Q1. In classroom practice, assessment is best understood as:

• (A) Giving marks to students at the end of a term
• (B) A continuous process of gathering evidence about learning in order to make decisions about teaching and learning
• (C) Administering a single written examination once a year
• (D) Ranking students for promotion to the next class only

Q2. Measurement differs from assessment mainly because measurement:

• (A) Gives qualitative descriptions without using numbers
• (B) Judges whether a programme should be continued
• (C) Compares a student’s performance with that of peers
• (D) Assigns a numerical value to a trait or performance according to a rule

Q3. Evaluation goes beyond measurement when a teacher:

• (A) Makes a judgement about the worth or quality of learning against a standard or purpose
• (B) Counts how many questions a student attempted
• (C) Records attendance for the month
• (D) Adds up marks obtained in a test

Q4. A teacher who collects homework, class discussion notes, quiz scores and observation records to judge progress is using assessment as:

• (A) A punishment for weak students
• (B) A single final examination score
• (C) A source of multiple kinds of evidence about learning
• (D) A list of marks used only for promotion

Q5. Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of classroom assessment?

• (A) To compare one school with another for publicity
• (B) To rank students for scholarship selection
• (C) To diagnose learning gaps and guide the next steps in teaching
• (D) To certify mastery at the end of a course

Q6. A test is best defined as:

• (A) An instrument or set of tasks designed to elicit a sample of behaviour under standard conditions
• (B) Any question a teacher asks informally during a lesson
• (C) The final report card issued by a school
• (D) A meeting between parents and teachers

Q7. Continuous assessment is valued mainly because it:

• (A) It provides a single final mark that summarises the whole year
• (B) It reduces the amount of marking teachers must do during the term
• (C) It allows schools to compare classes using one common test
• (D) Tracks learning over time and reduces dependence on one high-stakes occasion

Q8. Informal assessment is illustrated by:

• (A) A board examination with a fixed timetable
• (B) A teacher noting how a student explains a concept during group work
• (C) A printed admission test with an answer key
• (D) A national survey with standardised scoring

Q9. A short quiz given after teaching fractions, used to decide what to re-teach the next day, is an example of:

• (A) A selection test for admission
• (B) A public examination
• (C) A placement test
• (D) Formative assessment

Q10. The defining feature of formative assessment is that its results are used:

• (A) Only for promotion decisions
• (B) To improve learning while instruction is still in progress
• (C) To award final certificates
• (D) To rank schools in a district

Q11. An end-of-term examination that certifies how much of the syllabus a student has mastered is best described as:

• (A) Diagnostic assessment
• (B) Formative assessment
• (C) Summative assessment
• (D) Placement assessment

Q12. A teacher finds that several students repeatedly fail word problems although they can compute correctly. A detailed probe of their reading and problem-solving steps is most likely:

• (A) Diagnostic assessment
• (B) Summative assessment
• (C) Placement assessment
• (D) A final examination

Q13. Diagnostic assessment differs from formative assessment mainly in that diagnostic assessment:

• (A) Checks progress during teaching to guide the next lesson
• (B) Places students in groups according to entry level
• (C) Sums up achievement for a final grade
• (D) Focuses in depth on the nature and cause of a learning problem

Q14. Before starting a new English course, students take a short test so the teacher can place each one in the beginner, intermediate or advanced group. This is:

• (A) Placement assessment
• (B) Summative assessment
• (C) Diagnostic assessment of a reading disorder
• (D) A certification examination

Q15. A placement test is most useful when it measures:

• (A) General intelligence in the abstract
• (B) The specific entry skills needed for the next level of instruction
• (C) Students’ attitudes towards school
• (D) How quickly students finish the test

Q16. Which classroom action best shows formative assessment in use?

• (A) Announcing final grades on the noticeboard
• (B) Issuing a school-leaving certificate
• (C) Giving brief feedback on a draft and asking students to revise it before final submission
• (D) Selecting students for a scholarship on the basis of annual results

Q17. A head teacher uses mid-year results to judge whether the new mathematics programme should continue unchanged. This use of assessment is mainly:

• (A) Placement for individual students
• (B) Formative for the programme, because the findings can still change it
• (C) Diagnostic for a single student
• (D) A test of teacher attendance

Q18. If a formative quiz reveals that most of the class misunderstands photosynthesis, the teacher’s most appropriate next step is to:

• (A) Re-teach the misunderstood idea using a different approach and check again
• (B) Record the marks and move on to the next chapter
• (C) Reduce the syllabus for the final examination
• (D) Give the same quiz again without any teaching

Q19. In a norm-referenced test, a student’s score is interpreted mainly by:

• (A) Whether the student reached a fixed pass mark of 50 percent
• (B) How many syllabus objectives the student has mastered
• (C) The teacher’s judgement of effort in class
• (D) Comparing the student’s performance with that of a reference group

Q20. A driving licence test, in which every candidate must show the same required skills to pass, is closest to:

• (A) A norm-referenced test
• (B) An aptitude test
• (C) A criterion-referenced test
• (D) A diagnostic test only

Q21. A criterion-referenced test is most appropriate when the teacher wants to know:

• (A) Who scored highest in the class
• (B) How a student ranks among all students in the district
• (C) Whether each student has mastered the stated learning objectives
• (D) Which students should receive a scholarship from a limited fund

Q22. A percentile rank of 80 on a norm-referenced test means the student scored:

• (A) 80 percent of the test items correctly
• (B) Higher than the average of the norm group only
• (C) Exactly 80 marks out of 100
• (D) Equal to or better than 80 percent of the norm group

Q23. Which situation calls for a norm-referenced test rather than a criterion-referenced one?

