Q1. What is the central idea of Walker’s deliberation model of curriculum development?

• (A) Curriculum should be built by first writing precise behavioural objectives and then selecting content to match them.
• (B) Curriculum making is a practical activity in which people deliberate over values, alternatives and consequences before deciding.
• (C) Curriculum should be designed centrally by subject experts and then delivered unchanged to every school.
• (D) Curriculum development is a scientific experiment in which hypotheses about learning are tested in laboratories.

Q2. Which three phases did Walker identify in his model of curriculum development?

• (A) Platform, deliberation and design
• (B) Analysis, synthesis and evaluation
• (C) Objectives, learning experiences and assessment
• (D) Diagnosis, prescription and treatment

Q3. In Walker’s model, what does the term “platform” refer to?

• (A) The list of behavioural objectives set for the finished curriculum
• (B) The procedure of deliberation used by the committee
• (C) The published syllabus document handed to schools
• (D) The shared beliefs, values, assumptions and conceptions held by those developing the curriculum

Q4. What mainly happens during the deliberation phase of Walker’s model?

• (A) Teachers are trained to use the new textbooks correctly.
• (B) Examination papers are drafted and marked according to a key.
• (C) Participants weigh alternative courses of action, debate their merits and consider their likely consequences.
• (D) The finished curriculum is printed and distributed to schools.

Q5. How does Walker’s model differ most clearly from Tyler’s rationale?

• (A) Walker gives more importance to standardized testing than Tyler does.
• (B) Walker insists that curriculum decisions are practical and value-laden, not purely technical and ends-means decisions.
• (C) Walker removes teachers entirely from curriculum development work.
• (D) Walker argues that curriculum should never be evaluated after it is implemented.

Q6. What is produced during the design phase of Walker’s model?

• (A) A research report on students’ examination results
• (B) A list of behavioural objectives for each lesson
• (C) A survey of parents’ opinions about the school
• (D) The actual curriculum materials, plans and documents that embody the decisions reached

Q7. According to Walker, why can curriculum problems not be solved by technical means alone?

• (A) Because curriculum choices always involve competing values and judgements about what is worthwhile to teach
• (B) The need to select the most efficient timetable for covering the syllabus
• (C) The need to choose a textbook that matches the syllabus most closely
• (D) The need to find the fastest way to mark a large set of examination papers

Q8. Who takes part in deliberation in Walker’s model?

• (A) Only the ministry officials who approve the curriculum
• (B) Practitioners and stakeholders such as teachers, administrators and others concerned with the curriculum
• (C) Only the students who will study the curriculum
• (D) Only foreign consultants hired for the project

Q9. Walker’s deliberation model is best described as a reaction against which approach?

• (A) The child-centred approach of progressive education
• (B) The use of textbooks in classroom teaching
• (C) The teaching of moral values in schools
• (D) The linear, objectives-first Tyler rationale

Q10. In Walker’s model, the platform of a curriculum team would most likely include which of the following?

• (A) The list of topics in the national syllabus prescribed for the school
• (B) Their conceptions of learners, of knowledge and of what schooling is for
• (C) The examination results achieved by the school in the previous year
• (D) The teaching methods the team plans to use in the classroom

Q11. What kind of reasoning does deliberation rely on in Walker’s model?

• (A) Statistical proof from large-scale experiments
• (B) Memorisation of rules laid down by curriculum theorists
• (C) Practical reasoning, in which arguments, evidence and values are weighed together
• (D) Random trial and error with no discussion at all

Q12. Which statement best describes the flow of Walker’s model?

• (A) It is flexible and non-linear, since deliberation can return to the platform as new issues arise.
• (B) It is a fixed sequence that can never be revisited once started.
• (C) It begins with national examinations and ends with textbook selection.
• (D) It skips discussion entirely and moves straight to classroom teaching.

Q13. What is the core claim of Stenhouse’s process model of curriculum?

• (A) Curriculum should be defined by principles of procedure and the quality of classroom activity, not by pre-specified behavioural outcomes.
• (B) Curriculum should consist only of content that can be measured in a written examination.
• (C) Curriculum should be written by textbook publishers without teacher involvement.
• (D) Curriculum should change every term to keep students interested.

Q14. Why did Stenhouse object to starting curriculum design with behavioural objectives?

• (A) Because writing objectives takes time that could be spent on teaching
• (B) Because objectives written for one class cannot be reused in another class
• (C) Because pre-specifying outcomes distorts education by narrowing learning to what can be measured in advance
• (D) Because objectives require agreement among all teachers before teaching can begin

Q15. Stenhouse is best known for advancing which idea about teachers?

