IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 8
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1In which state of matter do the particles vibrate about fixed positions in a regular lattice?
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Correct: (B)
In a solid the particles are packed in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions; in liquids and gases the particles can move around.
Q2Which statement about evaporation is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Evaporation occurs at the surface at any temperature; the particles with the most energy escape, which is why evaporation cools the remaining liquid.
Q3A sealed container of gas is heated. Why does the pressure of the gas increase?
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Correct: (A)
Heating gives the particles more kinetic energy, so they hit the container walls harder and more often, increasing the pressure.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,1. What is the proton number of this element?
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Correct: (C)
The number of electrons in a neutral atom equals the proton number: 2 + 8 + 1 = 11 (sodium).
Q5A carbon-14 atom has 6 protons. How many neutrons does it contain?
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Correct: (D)
Neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 14 – 6 = 8.
Q6Which statement about solid sodium chloride is correct?
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Correct: (B)
In solid sodium chloride the ions are locked in the lattice and cannot move, so it does not conduct. On melting, the ions become free to move and carry charge.
Q7Simple covalent substances such as methane have very low boiling points. Why?
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Correct: (C)
Boiling separates the molecules; only the weak intermolecular forces are overcome. The strong covalent bonds inside each molecule stay intact.
Q8Metals conduct electricity because of their structure. Which statement explains this?
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Correct: (A)
In a metal the outer electrons are delocalised, forming a 'sea' of electrons that can move and carry charge through the lattice of positive ions.
Q9Which ion has the electronic configuration 2,8?
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Correct: (D)
Oxygen (2,6) gains two electrons to form O^2- with configuration 2,8. F is 2,7, Na is 2,8,1 and S^2- is 2,8,8.
Q10Why is diamond extremely hard?
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Correct: (B)
In diamond every carbon atom is held by four strong covalent bonds in a rigid giant lattice, so a very large amount of energy is needed to break the structure.
Q11Which substance consists of simple covalent molecules?
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Correct: (C)
Carbon dioxide exists as small separate CO2 molecules. SiO2 is giant covalent, NaCl is ionic and Mg is a metal.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12How many moles are there in 4.4 g of carbon dioxide, CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 4.4 / 44 = 0.1 mol.
Q13What is the volume of 2.0 mol of a gas at r.t.p.? (Molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = moles × 24 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.
Q14A solution is made by dissolving 2.0 mol of a solute in water and making the total volume up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (B)
Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 2.0 / 0.500 = 4.0 mol/dm^3.
Q15What is the percentage by mass of calcium in calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
Mr of CaCO3 = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100. Percentage of Ca = (40 / 100) × 100 = 40%.
Q162.4 g of magnesium reacts completely with excess dilute hydrochloric acid: Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2. What volume of hydrogen is produced at r.t.p.? (Ar of Mg = 24; molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (A)
Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of H2 forms. Volume = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm^3.
Q174.0 g of a copper oxide contains 3.2 g of copper and 0.8 g of oxygen. What is the empirical formula of the oxide? (Ar: Cu = 64, O = 16)
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Correct: (D)
Moles of Cu = 3.2 / 64 = 0.05; moles of O = 0.8 / 16 = 0.05. The ratio Cu : O = 1 : 1, so the formula is CuO.
Q18A 25.0 g sample of limestone contains 20.0 g of calcium carbonate; the rest is impurity. What is the percentage purity of the limestone?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage purity = (20.0 / 25.0) × 100 = 80%.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the positive electrode (anode)?
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Correct: (C)
Chloride ions move to the positive electrode and lose electrons: 2Cl^- – 2e^- → Cl2. Potassium forms at the negative electrode.
Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. What is the product at the negative electrode?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so Cu^2+ ions are discharged in preference to H^+ ions and a layer of copper forms on the cathode. Oxygen forms at the anode.
Q21In electrolysis, which statement is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Cations are attracted to the cathode (negative electrode) and anions to the anode. The current is carried through the electrolyte by moving ions, not electrons.
