Q1. A teacher records that Ali scored 42 out of 50 on a class quiz. This act of assigning a number to performance is best described as:

• (A) evaluation
• (B) measurement
• (C) diagnosis
• (D) grading policy

Q2. After reviewing quiz scores, homework and class participation, a teacher judges that a student has made satisfactory progress. This overall judgement is an example of:

• (A) scoring
• (B) scaling
• (C) ranking
• (D) evaluation

Q3. Which activity is primarily assessment rather than measurement alone?

• (A) Collecting portfolio work, observations and test scores to understand learning
• (B) Counting the number of correct answers on a test
• (C) Converting raw marks into percentages
• (D) Recording attendance in a register

Q4. A school uses end-of-term results mainly to decide whether a new teaching method should continue. This purpose is best called:

• (A) formative assessment
• (B) diagnostic testing
• (C) evaluation of a programme
• (D) item banking

Q5. Which statement correctly distinguishes measurement from evaluation?

• (A) Measurement judges worth, while evaluation only counts correct answers
• (B) Measurement is quantitative description, while evaluation adds a judgement of value
• (C) Measurement is always informal, while evaluation is always formal
• (D) Measurement needs no instrument, while evaluation needs a test

Q6. A teacher gives a short quiz during a lesson to find gaps and adjust teaching the same day. This is an example of:

• (A) summative evaluation
• (B) placement testing
• (C) certification testing
• (D) formative assessment

Q7. Which of the following is a quantitative measure?

• (A) A written comment that a student writes fluently
• (B) A score of 18 out of 20 on a spelling test
• (C) A teacher impression that a class is active
• (D) A peer remark that a presentation was clear

Q8. Before starting a new unit, a teacher tests what students already know in order to plan the starting point. This is best described as:

• (A) diagnostic assessment
• (B) summative assessment
• (C) norm referencing only
• (D) final grading

Q9. A final examination used to certify that students have completed a course is mainly an example of:

• (A) formative feedback
• (B) classroom observation
• (C) peer assessment
• (D) summative assessment

Q10. Which example shows criterion-referenced interpretation?

• (A) Sana scored 80 percent, meeting the set pass standard of 70 percent
• (B) Sana ranked third in a class of forty students
• (C) Sana scored higher than most of her classmates
• (D) Sana improved her rank from tenth to fifth

Q11. A teacher compares a student’s score with the class average and percentile rank. This interpretation is:

• (A) diagnostic only
• (B) formative only
• (C) norm-referenced
• (D) criterion-referenced

Q12. Which purpose fits continuous assessment best?

• (A) A single final judgement with no feedback during the term
• (B) Regular evidence over time to track progress and support learning
• (C) Ranking schools for public league tables only
• (D) Replacing all teaching with testing

Q13. Labelling students by house – Red, Blue, Green – without any order uses which scale?

• (A) Ordinal scale
• (B) Interval scale
• (C) Nominal scale
• (D) Ratio scale

Q14. Ranking three essays as first, second and third, without knowing the gap between them, uses which scale?

• (A) Ordinal scale
• (B) Nominal scale
• (C) Ratio scale
• (D) Interval scale

Q15. Temperature in degrees Celsius, where zero does not mean absence of heat, is an example of which scale?

• (A) Nominal scale
• (B) Ordinal scale
• (C) Ratio scale
• (D) Interval scale

Q16. Measuring the weight of science equipment in kilograms, where zero means no weight, uses which scale?

• (A) Nominal scale
• (B) Ratio scale
• (C) Ordinal scale
• (D) Interval scale

Q17. Which statistic is appropriate for nominal data such as favourite subject categories?

• (A) Mean
• (B) Standard deviation
• (C) Pearson correlation
• (D) Mode

Q18. For ordinal data, such as class positions, the most suitable central measure is the:

• (A) Mean
• (B) Geometric mean
• (C) Median
• (D) Standard deviation

Q19. On an interval scale, which statement is correct?