• (A) Checking whether students can solve quadratic equations
• (B) Selecting the top ten applicants for a limited number of seats
• (C) Certifying that a trainee can perform first aid correctly
• (D) Confirming mastery of a single spelling list

Q24. In criterion-referenced testing, the pass standard is normally set:

• (A) Before testing, on the basis of the required performance
• (B) After testing, by taking the class average
• (C) By dividing the class into equal halves
• (D) By the highest score obtained in the group

Q25. A weakness of norm-referenced scores for classroom feedback is that they:

• (A) Tell the teacher which objectives are still unmastered
• (B) Show exactly which items the student missed
• (C) Require a very long test to be reliable
• (D) Show relative standing but not what the student can actually do

Q26. A teacher reports: “Ali answered 18 of 20 items on adding fractions correctly.” This report is best described as:

• (A) Criterion-referenced, because it describes performance on a defined skill
• (B) Norm-referenced, because 18 is a high number
• (C) Diagnostic, because Ali is a weak student
• (D) Summative, because it uses a total score

Q27. A table of specifications is best described as:

• (A) A list of students’ marks in rank order
• (B) A timetable for the examination hall
• (C) A two-way chart linking content areas with learning objectives and the number or weight of items for each cell
• (D) A marking scheme for essay questions

Q28. The main purpose of preparing a table of specifications before writing a test is to:

• (A) Make the test harder for students
• (B) Ensure the test fairly represents the content and objectives taught
• (C) Reduce the number of questions needed
• (D) Allow the teacher to reuse last year’s paper unchanged

Q29. In a table of specifications, the weight given to a topic should normally reflect:

• (A) The time spent teaching it and its importance in the objectives
• (B) How easy its questions are to write
• (C) The teacher’s personal interest in the topic
• (D) The number of pages it occupies in the textbook

Q30. A test blueprint includes 30 percent items at the application level. This means the test should:

• (A) Give 30 marks for spelling and presentation
• (B) Ask students to apply knowledge to new situations in about three items out of ten
• (C) Include 30 essay questions
• (D) Allow students 30 minutes extra time

Q31. Which stem best follows good item-writing practice?

• (A) “Photosynthesis is…”
• (B) “Photosynthesis, which is important, and which you studied, is…?”
• (C) “Do you know about photosynthesis?”
• (D) “Which of the following is a product of photosynthesis in green plants?”

Q32. A good multiple-choice item should have options that are:

• (A) Very different in length and style so the answer stands out
• (B) Taken from unrelated chapters to test general knowledge
• (C) Homogeneous in form and plausible to a student who has not mastered the point
• (D) All clearly wrong except for one obvious phrase

Q33. Item writers are advised to avoid negative stems such as “Which is NOT…” unless necessary, because negatives:

• (A) Make the item too easy
• (B) Are forbidden by examination boards
• (C) Increase the risk that students misread the question and answer the opposite of what was asked
• (D) Always measure higher-order thinking

Q34. Which option set violates the rule against giving grammatical clues?

• (A) Four options of similar length about the same concept
• (B) Three options starting with a verb and one starting with “an”, matching only the correct stem ending
• (C) Four dates from the same century
• (D) Four definitions of similar difficulty

Q35. A teacher writes an item whose correct answer is always the longest option. This practice is poor because:

• (A) Students learn to choose by length rather than by knowledge
• (B) Long answers take longer for students to read
• (C) Short answers are easier to score
• (D) Long options give students more clues about the topic

Q36. When writing distractors, the teacher should base them mainly on:

• (A) The teacher’s own favourite facts about the topic
• (B) Correct answers from other topics in the syllabus
• (C) Uncommon vocabulary that students have not yet met
• (D) Common student errors and misconceptions about the topic

Q37. The strongest advantage of well-written multiple-choice items for a large class is that they:

• (A) Allow students to express ideas in their own words
• (B) Take very little time for the teacher to construct
• (C) Remove all possibility of guessing
• (D) Sample a wide range of content quickly and can be scored objectively

Q38. An essay item is the best choice when the teacher mainly wants to assess:

• (A) Recall of a single fact
• (B) Speed of answering many questions
• (C) Organisation of ideas, reasoning and original expression on a complex issue
• (D) Spelling of technical terms only

Q39. Compared with multiple-choice items, short-answer items have the advantage that they:

• (A) Can cover more topics in the same time
• (B) Require students to recall and supply the answer, reducing guessing
• (C) Are always scored more objectively
• (D) Measure creativity better than essays

