Q1. A teacher keeps a portfolio of each student’s drafts, projects and reflections across the term and reviews it with the student to plan the next steps. This practice best illustrates assessment as:

• (A) A single final judgement
• (B) A method of punishing incomplete work
• (C) An ongoing, evidence-based process that supports learning decisions
• (D) A replacement for the syllabus

Q2. Which statement best separates evaluation from measurement?

• (A) Measurement records a score, while evaluation interprets that score against a purpose or standard to reach a judgement
• (B) Measurement uses numbers, while evaluation uses only written comments
• (C) Measurement is done at the end of term, while evaluation is done during teaching
• (D) Measurement judges worth, while evaluation only counts correct answers

Q3. A school compares its students’ science results with national benchmarks in order to decide whether to revise its science teaching. The assessment is being used for:

• (A) Selecting students for a team
• (B) Awarding individual certificates
• (C) Checking daily homework completion
• (D) Programme improvement based on evidence

Q4. Assessment for learning is most closely associated with:

• (A) Final certification at the end of a course
• (B) Feedback during learning that helps students close the gap between current and desired performance
• (C) Ranking applicants for a scholarship
• (D) Publishing school league tables

Q5. Which of the following is an example of formal assessment?

• (A) A teacher’s mental note during a class discussion
• (B) A casual question asked while walking around the room
• (C) A quick impression of a student’s confidence
• (D) A planned written test with a scoring key, given under the same conditions to the whole class

Q6. A teacher who relies only on one end-of-year examination for all decisions about students risks:

• (A) Making the examination too easy for weaker students
• (B) Making decisions from a narrow sample that may be affected by a single bad day
• (C) Reducing the number of students who pass
• (D) Increasing the time teachers spend marking

Q7. In assessment terminology, the “domain” of a test refers to:

• (A) The full set of knowledge and skills the test is intended to sample, as defined by the syllabus and objectives
• (B) The set of questions included in one particular test paper
• (C) The level of difficulty of the items in the test
• (D) The group of pupils whose scores are used to set the norms

Q8. Good classroom assessment practice requires that assessment tasks be:

• (A) Secret from students until the examination day
• (B) Unrelated to what was taught, to test general ability
• (C) Aligned with the objectives taught and fair to all students
• (D) Identical every year regardless of the syllabus

Q9. During a lesson on fractions, the teacher asks students to show their working on mini whiteboards, spots a common error, and re-explains it immediately. This is:

• (A) Formative assessment, because the evidence is used at once to adjust teaching
• (B) Summative assessment, because marks are recorded
• (C) Placement assessment, because groups are formed
• (D) A final examination, because the whole class took part

Q10. Which feature distinguishes a summative test from a formative quiz on the same topic?

• (A) The summative test covers less content than the formative quiz
• (B) The formative quiz is given at the end of the topic to award a grade
• (C) The summative test gives feedback that students can use to improve before grading
• (D) The summative test is used to sum up achievement for a grade or decision, after learning is complete

Q11. A student who reads fluently aloud but cannot answer questions about a passage may need diagnostic assessment of:

• (A) Spelling accuracy in written work
• (B) Speed of reading aloud
• (C) Reading comprehension, to locate where understanding breaks down
• (D) Phonemic awareness for decoding new words

Q12. Diagnostic testing is most valuable when it leads to:

• (A) A lower grade for the student
• (B) A targeted remedial plan matched to the identified difficulty
• (C) Moving the student to another school
• (D) Repeating the same lesson unchanged

Q13. A new student joins a school mid-year. A short test of prior mathematics is given to decide which class and textbook level suit her. This decision is based on:

• (A) A final examination
• (B) Placement assessment
• (C) A diagnostic study of a disability
• (D) A summative report

Q14. Formative feedback is most effective when it:

• (A) Only gives a grade with no comment
• (B) Compares the student with the top student in class
• (C) Describes what was done well, what needs improvement, and how to improve it
• (D) Is given months after the work

Q15. A teacher gives a pre-test on a unit, finds most students already know half the content, and adjusts the starting point of the unit. This pre-test functioned mainly as:

• (A) A summative examination
• (B) A certification test
• (C) A punishment for students who had not revised
• (D) Placement and readiness assessment, showing where instruction should begin

Q16. Which of these is a summative use of assessment?