• (A) Equal differences between scores represent equal differences in the trait
• (B) A score of 40 is twice as much ability as a score of 20
• (C) Scores can only be counted, not ordered
• (D) Zero always means complete absence of the trait

Q20. A teacher says a student who scored 20 marks has twice the knowledge of one who scored 10 marks. This claim is unsafe for most test scores because they are at best:

• (A) Nominal
• (B) Interval, not ratio
• (C) Ordinal only
• (D) Categorical only

Q21. Which of the following is a nominal variable in a school record?

• (A) Medium of instruction recorded as Urdu or English
• (B) Height of students in centimetres
• (C) Time taken to finish a test
• (D) Examination marks out of 100

Q22. Height, weight and response time share which property that Celsius temperature lacks?

• (A) They can be ordered
• (B) They can be counted
• (C) They can be grouped
• (D) They have a true zero point

Q23. A satisfaction rating of poor, fair, good and excellent is best treated as:

• (A) Nominal data
• (B) Ordinal data
• (C) Ratio data
• (D) Interval data

Q24. Which scale allows the mean and standard deviation to be used meaningfully?

• (A) Nominal scale only
• (B) Ordinal scale only
• (C) Interval scale
• (D) Nominal and ordinal scales

Q25. A test gives highly consistent scores every time it is used, but it measures memorisation rather than the problem-solving skill it claims to test. The test is best described as:

• (A) Valid but not reliable
• (B) Neither valid nor reliable
• (C) Valid for all purposes
• (D) Reliable but not valid for its claimed purpose

Q26. A mathematics test that looks, to students and teachers, as if it tests mathematics has good:

• (A) Predictive validity
• (B) Face validity
• (C) Construct validity
• (D) Split-half reliability

Q27. A panel of subject experts checks that a science test covers all syllabus topics in fair proportion. This establishes mainly:

• (A) Content validity
• (B) Concurrent validity
• (C) Test-retest reliability
• (D) Internal consistency

Q28. A new reasoning test is checked by seeing whether its scores relate to an accepted theory of reasoning ability. This is evidence for:

• (A) Face validity
• (B) Predictive validity
• (C) Construct validity
• (D) Scoring reliability

Q29. A school compares a new entrance test with students current examination results collected at the same time. This checks:

• (A) Test-retest reliability
• (B) Concurrent validity
• (C) Content validity
• (D) Face validity

Q30. A teacher uses admission test scores to predict final examination grades one year later. The relevant validity is:

• (A) Content validity
• (B) Face validity
• (C) Construct validity
• (D) Predictive validity

Q31. Which situation most threatens content validity?

• (A) The test is marked twice with the same result
• (B) The test instructions are clear
• (C) Important syllabus topics are missing from the test
• (D) Students find the test format familiar

Q32. If a reading test requires advanced general knowledge unrelated to reading skill, its scores may suffer from:

• (A) Construct-irrelevant variance
• (B) High internal consistency
• (C) Strong predictive power
• (D) Clear content coverage

Q33. Criterion-related validity is best described as:

• (A) Expert judgement about topic coverage
• (B) Appearance of the test to test takers
• (C) The relationship between test scores and an external criterion
• (D) Consistency between two halves of a test

Q34. Which method would best support the claim that a test measures anxiety rather than general stress?

• (A) Checking that items look relevant
• (B) Showing expected links with anxiety measures and weak links with unrelated measures
• (C) Making the test longer
• (D) Using only multiple-choice items

Q35. A valid test for one purpose, such as placement, is:

• (A) Automatically valid for certification
• (B) Automatically reliable for all groups
• (C) Free from all measurement error
• (D) Not automatically valid for a different purpose or group

Q36. The validity coefficient is usually reported as a:

• (A) Correlation between test scores and a criterion
• (B) Percentage of students who pass
• (C) Count of items in the test
• (D) Difference between two group means

Q37. Reliability refers mainly to the:

• (A) Consistency of measurement
• (B) Coverage of the syllabus
• (C) Difficulty of the items
• (D) Appearance of the test

Q38. Giving the same test to the same group after two weeks and correlating the scores estimates:

• (A) Split-half reliability
• (B) Inter-rater reliability
• (C) Test-retest reliability
• (D) Content validity

Q39. Two equivalent forms of a test are given to one group and the scores are correlated. This estimates:

• (A) Face validity
• (B) Construct validity
• (C) Item difficulty
• (D) Parallel-forms reliability

Q40. A test is divided into odd and even items and the two half-scores are correlated. This method is called:

• (A) Test-retest method
• (B) Split-half method
• (C) Parallel-forms method
• (D) Inter-rater method

Q41. KR-20 is most appropriate for a test in which items are:

• (A) Open-ended essays
• (B) Rated on a five-point scale
• (C) Scored right or wrong
• (D) Marked by several judges

Q42. If a test’s items vary greatly in difficulty, which reliability estimate is more accurate?

