IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 8

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1In which state of matter do the particles vibrate about fixed positions in a regular lattice?

(A) gas
(B) solid
(C) liquid
(D) solution
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a solid the particles are packed in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions; in liquids and gases the particles can move around.

Q2Which statement about evaporation is correct?

(A) It happens only at the boiling point of the liquid
(B) It happens throughout the whole liquid
(C) The particles left behind in the liquid have more energy than those that escape
(D) It happens at the surface of the liquid at any temperature, when the most energetic particles escape
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Evaporation occurs at the surface at any temperature; the particles with the most energy escape, which is why evaporation cools the remaining liquid.

Q3A sealed container of gas is heated. Why does the pressure of the gas increase?

(A) The particles move faster and collide with the walls more frequently and with greater force
(B) The particles become larger
(C) The particles attract each other more strongly
(D) Some of the particles condense into a liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Heating gives the particles more kinetic energy, so they hit the container walls harder and more often, increasing the pressure.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,1. What is the proton number of this element?

(A) 3
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 19
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The number of electrons in a neutral atom equals the proton number: 2 + 8 + 1 = 11 (sodium).

Q5A carbon-14 atom has 6 protons. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 6
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 8
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 14 – 6 = 8.

Q6Which statement about solid sodium chloride is correct?

(A) It has a low melting point
(B) It conducts electricity when molten because its ions are free to move
(C) It conducts electricity in the solid state
(D) Its ions are free to move in the solid state
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In solid sodium chloride the ions are locked in the lattice and cannot move, so it does not conduct. On melting, the ions become free to move and carry charge.

Q7Simple covalent substances such as methane have very low boiling points. Why?

(A) The covalent bonds inside their molecules are very weak
(B) The ionic bonds between their molecules are weak
(C) Only weak forces between the molecules need to be overcome
(D) There are no forces at all between their molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Boiling separates the molecules; only the weak intermolecular forces are overcome. The strong covalent bonds inside each molecule stay intact.

Q8Metals conduct electricity because of their structure. Which statement explains this?

(A) The electrons are delocalised and free to move through the structure
(B) The positive ions are free to move through the structure
(C) The protons move from atom to atom
(D) The atoms themselves slide through the structure
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a metal the outer electrons are delocalised, forming a 'sea' of electrons that can move and carry charge through the lattice of positive ions.

Q9Which ion has the electronic configuration 2,8?

(A) a fluorine atom, F
(B) a sodium atom, Na
(C) a sulfide ion, S^2-
(D) an oxide ion, O^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxygen (2,6) gains two electrons to form O^2- with configuration 2,8. F is 2,7, Na is 2,8,1 and S^2- is 2,8,8.

Q10Why is diamond extremely hard?

(A) It has weak forces between layers of atoms
(B) Each carbon atom is joined by strong covalent bonds to four other carbon atoms in a giant structure
(C) Its layers of atoms can slide over each other
(D) It contains positive and negative ions that attract strongly
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In diamond every carbon atom is held by four strong covalent bonds in a rigid giant lattice, so a very large amount of energy is needed to break the structure.

Q11Which substance consists of simple covalent molecules?

(A) silicon dioxide, SiO2
(B) sodium chloride, NaCl
(C) carbon dioxide, CO2
(D) magnesium, Mg
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon dioxide exists as small separate CO2 molecules. SiO2 is giant covalent, NaCl is ionic and Mg is a metal.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 4.4 g of carbon dioxide, CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44)

(A) 0.1 mol
(B) 1.0 mol
(C) 10 mol
(D) 0.01 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 4.4 / 44 = 0.1 mol.

Q13What is the volume of 2.0 mol of a gas at r.t.p.? (Molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 36 dm^3
(D) 48 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = moles × 24 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q14A solution is made by dissolving 2.0 mol of a solute in water and making the total volume up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(B) 4.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.25 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 2.0 / 0.500 = 4.0 mol/dm^3.

Q15What is the percentage by mass of calcium in calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 12%
(B) 20%
(C) 40%
(D) 48%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr of CaCO3 = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100. Percentage of Ca = (40 / 100) × 100 = 40%.

Q162.4 g of magnesium reacts completely with excess dilute hydrochloric acid: Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2. What volume of hydrogen is produced at r.t.p.? (Ar of Mg = 24; molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 2.4 dm^3
(B) 4.8 dm^3
(C) 1.2 dm^3
(D) 24 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of H2 forms. Volume = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm^3.

Q174.0 g of a copper oxide contains 3.2 g of copper and 0.8 g of oxygen. What is the empirical formula of the oxide? (Ar: Cu = 64, O = 16)

(A) Cu2O
(B) CuO2
(C) Cu2O3
(D) CuO
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of Cu = 3.2 / 64 = 0.05; moles of O = 0.8 / 16 = 0.05. The ratio Cu : O = 1 : 1, so the formula is CuO.