Q40. A recognised limitation of multiple-choice items is that they:

• (A) Allow some correct answers by guessing and rarely assess extended creative expression
• (B) Cannot test understanding at all
• (C) Take longer to score than essays
• (D) Are unsuitable for large classes

Q41. The main scoring problem with essay tests is that:

• (A) Essays take much longer to mark than objective tests
• (B) Scores can vary with the marker, mood or order of marking unless a clear rubric is used
• (C) Essays favour learners who write well, even in other subjects
• (D) Essay marks cannot be combined into a total score at all

Q42. A teacher must test a full term of science in 40 minutes for 200 students and needs quick, consistent scoring. The most suitable main item type is:

• (A) A single long essay
• (B) An oral presentation for each student
• (C) A project report
• (D) Multiple-choice items covering the term’s topics

Q43. The difficulty index of an item is calculated as:

• (A) The number of students who chose the most popular distractor
• (B) The difference between high and low group scores
• (C) The proportion of all test takers who answered the item correctly
• (D) The correlation between the item and the total score

Q44. If 72 out of 120 students answer an item correctly, its difficulty index is:

• (A) 0.60
• (B) 0.40
• (C) 0.72
• (D) 1.20

Q45. An item with a difficulty index of 0.92 is most likely to be:

• (A) Too easy, contributing little information about differences among students
• (B) Ideally difficult for a classroom test
• (C) Too difficult for most students
• (D) Invalid because the key must be wrong

Q46. In a discrimination analysis, 24 of the top 30 students and 9 of the bottom 30 students answer an item correctly. Its discrimination index is:

• (A) 0.30
• (B) 0.80
• (C) 0.50
• (D) 0.15

Q47. A discrimination index of 0.45 for an item generally indicates that the item:

• (A) Is too difficult for the class
• (B) Was answered correctly by everyone
• (C) Has a faulty key
• (D) Discriminates well between higher and lower achievers

Q48. An item with a negative discrimination index should be treated as:

• (A) An excellent item for revision
• (B) A flawed item, since lower achievers answered it correctly more often than higher achievers
• (C) An easy item that all students liked
• (D) Proof that the test was too long

Q49. In distractor analysis, a distractor that no student selects is called:

• (A) An effective distractor
• (B) A keyed response
• (C) A non-functioning distractor that should be revised or replaced
• (D) A discriminating option

Q50. A distractor chosen mainly by high-achieving students and rarely by low achievers most likely indicates:

• (A) That the distractor is attractive and plausible, or that the item is mis-keyed or ambiguous
• (B) That the item is perfectly written
• (C) That high achievers guessed more often
• (D) That the test was too easy overall

Q51. Content validity is best established when:

• (A) Students say the test looked fair
• (B) Subject experts judge that the items adequately sample the syllabus and objectives, as planned in the table of specifications
• (C) Scores predict later examination results
• (D) The same students score similarly on a retest

Q52. A test that appears relevant and appropriate to students and teachers, on the surface, is said to have:

• (A) Predictive validity
• (B) Construct validity
• (C) Concurrent validity
• (D) Face validity

Q53. Construct validity concerns whether a test actually measures:

• (A) Future job performance only
• (B) The number of textbook chapters covered
• (C) How quickly students finish
• (D) The theoretical trait or concept it claims to measure, such as scientific reasoning

Q54. A new admission test is validated by checking whether its scores predict first-year grades. This is an example of:

• (A) Content validity
• (B) Predictive validity, a form of criterion-related validity
• (C) Face validity
• (D) Split-half reliability

Q55. Concurrent validity differs from predictive validity in that concurrent validity compares test scores with a criterion measured:

• (A) At about the same time as the test
• (B) Only after graduation
• (C) After students have completed the next course
• (D) When the same test is repeated a month later

Q56. Test-retest reliability is estimated by:

• (A) Splitting a test into two halves once
• (B) Comparing scores of two different classes
• (C) Giving the same test to the same group on two occasions and correlating the two sets of scores
• (D) Asking experts to review the items

Q57. In split-half reliability, the correlation between the two halves must be adjusted because:

• (A) The halves are scored by different teachers
• (B) A half-test is shorter than the full test, so the Spearman-Brown formula estimates the reliability of the full-length test
• (C) Students answer the second half more quickly
• (D) The items in each half are identical

Q58. KR-20 is the appropriate reliability estimate when a test consists of:

• (A) Essay questions scored on a scale of 0 to 10
• (B) Rating scales with five response levels
• (C) Items scored right or wrong, with internal consistency estimated from item variances
• (D) A single oral question

Q59. Two independent markers award almost identical marks to the same set of essays. This agreement is evidence of:

• (A) Content validity only
• (B) Predictive validity only
• (C) Test-retest reliability only
• (D) Inter-rater reliability and objectivity of scoring

Q60. A test that is cheap to print, quick to administer and easy to score and interpret is described as:

• (A) Practicable, although practicability alone does not guarantee validity or reliability
• (B) Valid for all purposes
• (C) Reliable by definition
• (D) Objective in every subject