• (A) Using annual board results to award a pass or fail grade for the year
• (B) Checking understanding midway through a lesson
• (C) Asking students to peer-review a draft before submission
• (D) Giving a hint during a class activity

Q17. A formative assessment programme in a school is failing because teachers collect quiz data but never discuss it or change lessons. The missing element is:

• (A) More frequent examinations
• (B) Longer test papers
• (C) Stricter marking
• (D) The feedback loop: using evidence to adapt teaching and learning

Q18. Diagnostic assessment of a student’s persistent spelling errors would most usefully examine:

• (A) Patterns in the errors, such as particular letter combinations or rules, rather than only the total number wrong
• (B) The total number of spelling errors in the term
• (C) The student’s reading speed during dictation
• (D) How the student’s spelling compares with the class average

Q19. A school reports that a student is in the top quarter of her year group in mathematics. This is a norm-referenced statement because it:

• (A) Lists the topics she has mastered
• (B) Locates her performance relative to her peers
• (C) States the pass mark for the test
• (D) Gives the number of items she answered

Q20. Criterion-referenced scores are especially useful for reporting to parents because they can show:

• (A) The student’s rank in the district
• (B) How the student compares with the national average
• (C) Which specific skills the child has and has not yet mastered
• (D) The difficulty of the test paper

Q21. A teacher sets a mastery standard of 80 percent correct on a spelling unit test before the test is given. Students at or above that standard are judged to have mastered the unit. This standard-setting is characteristic of:

• (A) Criterion-referenced testing
• (B) Norm-referenced testing
• (C) Diagnostic testing only
• (D) Aptitude testing only

Q22. In a norm-referenced test, if the whole class performs very well, the relative ranking of students:

• (A) Disappears completely
• (B) Still spreads students out by comparison with one another, even though most have learned the material
• (C) Becomes a measure of mastery
• (D) Must be replaced by a pass mark

Q23. Which test result is criterion-referenced?

• (A) “Sana scored higher than 70 percent of her class.”
• (B) “Sana is ranked third out of 40 students.”
• (C) “Sana’s score is one standard deviation above the mean.”
• (D) “Sana correctly performed all five steps of the laboratory safety procedure.”

Q24. A common criticism of using only norm-referenced tests for young learners is that they:

• (A) Are too easy to construct
• (B) Give too much detail about skills
• (C) Encourage competition and labelling, while saying little about what a child needs to learn next
• (D) Cannot be scored objectively

Q25. A grade boundary set by taking the top 20 percent of candidates, regardless of their absolute scores, reflects:

• (A) A criterion-referenced standard
• (B) A norm-referenced decision rule
• (C) A diagnostic cut-score
• (D) A formative judgement

Q26. For a mastery-learning programme, where students progress only after showing they can perform a skill, the appropriate reporting approach is mainly:

• (A) Percentile ranks only
• (B) Standard scores only
• (C) Class ranking lists only
• (D) Criterion-referenced mastery judgements

Q27. When building a table of specifications, a teacher first lists the content topics down one side and, across the top, the:

• (A) The difficulty value of each test item
• (B) The marks allocated to each question
• (C) Cognitive levels or learning objectives to be tested for each topic
• (D) The names of the textbook chapters the items come from

Q28. A test has 40 items. The specification table allocates 25 percent to Topic X. How many items should cover Topic X?

• (A) 10
• (B) 25
• (C) 15
• (D) 4

Q29. A teacher skips the specification table and writes questions from memory. The most likely result is a test that:

• (A) Is perfectly balanced across topics
• (B) Is too short to score
• (C) Over-samples some topics and under-samples others, weakening content validity
• (D) Automatically becomes norm-referenced

Q30. Which item-writing guideline helps prevent students from answering correctly by test-taking tricks rather than knowledge?