• (A) Teachers should only follow scripts written by curriculum experts.
• (B) Teachers should act as researchers who study and improve their own classroom practice.
• (C) Teachers should avoid judging the curriculum they are asked to teach.
• (D) Teachers should spend most of their time marking examination papers.

Q16. In Stenhouse’s process model, how is content selected for the curriculum?

• (A) By checking which topics appear most often in past examination papers
• (B) By choosing the cheapest topics to teach with available resources
• (C) By asking parents which subjects they prefer for their children
• (D) By judging whether the activity itself is educationally worthwhile and intrinsically valuable

Q17. How is evaluation mainly carried out in Stenhouse’s process model?

• (A) By counting how many students pass a final examination
• (B) By comparing schools with one another in league tables
• (C) By judging the quality of the educational process and the learning it produces
• (D) By checking whether teachers covered every page of the textbook

Q18. Which curriculum project is most closely associated with Lawrence Stenhouse?

• (A) The Humanities Curriculum Project, which dealt with controversial social issues in schools
• (B) The national literacy hour programme for primary schools
• (C) The programmed learning movement based on teaching machines
• (D) The international mathematics olympiad training programme

Q19. In the process model, what view of knowledge did Stenhouse promote?

• (A) Knowledge is a fixed body of facts to be memorised exactly as given.
• (B) Knowledge is something that only examiners can define.
• (C) Knowledge is open to inquiry, discussion and critical questioning by learners.
• (D) Knowledge is valuable only when it leads directly to employment.

Q20. What is the main difference between Stenhouse’s process model and Tyler’s objectives model?

• (A) The process model organises content by subject disciplines, while the objectives model organises it by pupils’ interests.
• (B) The process model begins with assessment, while the objectives model begins with content.
• (C) The process model is used for vocational training, while the objectives model is used for academic subjects.
• (D) The process model emphasises the quality of learning activities, while the objectives model emphasises pre-stated outcomes.

Q21. In Stenhouse’s view, what role should the teacher play in curriculum development?

• (A) A clerk who records attendance and examination marks
• (B) A technician who delivers a ready-made package without question
• (C) A manager who only supervises other teachers
• (D) A curriculum developer and researcher who tests ideas in the classroom

Q22. Assessment in a process-model curriculum is most likely to be which of the following?

• (A) Descriptive and judgement-based, relying on teacher observation and evidence of learning quality
• (B) Entirely based on multiple-choice tests set by an outside agency
• (C) Decided by students voting on their own grades
• (D) Limited to a single end-of-year examination

Q23. According to Stenhouse, what happens to worthwhile learning when it is forced into pre-specified behavioural objectives?

• (A) It becomes easier to measure pupils’ progress with clear test scores
• (B) It becomes clearer for parents to see exactly what pupils will learn
• (C) It is distorted, because genuine educational outcomes cannot always be predicted in advance
• (D) It becomes more motivating for pupils, since they know the targets in advance

Q24. Which slogan best captures Stenhouse’s approach to curriculum?

• (A) “Teach to the test and the results will follow.”
• (B) “Curriculum as process: the journey matters as much as the destination.”
• (C) “One textbook for every classroom in the nation.”
• (D) “Objectives first, questions later.”

Q25. What is the central idea of Skilbeck’s school-based curriculum development (SBCD) model?

• (A) Curriculum should be designed by university professors and imposed on schools.
• (B) The school itself should be the centre where curriculum is designed, adapted and developed.
• (C) Curriculum should be identical in every school so that results can be compared.
• (D) Curriculum development should be left entirely to textbook publishers.

Q26. In Skilbeck’s model, what is the proper starting point for curriculum development in a school?

• (A) The national examination timetable
• (B) The availability of imported textbooks
• (C) A careful analysis of the school’s own situation, culture, pupils and community
• (D) The preferences of the most senior teacher

Q27. What degree of freedom does Skilbeck’s model give to schools?

• (A) None: schools must follow the central syllabus word for word.
• (B) Freedom only to choose the colour of the textbook covers
• (C) Freedom only during school holidays
• (D) Real autonomy to shape curriculum to fit local needs, within broad guidelines

Q28. According to Skilbeck, where should curriculum development mainly be located?

• (A) In the school, by its own staff working together
• (B) In the ministry building in the capital city
• (C) In the offices of examination boards
• (D) In foreign universities that export curricula

Q29. Which feature is essential to Skilbeck’s model of school-based development?

• (A) Collaborative work by the school staff, with shared responsibility for the curriculum
• (B) A detailed national syllabus prescribed for every lesson in every subject
• (C) A single textbook adopted by all schools in the district
• (D) Regular external inspection of teachers’ lesson plans

Q30. What is the strongest advantage claimed for school-based curriculum development?