Q22Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite. What is the purpose of the cryolite?
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Correct: (B)
Cryolite lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte from over 2000°C to about 950°C, saving a large amount of energy.
Q23In a simple chemical cell made from two metal electrodes in an electrolyte, the largest voltage is produced when the two metals are
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Correct: (C)
The voltage of a simple cell depends on the difference in reactivity of the two metals: the further apart they are in the reactivity series, the greater the voltage.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24When ammonium nitrate is dissolved in water, the temperature of the solution decreases. What does this show about the process?
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Correct: (A)
A fall in temperature means energy has been absorbed from the surroundings, so dissolving ammonium nitrate is endothermic (the basis of some cold packs).
Q25Using the bond energies shown, what is the enthalpy change for the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3? Bond energies in kJ/mol: N≡N = 945, H-H = 436, N-H = 391.
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Correct: (D)
Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 945 + (3 × 436) = 2253 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ. ΔH = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol.
Q26A fuel is burned and the energy released heats 200 g of water, raising its temperature by 15°C. How much energy is transferred to the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)
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Correct: (B)
Energy = m × c × ΔT = 200 × 4.2 × 15 = 12 600 J = 12.6 kJ.
Q27What is meant by the activation energy of a reaction?
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Correct: (C)
The activation energy is the minimum energy barrier that particles must overcome in a collision for bonds to break and a reaction to happen.
Q28Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (A)
Plants take in energy from sunlight for photosynthesis, so it is endothermic. Respiration, neutralisation and combustion are all exothermic.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen. Which change decreases the rate of the reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Larger pieces have a smaller surface area, so acid particles collide with the zinc less frequently and the rate falls.
Q30Why does increasing the concentration of a solution increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (B)
With more particles crowded into the same volume, collisions happen more often, so more reactions occur per second.
Q31A reversible reaction in a closed flask reaches dynamic equilibrium. Which statement describes this equilibrium?
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Correct: (C)
At dynamic equilibrium both reactions continue at the same rate, so there is no overall change in the amounts of substances.
Q32What are the conditions used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia?
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Correct: (A)
The Haber process uses about 450°C, about 200 atm pressure and an iron catalyst, a compromise between rate and equilibrium yield.
Q33What is the oxidation number of sulfur in the sulfate ion, SO4^2-?
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Correct: (D)
Let the oxidation number of S be x. x + 4(-2) = -2, so x = +6.
Q34In terms of electrons, oxidation is
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Correct: (B)
Oxidation is loss of electrons (and reduction is gain of electrons). It can happen with or without oxygen being involved.
Q35The Haber process reaction is exothermic in the forward direction: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. If the temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased, the equilibrium yield of ammonia
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Correct: (C)
Raising the temperature favours the endothermic direction, which is the reverse reaction here, so the equilibrium shifts to the left and less ammonia is present.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Dilute acids effervesce (fizz) when added to which type of compound?
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Correct: (A)
Acids react with carbonates to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide, which causes the effervescence.
Q37Which pH value could be that of a weak aqueous alkali?
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Correct: (D)
A pH above 7 shows an alkali; a weak alkali such as aqueous ammonia has a pH of about 9-10, lower than a strong alkali of the same concentration.
Q38Which oxide is a basic oxide?
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Correct: (B)
Calcium oxide is a metal oxide that reacts with acids, so it is basic. The others are non-metal oxides and are acidic.
Q39Which salt can be prepared by the precipitation method?
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Correct: (C)
Precipitation is used for insoluble salts: barium sulfate is insoluble, so solutions of a barium salt and a sulfate are mixed and the solid barium sulfate is filtered off. The other salts are soluble.
Q40Which reagent is used, after adding dilute nitric acid, to test for chloride ions in a solution?
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Correct: (A)
Ag^+ ions form white insoluble silver chloride with Cl^- ions. The nitric acid is added first to remove carbonate ions that would also precipitate.
Q41Zinc oxide powder is added to warm dilute sulfuric acid until no more reacts. The salt formed is
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Correct: (D)
A metal oxide reacts with an acid to give a salt and water; with sulfuric acid the salt is a sulfate: ZnO + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2O.