• (A) Vary the position of the correct answer and keep options similar in length and style
• (B) Always place the correct answer in position C
• (C) Make the correct option the most detailed one
• (D) Use unfamiliar vocabulary in distractors only

Q31. A stem reads: “Which of the following statements about the water cycle is true, except…” This stem is problematic mainly because it:

• (A) Tests too many topics at once
• (B) Combines a positive and a negative cue in a confusing way, increasing misreading
• (C) Is too short
• (D) Uses a multiple-choice format

Q32. An item writer should avoid absolute words such as “always” and “never” in options because such options are:

• (A) More precise than other options
• (B) Too difficult for students to read
• (C) Used mainly in essay questions
• (D) Often easily recognised as false, giving an unintended clue

Q33. The stem of a good item should contain:

• (A) Two unrelated problems to save space
• (B) A joke to relax students
• (C) Irrelevant background detail to test reading speed
• (D) The central problem clearly stated, with only the information needed to answer it

Q34. When options must be numerical, good practice is to arrange them in:

• (A) Random order with no pattern
• (B) Order of the teacher’s preference
• (C) Ascending or descending numerical order, so students compare values rather than position
• (D) Order of difficulty of calculation

Q35. A teacher reviews a draft test and finds that in 18 of 20 items the correct answer is option B. The teacher should:

• (A) Rebalance the key positions across options, so position does not become a clue
• (B) Leave the test unchanged, since students will not notice
• (C) Add more B options to the remaining items
• (D) Remove option B from all items

Q36. After writing a test, the most useful review step before administration is to:

• (A) Check that the total marks add up to the required total
• (B) Have a colleague check items for clarity, accuracy, bias and alignment with the specification table
• (C) Read through the items once for spelling errors
• (D) Compare the test with last year’s paper item by item

Q37. A multiple-choice item that asks students to choose the best explanation for an observed result is mainly measuring:

• (A) Application and understanding, not mere recall, when the situation is new to students
• (B) Recall of science facts learned in class
• (C) Speed and accuracy in written work
• (D) Ability to follow laboratory instructions

Q38. Short-answer items are particularly useful for testing:

• (A) Long, structured arguments
• (B) Group discussion skills
• (C) Recall of specific terms, facts or brief procedures that have a definite answer
• (D) Drawing ability only

Q39. A limitation of short-answer items, compared with multiple-choice items, is that they:

• (A) Cover fewer topics in the same time than multiple-choice items
• (B) Require students to spell every answer correctly to gain marks
• (C) Give students no chance to show partial understanding
• (D) Take longer to score and allow varied wording that can make scoring less consistent

Q40. An essay question that asks students to evaluate two policies and defend a judgement is best suited to assessing:

• (A) Spelling accuracy
• (B) Higher-order thinking: analysis, evaluation and organisation of an argument
• (C) Recall of one date
• (D) Speed in completing many items

Q41. A restricted-response essay, which limits the scope and length of the answer, is preferred over an extended-response essay when the teacher wants:

• (A) Maximum freedom for students to choose any topic
• (B) A single overall impression mark for each script
• (C) More comparable answers and more consistent scoring across students
• (D) More freedom for markers to reward originality

Q42. Matching items are best used to test:

• (A) Extended argumentation
• (B) Laboratory manipulative skills
• (C) Creative writing
• (D) Associations between two sets of related facts, such as terms and definitions

Q43. A completion item (“Water boils at ___ degrees Celsius at sea level”) mainly tests:

• (A) Evaluation of a policy
• (B) Recall of a specific fact in a brief, supplied-response form
• (C) Organisation of a long argument
• (D) Practical laboratory skill

Q44. An item answered correctly by only 15 percent of students, with a difficulty index of 0.15, is best described as:

• (A) Very difficult, and worth checking for ambiguity, an error, or content not yet taught
• (B) Ideally easy for a classroom test
• (C) Automatically invalid
• (D) A good discriminator regardless of its wording

Q45. If 45 out of 150 students answer an item correctly, its difficulty index is:

• (A) 0.45
• (B) 0.30
• (C) 0.15
• (D) 0.70

Q46. The top 25 students answer an item correctly 20 times and the bottom 25 answer it correctly 8 times. Its discrimination index is:

• (A) 0.48
• (B) 0.32
• (C) 0.80
• (D) 0.12

Q47. An item with a discrimination index close to zero tells the teacher that the item:

• (A) Is too easy for everyone
• (B) Is the best item in the test
• (C) Does not separate higher from lower achievers and should be revised or removed
• (D) Was scored incorrectly for all students

Q48. A distractor that attracts mainly lower-achieving students while higher achievers choose the key is best described as:

• (A) A non-functioning distractor
• (B) A mis-keyed option
• (C) An irrelevant option
• (D) A functioning, plausible distractor doing its intended job

Q49. After item analysis, a teacher would normally decide for each item to:

• (A) Reuse the test unchanged, without acting on the item statistics
• (B) Reject any item that proved difficult for the class, and keep the rest unchanged
• (C) Decide each item on its difficulty index alone, ignoring discrimination and distractor performance
• (D) Retain strong items, revise marginal items, and reject or rewrite flawed items

Q50. The main purpose of carrying out item analysis after a test is to:

• (A) Rank students more harshly
• (B) Improve the quality of the test for future use and identify items that misled students
• (C) Set the pass mark for the next test
• (D) Publish the test items for public practice

Q51. A test claims to cover the full Grade 9 biology syllabus, but its items come only from two chapters. Its main weakness is in:

• (A) Content validity, because the items do not adequately represent the claimed domain
• (B) Test-retest reliability, because scores would change
• (C) Face validity only, because students disliked the paper
• (D) Practicability, because the paper was too short

Q52. Evidence for construct validity of a test of scientific reasoning would most plausibly include that:

• (A) Scores are higher for students who memorise textbook definitions
• (B) Scores correlate strongly with handwriting quality
• (C) Scores relate as theory predicts: higher for students with more science training, and related to, but distinct from, general reading scores
• (D) Scores are the same for students with different amounts of science training

Q53. A teacher-training admission test is checked against trainees’ teaching-practice grades a year later. A strong relationship would support its:

• (A) Predictive validity
• (B) Content validity
• (C) Face validity
• (D) Split-half reliability

Q54. A new quick screening test is validated against a full diagnostic assessment given in the same week. This comparison provides evidence of:

• (A) Test-retest reliability
• (B) Content validity
• (C) Face validity
• (D) Concurrent validity

Q55. Face validity matters in practice mainly because a test that does not look relevant to test takers may:

• (A) Reduce the number of items in the test
• (B) Reduce motivation and cooperation, even if its technical quality is sound
• (C) Make the test easier for weaker students
• (D) Increase the time allowed for the test

Q56. A weakness of test-retest reliability is that, if the interval between administrations is very short, scores may be inflated by:

• (A) Changes in the syllabus
• (B) A different examiner
• (C) Practice and memory effects from the first administration
• (D) A larger norm group

Q57. To estimate split-half reliability, a teacher correlates scores on odd-numbered items with scores on even-numbered items, then applies:

• (A) The difficulty index formula
• (B) A percentile rank conversion
• (C) The Spearman-Brown formula, to estimate reliability for the full test length
• (D) A standard deviation only

Q58. KR-21 differs from KR-20 in that KR-21:

• (A) Is used only for essay tests
• (B) Assumes all items are of equal difficulty, giving a quicker but less exact estimate for dichotomous items
• (C) Requires no item data at all
• (D) Measures validity rather than reliability

Q59. Objectivity in testing is best shown when:

• (A) The test covers the full syllabus fairly
• (B) The test is administered under the same conditions for all pupils
• (C) The test items are all of the same difficulty
• (D) Scoring does not depend on who marks the test, because the key or rubric leaves little room for personal judgement

Q60. A school chooses a short, inexpensive test that can be given in one period, even though a longer test would be slightly more reliable. This choice prioritises practicability, and it is acceptable only if:

• (A) The chosen test remains sufficiently valid and reliable for its intended decision, since a valid test must also be reliable
• (B) The test is made free of charge
• (C) The test is printed clearly and easy to administer
• (D) The test covers fewer topics than the longer test