A) Norm: mastery; Criterion: rank
• (B) Norm: diagnosis; Criterion: prediction only
• (C) Norm: rank; Criterion: mastery of objectives
• (D) Norm: feedback; Criterion: no feedback

Q10. A student with grades A, B, C and B in four equal-credit courses has a GPA of

• (A) 3.0
• (B) 3.25
• (C) 2.75
• (D) 3.5

Q11. If a 3-credit course gives grade B (3 points) and a 1-credit course gives A (4 points), the GPA is

• (A) 3.5
• (B) 3.0
• (C) 3.25
• (D) 4.0

Q12. A CGPA of 3.6 after six semesters drops after a weak seventh semester because CGPA

• (A) Forgets earlier semesters
• (B) Counts only failed courses
• (C) Includes the new semester in the cumulative average
• (D) Uses only the best semester

Q13. Letter grades help communication mainly because they

• (A) Show every answer a student gave
• (B) Summarise performance in a familiar, compact form
• (C) Replace all written feedback
• (D) Measure intelligence directly

Q14. Absolute grading can be seen as fair when

• (A) Grades depend on who else is in the class
• (B) The standard is clear and known to students in advance
• (C) The teacher changes cut-offs after marking
• (D) Only a fixed number of A grades are allowed

Q15. Relative grading can feel unfair to students because

• (A) It always uses the same cut-off for every class
• (B) It ignores all test scores
• (C) A good performance may still earn a low grade if peers do better
• (D) It gives every student the same grade

Q16. A school that wants to encourage cooperation rather than competition would prefer

• (A) Strict ranking on a curve
• (B) Absolute or criterion-based grading
• (C) Grading only the top student highly
• (D) Publishing class ranks weekly

Q17. Grade inflation means that grades have

• (A) Fallen because tests became harder
• (B) Become impossible to calculate
• (C) Risen over time without a matching rise in learning
• (D) Stopped being used by schools

Q18. When a transcript shows GPA without course titles, a reader cannot tell

• (A) Whether the student attended school
• (B) The student’s name
• (C) Which subjects were taken or how demanding they were
• (D) The year of study

Q19. A test manual that gives age norms helps a user to

• (A) Interpret a child’s score against children of the same age
• (B) Set the pass mark for the whole school
• (C) Rank children across different age groups directly
• (D) Diagnose a specific reading difficulty on its own

Q20. Why do standardized tests use a large tryout sample?

• (A) To make the test longer for every school
• (B) To build reliable norms and check items broadly
• (C) To avoid any scoring key
• (D) To let teachers set their own time limits

Q21. A standardized reading test given in a noisy hall with interruptions has lost

• (A) Its printed answer key
• (B) Its syllabus coverage
• (C) Its grade scale
• (D) Standardization of administration

Q22. A school uses a standardized test to check progress over three years. This works best if

• (A) A different local test is used each year
• (B) Only the top class is tested each year
• (C) Results are kept secret from teachers
• (D) The same standardized procedures and comparable scores are used each year

Q23. One valid criticism of heavy reliance on standardized tests is that they

• (A) Always improve teaching in every subject
• (B) Measure every school goal equally well
• (C) May narrow teaching toward tested content only
• (D) Remove the need for teacher judgement entirely

Q24. Standardized test scores are most useful when combined with

• (A) Classroom evidence such as classwork and teacher observation
• (B) No other information at all
• (C) A single student’s opinion of the test
• (D) The school’s building plan

Q25. A norm table is used to

• (A) Convert a raw score into a comparative score such as a percentile
• (B) Set the school timetable
• (C) Write new syllabus topics
• (D) Choose textbooks for a class

Q26. Which is a characteristic of a well-standardized test?

• (A) Documented reliability and validity evidence
• (B) No instructions for examiners
• (C) A different scoring key in each centre
• (D) Items that change during the test

Q27. A teacher checks understanding with questioning during a lesson and reteaches a point at once. This is

• (A) Summative evaluation
• (B) Certification testing
• (C) Formative evaluation
• (D) Admission testing

Q28. An end-of-unit test used to decide promotion to the next unit is mainly

• (A) Diagnostic only
• (B) Summative
• (C) Formative only
• (D) Informal observation only

Q29. A reading teacher gives a short screening, then a detailed check of decoding skills for struggling readers. The detailed check is

• (A) Diagnostic
• (B) Summative
• (C) Norm-referenced only
• (D) A final examination

Q30. Formative assessment improves learning most when students

• (A) Receive only a total mark at the end
• (B) Are ranked publicly each week
• (C) Are tested without any comment
• (D) Use feedback to correct errors before the final judgement

Q31. Which example shows diagnostic evaluation in mathematics?