Q42Acidic soil in a field can be treated to raise its pH by adding
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Correct: (B)
Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is an alkali that neutralises the excess acid in the soil. The other substances are neutral or acidic fertiliser salts.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43An atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,2. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?
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Correct: (C)
The number of electrons in the outer shell (2) gives the group number, so the element (magnesium) is in Group II. It is in Period 3 because it has three shells.
Q44Which reaction occurs because the halogen higher in Group VII displaces the one below it?
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Correct: (A)
Bromine is above iodine in the group and is more reactive, so it displaces iodine from potassium iodide. Iodine cannot displace bromine or chlorine, and bromine cannot displace chlorine.
Q45Which statement about the Group I metals is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Group I metals are soft, have low densities and low melting points, and become more reactive down the group because their outer electron is lost more easily.
Q46Why are the noble gases (Group VIII) very unreactive?
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Correct: (B)
Noble gas atoms already have a full outer electron shell (or a complete duplet for helium), so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which metal does NOT react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (C)
Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids. Zinc, iron and magnesium all react, magnesium most vigorously.
Q48Which metal is extracted from its ore by electrolysis of the molten compound?
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Correct: (A)
Aluminium is a reactive metal high in the reactivity series, so it is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide. Iron is extracted by reduction in a blast furnace; copper and lead by reduction/roasting of their ores.
Q49In an experiment, three identical iron nails are placed in separate test tubes: one in dry air, one in boiled distilled water covered with oil, and one in ordinary tap water open to the air. Only the nail in the tap water rusts. This shows that rusting needs
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Correct: (D)
The nail in dry air has oxygen but no water, and the nail in boiled water has water but almost no dissolved air; neither rusts. Rusting requires oxygen and water together.
Q50Bronze is an alloy made from
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Correct: (B)
Bronze is copper alloyed with tin. (Brass is copper and zinc; steel is iron and carbon.)
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Which statement about the treatment of water for drinking is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Water is filtered to remove solids and then treated with chlorine, which kills bacteria and other microorganisms. Sedimentation just allows solids to settle.
Q52Which gas is a toxic air pollutant formed by the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels?
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Correct: (A)
When fuels burn in a limited supply of air (e.g. in car engines), carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas, is formed instead of carbon dioxide.
Q53Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
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Correct: (D)
Green plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis, removing it from the air. Combustion, respiration and decay all release carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What are the products of the complete combustion of methane?
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Correct: (B)
With a plentiful supply of oxygen, methane burns completely: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.
Q55Which statement about alkenes is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes are unsaturated (general formula CnH2n) with a carbon-carbon double bond that undergoes addition reactions, e.g. decolourising bromine water.
Q56Ethene is converted into ethanol on an industrial scale by reacting it with
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Correct: (A)
Ethene + steam → ethanol at about 300°C and 60 atm pressure with a concentrated phosphoric acid catalyst. (Hydrogen and nickel convert ethene to ethane; yeast is used in fermentation, not with ethene.)
Q57Which is a disadvantage of synthetic addition polymers such as poly(ethene)?
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Correct: (D)
Addition polymers have very unreactive long chains, so they do not break down in the environment and create long-lasting waste.
Q58Ethanoic acid is described as a weak acid. This is because in aqueous solution it
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Correct: (B)
A weak acid is only partly ionised (dissociated) in water, unlike a strong acid such as hydrochloric acid, which is fully ionised. Ethanoic acid still reacts normally with bases, alkalis and carbonates.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59In a paper chromatography experiment, a food colouring produces only one spot on the chromatogram. What does this show?
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Correct: (C)
A pure substance gives a single spot on a chromatogram, while a mixture separates into two or more spots.
Q60Which test identifies oxygen gas?
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Correct: (A)
Oxygen relights a glowing splint. (Limewater detects carbon dioxide, the pop test detects hydrogen, and bleaching of litmus indicates chlorine.)
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