• (A) KR-20, because it uses each item’s actual difficulty
• (B) KR-21, because it assumes equal difficulty
• (C) Split-half, because it needs two test administrations
• (D) Test-retest, because it needs two separate testings

Q43. Two teachers independently mark the same essays and their marks agree closely. This shows good:

• (A) Test-retest reliability
• (B) Inter-rater reliability
• (C) Split-half reliability
• (D) Predictive validity

Q44. Increasing the number of good-quality items in a test usually:

• (A) Lowers reliability
• (B) Leaves reliability unchanged
• (C) Makes scores harder to interpret
• (D) Increases reliability

Q45. A reliability coefficient of 0.88, compared with 0.52, indicates:

• (A) Lower consistency
• (B) Higher consistency
• (C) Higher validity automatically
• (D) Easier items

Q46. The standard error of measurement is used to:

• (A) Count the items in a test
• (B) Judge content coverage
• (C) Estimate the range within which a true score probably lies
• (D) Compare two different tests directly

Q47. If a test has a standard deviation of 10 and reliability of 0.84, the standard error of measurement is:

• (A) 4
• (B) 6
• (C) 8
• (D) 10

Q48. Which factor is most likely to lower reliability?

• (A) Clear instructions
• (B) A wide range of ability in the group
• (C) Standard testing conditions
• (D) Ambiguous items and guessing

Q49. In item analysis, the difficulty index of an item is usually denoted by:

• (A) D
• (B) p
• (C) r
• (D) z

Q50. An item answered correctly by 80 out of 100 students has a difficulty index of:

• (A) 0.80
• (B) 0.20
• (C) 0.50
• (D) 0.08

Q51. A difficulty index of 0.95 for a multiple-choice item usually suggests that the item is:

• (A) Too difficult
• (B) Moderately difficult
• (C) Very easy
• (D) Highly discriminating

Q52. The discrimination index compares performance on an item between:

• (A) Boys and girls only
• (B) First and last items
• (C) Two different tests
• (D) High-scoring and low-scoring groups

Q53. In the upper group 24 of 30 students answer correctly and in the lower group 6 of 30 do so. The discrimination index is:

• (A) 0.20
• (B) 0.40
• (C) 0.80
• (D) 0.60

Q54. A discrimination index of -0.25 means that:

• (A) High scorers outperform low scorers
• (B) The item is of medium difficulty
• (C) Low scorers answer the item correctly more often than high scorers
• (D) The item has no distractors

Q55. An item with difficulty 0.50 and discrimination 0.45 is generally:

• (A) A good item to retain
• (B) Too easy to use
• (C) In need of deletion at once
• (D) Suitable only for essays

Q56. Distractor analysis is used to check whether:

• (A) The key is the longest option
• (B) The test is long enough
• (C) Each wrong option attracts some low scorers but few high scorers
• (D) All students finish on time

Q57. A distractor that no student selects is best described as:

• (A) A non-functioning distractor
• (B) An effective distractor
• (C) A discriminating item
• (D) A valid criterion

Q58. An item with difficulty 0.10 and discrimination 0.05 should usually be:

• (A) Retained without change
• (B) Used as a model item
• (C) Made slightly easier only
• (D) Revised or removed from the test

Q59. Which difficulty range is generally preferred for most items in a classroom test?

• (A) 0.05 to 0.15
• (B) 0.85 to 0.95
• (C) 0.30 to 0.70
• (D) 0.90 to 1.00

Q60. If a distractor attracts more high scorers than low scorers, the most likely problem is that the distractor is:

• (A) Too obviously wrong
• (B) Misleading or possibly also defensible
• (C) Too short
• (D) Placed first in the list