Q1. What is the main purpose of a norm-referenced test?

• (A) To check whether a student has mastered a fixed set of objectives
• (B) To diagnose a student’s learning difficulty in detail
• (C) To give feedback during daily teaching
• (D) To compare a student’s performance with that of a peer group

Q2. A criterion-referenced test judges a student mainly against

• (A) The average score of the whole class
• (B) A fixed standard or set of learning objectives
• (C) The highest score obtained in the school
• (D) The rank of the student in the district

Q3. Which example best fits a criterion-referenced test?

• (A) A driving licence test that requires passing a set standard
• (B) A test that reports a student as better than 80 percent of peers
• (C) A test used to select the top ten students for a scholarship
• (D) A test that ranks schools from first to last

Q4. In norm-referenced interpretation, a percentile rank of 70 means the student scored

• (A) 70 marks out of 100 on the test
• (B) Higher than about 70 percent of the norm group
• (C) 70 percent of the syllabus correctly
• (D) Better than 70 students in the class

Q5. Which statement about criterion-referenced tests is true?

• (A) They always rank students from highest to lowest
• (B) They are useful only for selecting a few top students
• (C) They can show exactly which objectives a student has or has not mastered
• (D) They avoid the use of any passing standard

Q6. A teacher wants to know if every student can solve two-digit subtraction problems. The best choice is a

• (A) Norm-referenced test
• (B) Aptitude test for future prediction
• (C) Criterion-referenced test
• (D) Personality inventory

Q7. Norm-referenced tests are most useful when the decision requires

• (A) Certifying mastery of one narrow topic
• (B) Checking daily homework completion
• (C) Giving step-by-step feedback in a lesson
• (D) Ranking or selecting students in comparison with others

Q8. Test norms should be updated when:

• (A) Every year, whether anything has changed or not
• (B) Only when the test is shortened
• (C) The reference population or curriculum has changed enough that old comparisons would mislead
• (D) Never, once the norms are published

Q9. Criterion-referenced scores are usually reported as

• (A) Only as a rank in the class
• (B) Pass or fail against a standard, or the objectives mastered
• (C) Only as a percentile in a national group
• (D) Only as a grade on a curve

Q10. What does a letter grade of B normally signal in a grading system?

• (A) Failure to meet minimum course requirements
• (B) Performance above average but below the highest level
• (C) The highest possible achievement in the course
• (D) That the student did not attempt the work

Q11. In a common 4.0 scale, what grade point is assigned to an A?

• (A) 4.0
• (B) 3.0
• (C) 2.0
• (D) 1.0

Q12. A student earns grade points of 4, 3, 3 and 2 in four equal-credit courses. The GPA is

• (A) 3.5
• (B) 2.5
• (C) 4.0
• (D) 3.0

Q13. A CGPA is most useful for:

• (A) Summarising a student’s overall achievement across a whole programme
• (B) Ranking students on a single test
• (C) Replacing all individual course grades
• (D) Measuring performance in the final semester only

Q14. In absolute grading, a student’s grade depends mainly on

• (A) How the student ranks against classmates
• (B) How well the student meets preset marks or standards
• (C) The average score of the class
• (D) The number of students in the class

Q15. In relative grading, grades are assigned mainly by

• (A) A fixed percentage set before teaching begins
• (B) Comparing students with one another, often on a curve
• (C) The number of assignments submitted
• (D) The teacher’s impression of effort alone

Q16. A grading philosophy that stresses mastery for all learners would favour

• (A) Strict ranking so only a few can earn top grades
• (B) Grading only on a single final examination
• (C) Criterion-based grading with chances to improve
• (D) Giving the same grade to every student regardless of work

Q17. Why is GPA alone a weak measure of learning quality?

• (A) It always favours students in small classes
• (B) It cannot be calculated for more than one semester
• (C) It hides which subjects were strong or weak and how hard courses were
• (D) It is never accepted by employers or colleges

Q18. A weighted GPA gives extra weight mainly to

• (A) Courses with the largest enrolment
• (B) Courses taught in the morning
• (C) More demanding courses such as honours or advanced courses
• (D) Courses with the shortest syllabus

Q19. A standardized test is called standardized mainly because

• (A) It is used in every school in the country
• (B) It contains only multiple-choice items
• (C) It is prepared by the classroom teacher alone
• (D) Its administration, scoring and interpretation follow uniform procedures

Q20. Which feature is essential for a standardized test?