Q18A 25.0 g sample of limestone contains 20.0 g of calcium carbonate; the rest is impurity. What is the percentage purity of the limestone?

(A) 20%
(B) 80%
(C) 125%
(D) 8%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage purity = (20.0 / 25.0) × 100 = 80%.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the positive electrode (anode)?

(A) potassium
(B) hydrogen
(C) chlorine
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chloride ions move to the positive electrode and lose electrons: 2Cl^- – 2e^- → Cl2. Potassium forms at the negative electrode.

Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. What is the product at the negative electrode?

(A) copper
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so Cu^2+ ions are discharged in preference to H^+ ions and a layer of copper forms on the cathode. Oxygen forms at the anode.

Q21In electrolysis, which statement is correct?

(A) Positive ions (cations) move to the positive electrode
(B) Negative ions (anions) move to the negative electrode
(C) Electrons flow through the electrolyte
(D) Positive ions (cations) move to the negative electrode (cathode)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cations are attracted to the cathode (negative electrode) and anions to the anode. The current is carried through the electrolyte by moving ions, not electrons.

Q22Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite. What is the purpose of the cryolite?

(A) It acts as a fuel
(B) It lowers the melting temperature of the electrolyte mixture
(C) It is used to make the electrodes
(D) It produces the oxygen formed in the process
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cryolite lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte from over 2000°C to about 950°C, saving a large amount of energy.

Q23In a simple chemical cell made from two metal electrodes in an electrolyte, the largest voltage is produced when the two metals are

(A) the same metal
(B) close together in the reactivity series
(C) far apart in the reactivity series
(D) both unreactive, such as copper and silver
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The voltage of a simple cell depends on the difference in reactivity of the two metals: the further apart they are in the reactivity series, the greater the voltage.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24When ammonium nitrate is dissolved in water, the temperature of the solution decreases. What does this show about the process?

(A) It is endothermic, taking in energy from the surroundings
(B) It is exothermic, giving out energy to the surroundings
(C) There is no energy change
(D) It is a combustion reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A fall in temperature means energy has been absorbed from the surroundings, so dissolving ammonium nitrate is endothermic (the basis of some cold packs).

Q25Using the bond energies shown, what is the enthalpy change for the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3? Bond energies in kJ/mol: N≡N = 945, H-H = 436, N-H = 391.

(A) +93 kJ/mol
(B) -2253 kJ/mol
(C) +2346 kJ/mol
(D) -93 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 945 + (3 × 436) = 2253 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ. ΔH = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol.

Q26A fuel is burned and the energy released heats 200 g of water, raising its temperature by 15°C. How much energy is transferred to the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)

(A) 1.26 kJ
(B) 12.6 kJ
(C) 126 kJ
(D) 0.126 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy = m × c × ΔT = 200 × 4.2 × 15 = 12 600 J = 12.6 kJ.

Q27What is meant by the activation energy of a reaction?

(A) The total energy released by the reaction
(B) The energy stored in the products
(C) The minimum energy that colliding particles must have for a reaction to occur
(D) The energy needed to melt the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The activation energy is the minimum energy barrier that particles must overcome in a collision for bonds to break and a reaction to happen.

Q28Which process is endothermic?

(A) photosynthesis
(B) respiration
(C) neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(D) burning coal
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Plants take in energy from sunlight for photosynthesis, so it is endothermic. Respiration, neutralisation and combustion are all exothermic.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen. Which change decreases the rate of the reaction?

(A) Using powdered zinc instead of zinc lumps
(B) Warming the acid
(C) Using a more concentrated acid
(D) Using larger pieces of zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Larger pieces have a smaller surface area, so acid particles collide with the zinc less frequently and the rate falls.

Q30Why does increasing the concentration of a solution increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) The particles move faster
(B) There are more particles in the same volume, so collisions between reactant particles are more frequent
(C) The activation energy increases
(D) The particles become larger
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With more particles crowded into the same volume, collisions happen more often, so more reactions occur per second.

Q31A reversible reaction in a closed flask reaches dynamic equilibrium. Which statement describes this equilibrium?

(A) The forward reaction has stopped
(B) Only the forward reaction continues
(C) The forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates, so the concentrations stay constant
(D) The amounts of reactants and products keep changing
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At dynamic equilibrium both reactions continue at the same rate, so there is no overall change in the amounts of substances.

Q32What are the conditions used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia?

(A) Temperature about 450°C, pressure about 200 atmospheres, iron catalyst
(B) Temperature about 25°C, pressure of 1 atmosphere, no catalyst
(C) Temperature about 850°C, nickel catalyst
(D) Temperature about 100°C, pressure of 1000 atmospheres, platinum catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The Haber process uses about 450°C, about 200 atm pressure and an iron catalyst, a compromise between rate and equilibrium yield.