• (A) It ensures the same content is taught in every school in the country.
• (B) It reduces the workload of classroom teachers.
• (C) It makes national examination results easier to compare across schools.
• (D) It makes the curriculum relevant to the particular pupils, community and culture of the school.

Q31. Which practical difficulty is most often raised against Skilbeck’s school-based model?

• (A) It requires schools to buy new textbooks every year.
• (B) It demands considerable teacher time, expertise and leadership, which not every school has.
• (C) It makes the school timetable harder to arrange.
• (D) It increases the number of meetings that parents must attend.

Q32. How does Skilbeck’s model differ from a centrally prescribed curriculum?

• (A) It covers fewer subjects than a centrally prescribed curriculum.
• (B) It is assessed only by teacher judgement rather than by public examinations.
• (C) It is developed from the bottom up in the school rather than handed down from above.
• (D) It changes every term in response to pupils’ feedback.

Q33. In Skilbeck’s model, what shapes the curriculum of a school most strongly?

• (A) The national examination syllabus prescribed for all schools
• (B) The textbooks adopted by neighbouring schools in the same district
• (C) The school’s own values, culture, pupils and local community
• (D) The inspection framework used by visiting inspectors

Q34. A school using Skilbeck’s model decides to build a local-history unit around its own town’s heritage. What does this best illustrate?

• (A) A centrally imposed syllabus being copied exactly
• (B) School-based development responding to the school’s own context
• (C) A commercial textbook company dictating content
• (D) An examination board setting a compulsory question

Q35. What is the organising principle of a subject-centred curriculum design?

• (A) Content is organised around separate academic disciplines such as mathematics, science and history.
• (B) Content is organised around the personal hobbies of individual students.
• (C) Content is organised around whatever topics are in the news that week.
• (D) Content is organised around the availability of classroom equipment.

Q36. What is the strongest argument in favour of subject-centred design?

• (A) It allows pupils to choose their own topics freely.
• (B) It makes learning more enjoyable through pupils’ interests.
• (C) It helps pupils solve real problems in their community.
• (D) It ensures systematic, logically ordered coverage of a body of knowledge.

Q37. What is the most common criticism of subject-centred design?

• (A) It is difficult to arrange on a timetable when subjects overlap.
• (B) It requires teachers to be experts in several subjects at once.
• (C) It makes public examinations harder to design.
• (D) It fragments knowledge into separate subjects and can ignore learners’ interests and real-life connections.

Q38. What is the starting point of a learner-centred curriculum design?

• (A) The list of chapters in the prescribed textbook
• (B) The questions set in last year’s public examination
• (C) The needs, interests, experiences and development of the learners themselves
• (D) The number of periods available in the timetable

Q39. Which of the following is an example of learner-centred design in practice?

• (A) An activity-based unit in which pupils explore, discuss and build understanding from their own experiences
• (B) A fixed lecture course delivered identically to every class in the country
• (C) A syllabus divided strictly into chapters to be memorised in order
• (D) A drill programme in which all pupils repeat the same exercises daily

Q40. In a learner-centred classroom, what is the teacher’s main role?

• (A) The sole authority who lectures while pupils listen silently
• (B) A facilitator and guide who supports pupils as they construct their own understanding
• (C) An examiner who tests pupils every single day
• (D) A clerk who keeps records and takes no part in learning

Q41. In a subject-centred classroom, what is the teacher’s main role?

• (A) To supervise pupils’ free play without any planned content
• (B) To act as a subject expert who presents organised disciplinary knowledge to pupils
• (C) To let pupils decide everything about what is taught
• (D) To avoid teaching any content that might be examined

Q42. What is the most common criticism of learner-centred design?

• (A) It makes it harder for teachers to plan lessons in advance.
• (B) It requires smaller classes in order to work well.
• (C) It makes it difficult to compare pupils’ achievement across schools.
• (D) It may neglect systematic coverage of essential knowledge if pupils’ interests alone drive the curriculum.

Q43. Which educational philosophy is most closely aligned with subject-centred design?

• (A) Perennialism, with its emphasis on enduring subjects and classic knowledge
• (B) Reconstructionism, with its emphasis on solving social problems
• (C) Existentialism, with its emphasis on individual choice alone
• (D) Behaviourism, with its emphasis on stimulus and response only

Q44. Which educational philosophy is most closely aligned with learner-centred design?

• (A) Essentialism, with its emphasis on a fixed core of basic subjects
• (B) Perennialism, with its emphasis on unchanging truths
• (C) Progressivism, with its emphasis on the child’s experience, interests and active learning
• (D) Positivism, with its emphasis on measurement alone

Q45. What is the organising principle of a problem-centred curriculum design?