• (A) A different time limit for each school
• (B) Scoring that changes with the teacher’s mood
• (C) Items that are kept secret from the test maker
• (D) Published norms for interpreting scores

Q21. Standardized administration requires that all students receive

• (A) Different questions based on their ability
• (B) Help from the teacher during the test
• (C) The same directions, time limits and testing conditions
• (D) Extra time only if they ask for it in the hall

Q22. A major use of standardized tests in schools is to

• (A) Replace all classroom assessment
• (B) Judge a teacher by one student’s answer
• (C) Compare achievement across classes, schools or regions
• (D) Decide daily lesson plans in detail

Q23. A limitation of standardized tests is that they

• (A) Always measure creativity and practical skill fully
• (B) Give results too slowly for any planning use
• (C) Cannot be scored reliably at all
• (D) May not match the exact content taught in a particular class

Q24. Test norms are best described as

• (A) Score distributions from a representative reference group
• (B) The minimum marks needed to pass a course
• (C) The list of topics in the syllabus
• (D) The rules for admitting students to school

Q25. Which practice would break standardization?

• (A) Allowing one centre extra time while others keep the set limit
• (B) Using the same answer sheet in all centres
• (C) Reading the same instructions in all centres
• (D) Scoring all papers with the same key

Q26. Standardized tests are most fair when they are

• (A) Based only on one textbook used in one school
• (B) Given only to students who volunteer
• (C) Scored by the students themselves
• (D) Free from bias against any group of test takers

Q27. Formative evaluation is mainly used

• (A) During instruction to improve learning while it is happening
• (B) Only at the end of a course to award a final grade
• (C) Before teaching to place students in groups
• (D) After a course to certify completion

Q28. Which activity is a clear example of formative assessment?

• (A) A final board examination at the end of the year
• (B) A short quiz with feedback given before the next lesson
• (C) An entry test used to admit students to a programme
• (D) A survey of school facilities

Q29. Summative evaluation is best used to

• (A) Judge overall achievement at the end of a unit or course
• (B) Correct a misunderstanding in the middle of a lesson
• (C) Find the cause of a repeated error in one topic
• (D) Plan the next day’s homework task

Q30. Diagnostic evaluation differs from formative evaluation because diagnostic work

• (A) Is always given at the end of the term
• (B) Never leads to any follow-up teaching
• (C) Seeks the specific cause of a learning difficulty
• (D) Only reports a total score

Q31. A student repeatedly fails fraction problems. A diagnostic test would most help by showing

• (A) Which fraction sub-skill is causing the errors
• (B) The student’s rank in the class
• (C) The student’s total marks for the term
• (D) How many students passed the unit

Q32. The feedback role is strongest in which type of evaluation?

• (A) Summative evaluation used only for final grades
• (B) Admission testing
• (C) A census of school enrolment
• (D) Formative evaluation

Q33. A mid-term examination that counts toward the final grade is mainly

• (A) Formative
• (B) Summative
• (C) Diagnostic
• (D) Prognostic only

Q34. Which timing fits diagnostic evaluation best?

• (A) Only on the last day of the school year
• (B) Only during admission week
• (C) Only after final results are published
• (D) When a problem appears, or before remedial teaching begins

Q35. Good formative feedback should be

• (A) A single total mark given weeks later
• (B) The same comment for every student
• (C) Focused only on ranking students
• (D) Specific, timely and linked to the next step in learning

Q36. What is the first step in sound test construction?