• (A) Finding that a student confuses place value when subtracting
• (B) Reporting the class average for the term
• (C) Ranking students for a prize
• (D) Giving a final grade for the year

Q32. Summative results are often reported to parents as

• (A) Daily hints for the next lesson
• (B) A summary of achievement for a term or course
• (C) A list of every classroom question asked
• (D) A diagnosis of one error type

Q33. A teacher who uses exit tickets at the end of each lesson is practising

• (A) Final certification
• (B) Placement testing for admission
• (C) School inspection
• (D) Formative assessment

Q34. Diagnostic testing differs from a general achievement test mainly in that diagnostic testing:

• (A) Gives only a total score for ranking
• (B) Is used only at the end of the year
• (C) Covers the whole syllabus in one sitting
• (D) Pinpoints the specific nature of a pupil’s difficulty rather than giving an overall score

Q35. A portfolio reviewed at the end of term to judge overall growth is mainly

• (A) Diagnostic
• (B) Formative questioning
• (C) A placement interview
• (D) Summative

Q36. A blueprint that gives 40 percent of items to one unit and 10 percent to another reflects

• (A) The relative weight of the units in teaching and objectives
• (B) The alphabetical order of units
• (C) The number of students in each class
• (D) The teacher’s favourite topics only

Q37. When writing a multiple-choice item, the stem should

• (A) Contain the answer in its wording
• (B) Use double negatives wherever possible
• (C) Be as long as the options combined
• (D) Present a clear problem without clues to the answer

Q38. A good distractor in a multiple-choice item is

• (A) Obviously wrong to every student
• (B) Correct under a different interpretation
• (C) Unrelated to the topic of the item
• (D) Plausible to a student who has not fully learned the point

Q39. During tryout, item difficulty is judged by

• (A) The proportion of tryout students who answer correctly
• (B) The length of the item
• (C) The number of words in the stem
• (D) The teacher’s guess about difficulty

Q40. Item discrimination tells test makers whether an item

• (A) Separates high achievers from low achievers on the total test
• (B) Is liked by all students
• (C) Uses difficult vocabulary
• (D) Appears early in the paper

Q41. A test with clear instructions, adequate time and a scoring key is more likely to be

• (A) Valid for every possible purpose
• (B) Reliable in scoring
• (C) Free from all syllabus limits
• (D) Accepted without any tryout

Q42. After tryout, items with poor discrimination are usually

• (A) Kept because they are unusual
• (B) Revised or removed
• (C) Given extra marks
• (D) Moved to the end of the paper only

Q43. Standardizing a newly built test includes

• (A) Trying it on a representative sample and preparing norms
• (B) Asking one class to set the pass mark
• (C) Printing it in colour
• (D) Letting each school choose its own time limit

Q44. A test that samples only two of ten taught units lacks

• (A) A scoring key
• (B) A title page
• (C) Content validity in coverage
• (D) Enough time for students

Q45. The scores are 5, 7, 9, 11, 13. The mean is

• (A) 7
• (B) 9
• (C) 11
• (D) 8

Q46. The scores are 2, 4, 6, 8. The median is

• (A) 4
• (B) 5
• (C) 6
• (D) 3

Q47. In the data 10, 12, 12, 14, 15, the mode is

• (A) 12
• (B) 10
• (C) 14
• (D) 15

Q48. Scores range from 40 to 95. The range is

• (A) 40
• (B) 95
• (C) 55
• (D) 135

Q49. If the mean is 50 and the standard deviation is 5, a score of 60 has a z-score of

• (A) 1
• (B) 10
• (C) 0
• (D) 2

Q50. A z-score of -1 means the score lies

• (A) One standard deviation below the mean
• (B) One point below the mean
• (C) At the lowest possible value
• (D) One percentile below the median

Q51. In a normal curve, about what share of scores falls within one standard deviation of the mean?

• (A) About 50 percent
• (B) About 68 percent
• (C) About 95 percent
• (D) About 99 percent

Q52. The median is preferred over the mean when data contain

• (A) Only whole numbers
• (B) An equal number of boys and girls
• (C) Scores that are all identical
• (D) Extreme scores that would distort the average

Q53. The first quartile (Q1) is the value below which about

• (A) 50 percent of scores fall
• (B) 75 percent of scores fall
• (C) 25 percent of scores fall
• (D) 100 percent of scores fall

Q54. A teacher reports that a score is at the third quartile. This means about

• (A) 25 percent of scores are below it
• (B) 75 percent of scores are below it
• (C) The score is the highest in class
• (D) The score equals the mean

Q55. Tyler’s model is sometimes criticised because it

• (A) Always requires expensive equipment
• (B) Cannot be used in schools
• (C) May ignore unintended outcomes that were not stated as objectives
• (D) Never uses test results

Q56. In CIPP, input evaluation mainly looks at

• (A) Final examination results only
• (B) Student behaviour after graduation
• (C) Daily attendance records only
• (D) Available resources, plans and strategies before action

Q57. Process evaluation in CIPP is concerned with

• (A) Needs in the community before planning
• (B) Final outcomes after the programme ends
• (C) The budget approved last year
• (D) How the programme is actually implemented

Q58. A CIPP evaluator who checks whether the programme met community needs is doing

• (A) Product evaluation only
• (B) Item analysis
• (C) Context evaluation
• (D) Grading of students

Q59. Tyler’s model and CIPP differ mainly because CIPP

• (A) Ignores objectives completely
• (B) Uses no data at all
• (C) Covers decisions at several stages, not only final objectives
• (D) Applies only to one lesson

Q60. A school reviews its new reading programme at the end of the year to judge results. In CIPP terms this is

• (A) Context evaluation
• (B) Product evaluation
• (C) Input evaluation
• (D) Process monitoring only