• (A) Real-life problems, issues and social concerns that learners investigate and try to solve
• (B) The logical structure of academic disciplines
• (C) The developmental stages of individual learners
• (D) The sequence of chapters in the prescribed textbook

Q46. What is the main educational benefit claimed for problem-centred design?

• (A) It ensures all pupils cover the same syllabus in the same order.
• (B) It develops critical thinking, inquiry and problem-solving through work on genuine issues.
• (C) It allows pupils to follow their own interests at their own pace.
• (D) It makes examination results easier to compare between schools.

Q47. Which of the following is an example of problem-centred design?

• (A) A course that follows one textbook chapter by chapter
• (B) A timetable divided into equal periods for each subject
• (C) A drill book of grammar exercises to be completed in order
• (D) A life-situations unit in which pupils study water pollution in their own town and propose solutions

Q48. What does a core curriculum provide for students?

• (A) Only optional subjects that students may or may not choose
• (B) Only vocational training for a single trade
• (C) A common body of learning, subjects and experiences shared by all students
• (D) Only extra-curricular sports and games

Q49. What is the main purpose of a core curriculum in general education?

• (A) To prepare a small elite for university admission only
• (B) To keep students busy until they leave school
• (C) To give all students a shared foundation for citizenship, culture and further learning
• (D) To replace all elective subjects with examinations

Q50. A secondary school requires every pupil to study language, mathematics, science and social studies, while offering electives in art and music. What does the required part represent?

• (A) A hidden curriculum
• (B) A null curriculum
• (C) An extracurricular programme
• (D) The core curriculum of the school

Q51. What is the most common criticism of problem-centred design?

• (A) It makes pupils less interested in school subjects.
• (B) It may leave gaps in systematic subject coverage, since content follows the problem rather than a discipline.
• (C) It requires schools to employ more specialist teachers.
• (D) It makes it harder to set common examinations for all pupils.

Q52. How does a core curriculum differ from an elective programme?

• (A) The core is required learning common to all students, while electives are chosen by individual students.
• (B) The core is assessed by public examinations, while electives are assessed by teachers.
• (C) The core is taught in larger classes, while electives are taught in small groups.
• (D) The core changes every year, while electives stay the same.

Q53. In curriculum organisation, what does “scope” mean?

• (A) The order in which topics are taught across grades
• (B) The connections made between different subjects
• (C) The revisiting of ideas at deeper levels over time
• (D) The breadth and depth of content and learning experiences included in the curriculum

Q54. In curriculum organisation, what does “sequence” mean?

• (A) The range of topics covered in a grade
• (B) The order in which content and learning experiences are arranged so that later learning builds on earlier learning
• (C) The revisiting of key ideas at deeper levels over time
• (D) The links between subjects around a common theme

Q55. Which example best illustrates the principle of continuity?

• (A) Pupils revisit the concept of fractions in each grade, studying it at a deeper level each time.
• (B) Pupils study each topic once and never return to it.
• (C) Pupils choose a completely new subject every week.
• (D) Pupils study topics in random order with no connection between grades.

Q56. Which example best illustrates the principle of integration?

• (A) Teaching each subject in complete isolation from all others
• (B) Testing each subject on a different day of the week
• (C) A thematic unit in which pupils use science, language and mathematics together to study their local environment
• (D) Giving each subject its own separate textbook and classroom

Q57. Which ordering best follows the principle of sequence?

• (A) Teaching algebra before pupils can add and subtract
• (B) Moving from simple to complex, and from known to unknown, ideas
• (C) Teaching the hardest topic first to impress pupils
• (D) Choosing topics by drawing lots at the start of term

Q58. How does continuity differ from sequence in curriculum organisation?

• (A) Continuity is the vertical revisiting and deepening of ideas over time, while sequence is the order in which new material is introduced.
• (B) Continuity is about links between subjects, while sequence is about links between grades.
• (C) Continuity is the order of topics within one lesson, while sequence is the order across years.
• (D) Continuity applies to primary schools, while sequence applies to secondary schools.

Q59. A teacher plans a unit on “Water” in which pupils measure rainfall in mathematics, write a report in language class and study the water cycle in science. Which principle is she mainly applying?

• (A) Keeping subjects strictly separate
• (B) Removing science from the timetable
• (C) Integration, by connecting learning across subjects around a common theme
• (D) Shortening the school day

Q60. What does a scope-and-sequence document for a subject normally show?

• (A) The list of textbooks approved for each grade
• (B) The examination results achieved in each grade
• (C) The timetable showing when each subject is taught each week
• (D) What content is covered and in what order it is taught across grades