• (A) Writing as many items as possible at once
• (B) Printing the test paper
• (C) Defining the purpose and the learning outcomes to be measured
• (D) Scoring a previous test

Q37. A table of specifications is mainly used to

• (A) Ensure the test samples content and objectives in planned proportions
• (B) List the names of students taking the test
• (C) Record marks after scoring
• (D) Set the date of the examination

Q38. In a table of specifications, the rows usually represent

• (A) Content topics or units
• (B) Student names
• (C) Test dates
• (D) Marks for each question only

Q39. Good item writing requires that each item

• (A) Contain two correct answers to reward partial knowledge
• (B) Use vague wording so students must guess
• (C) Test several unrelated topics at once
• (D) Measure one clear idea and have one defensible answer

Q40. Tryout or piloting of a test is done mainly to

• (A) Increase the number of questions at the last minute
• (B) Check item quality, difficulty and timing before final use
• (C) Replace the teacher’s lesson plan
• (D) Award final grades early

Q41. After a tryout, an item that almost no student answers correctly should be

• (A) Kept unchanged because difficulty proves quality
• (B) Reviewed for faults or for being too difficult or misplaced
• (C) Removed from all future teaching
• (D) Given double marks to balance the paper

Q42. Standardization of a test after construction means

• (A) Establishing uniform administration, scoring and norms
• (B) Writing the items in the local language only
• (C) Printing extra copies for absent students
• (D) Allowing teachers to change marks freely

Q43. Item revision after analysis is important because it

• (A) Makes every item very easy
• (B) Improves weak items instead of discarding useful content blindly
• (C) Removes all difficult topics from the syllabus
• (D) Guarantees that all students will pass

Q44. Which order of test construction steps is most logical?

• (A) Write items, print paper, plan, try out, revise
• (B) Score papers, write items, plan, standardize
• (C) Plan, prepare blueprint, write items, try out, revise, standardize
• (D) Try out, plan, write items, score, print

Q45. The mean of 4, 6, 8 and 10 is

• (A) 6
• (B) 7
• (C) 8
• (D) 9

Q46. The median of 3, 5, 7, 9 and 11 is

• (A) 5
• (B) 7
• (C) 9
• (D) 6

Q47. The mode of 2, 3, 3, 5, 6, 3 and 7 is

• (A) 2
• (B) 3
• (C) 5
• (D) 6

Q48. The range of scores 12, 18, 25 and 32 is

• (A) 12
• (B) 32
• (C) 20
• (D) 44

Q49. Standard deviation tells a teacher mainly about

• (A) How spread out scores are around the mean
• (B) The highest score in the class
• (C) The number of students who passed
• (D) The average score only

Q50. A class with a small standard deviation has scores that are

• (A) Clustered closely around the mean
• (B) Spread very widely
• (C) All below the passing mark
• (D) Impossible to interpret

Q51. The 75th percentile is the score below which about

• (A) 25 percent of scores fall
• (B) 75 percent of scores fall
• (C) 75 students fall in every class
• (D) 75 marks are scored

Q52. Quartiles divide a distribution into how many equal parts?

• (A) Four
• (B) Two
• (C) Three
• (D) Ten

Q53. A z-score of 0 means the raw score is

• (A) One standard deviation above the mean
• (B) The highest score possible
• (C) Below the lowest score
• (D) Equal to the mean

Q54. In a normal distribution curve, most scores cluster

• (A) Only at the two extremes
• (B) Only above the mean
• (C) Evenly across all values
• (D) Near the centre, around the mean

Q55. Tyler’s objectives model starts evaluation by

• (A) Collecting test scores first
• (B) Surveying parents only
• (C) Stating clear educational objectives
• (D) Choosing a textbook

Q56. In Tyler’s model, the next step after defining objectives is to

• (A) Award final grades
• (B) Publish school rankings
• (C) Define the objectives in behavioural terms and plan learning experiences
• (D) Stop all further assessment

Q57. Tyler’s model judges a programme mainly by

• (A) Whether its stated objectives were achieved
• (B) How much money it spent
• (C) How popular it was with visitors
• (D) How many students enrolled

Q58. In the CIPP model, the letter C stands for

• (A) Control
• (B) Content
• (C) Context
• (D) Criterion

Q59. Context evaluation in CIPP mainly examines

• (A) Day-to-day classroom teaching only
• (B) Final student grades only
• (C) The cost of textbooks alone
• (D) Needs, problems and goals in the setting

Q60. Product evaluation in CIPP focuses on

• (A) Resources available before teaching
• (B) Teaching methods used during lessons
• (C) The history of the school building
• (D) Outcomes and results of the programme