Q33What is the oxidation number of sulfur in the sulfate ion, SO4^2-?

(A) +2
(B) +4
(C) -2
(D) +6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Let the oxidation number of S be x. x + 4(-2) = -2, so x = +6.

Q34In terms of electrons, oxidation is

(A) the gain of electrons
(B) the loss of electrons
(C) the gain of oxygen atoms only
(D) the loss of hydrogen atoms only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxidation is loss of electrons (and reduction is gain of electrons). It can happen with or without oxygen being involved.

Q35The Haber process reaction is exothermic in the forward direction: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. If the temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased, the equilibrium yield of ammonia

(A) increases
(B) stays exactly the same
(C) decreases
(D) becomes 100%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Raising the temperature favours the endothermic direction, which is the reverse reaction here, so the equilibrium shifts to the left and less ammonia is present.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Dilute acids effervesce (fizz) when added to which type of compound?

(A) carbonates, producing carbon dioxide gas
(B) alkalis only
(C) chlorides, producing chlorine gas
(D) unreactive metals such as copper
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Acids react with carbonates to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide, which causes the effervescence.

Q37Which pH value could be that of a weak aqueous alkali?

(A) pH 1
(B) pH 3
(C) pH 7
(D) pH 9
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A pH above 7 shows an alkali; a weak alkali such as aqueous ammonia has a pH of about 9-10, lower than a strong alkali of the same concentration.

Q38Which oxide is a basic oxide?

(A) sulfur dioxide, SO2
(B) calcium oxide, CaO
(C) carbon dioxide, CO2
(D) nitrogen dioxide, NO2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Calcium oxide is a metal oxide that reacts with acids, so it is basic. The others are non-metal oxides and are acidic.

Q39Which salt can be prepared by the precipitation method?

(A) ammonium chloride
(B) potassium sulfate
(C) barium sulfate
(D) sodium nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Precipitation is used for insoluble salts: barium sulfate is insoluble, so solutions of a barium salt and a sulfate are mixed and the solid barium sulfate is filtered off. The other salts are soluble.

Q40Which reagent is used, after adding dilute nitric acid, to test for chloride ions in a solution?

(A) aqueous silver nitrate, giving a white precipitate
(B) aqueous barium chloride, giving a white precipitate
(C) limewater, which turns cloudy
(D) aqueous sodium hydroxide, giving a white precipitate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ag^+ ions form white insoluble silver chloride with Cl^- ions. The nitric acid is added first to remove carbonate ions that would also precipitate.

Q41Zinc oxide powder is added to warm dilute sulfuric acid until no more reacts. The salt formed is

(A) zinc chloride
(B) zinc nitrate
(C) zinc carbonate
(D) zinc sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A metal oxide reacts with an acid to give a salt and water; with sulfuric acid the salt is a sulfate: ZnO + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2O.

Q42Acidic soil in a field can be treated to raise its pH by adding

(A) ammonium sulfate
(B) calcium hydroxide (lime)
(C) sodium chloride
(D) potassium nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is an alkali that neutralises the excess acid in the soil. The other substances are neutral or acidic fertiliser salts.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43An atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,2. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?

(A) Group I
(B) Group VIII
(C) Group II
(D) Group III
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The number of electrons in the outer shell (2) gives the group number, so the element (magnesium) is in Group II. It is in Period 3 because it has three shells.

Q44Which reaction occurs because the halogen higher in Group VII displaces the one below it?

(A) Br2 + 2KI → 2KBr + I2
(B) I2 + 2KBr → 2KI + Br2
(C) Br2 + 2KCl → 2KBr + Cl2
(D) I2 + 2KCl → 2KI + Cl2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bromine is above iodine in the group and is more reactive, so it displaces iodine from potassium iodide. Iodine cannot displace bromine or chlorine, and bromine cannot displace chlorine.

Q45Which statement about the Group I metals is correct?

(A) They are hard metals that cannot be cut
(B) Their reactivity decreases going down the group
(C) They form coloured compounds
(D) They are soft metals that can be cut with a knife
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Group I metals are soft, have low densities and low melting points, and become more reactive down the group because their outer electron is lost more easily.

Q46Why are the noble gases (Group VIII) very unreactive?

(A) They are all metals
(B) Their atoms have a complete outer shell of electrons
(C) They exist as diatomic molecules
(D) They have very low boiling points
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Noble gas atoms already have a full outer electron shell (or a complete duplet for helium), so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal does NOT react with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) zinc
(B) iron
(C) copper
(D) magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids. Zinc, iron and magnesium all react, magnesium most vigorously.

Q48Which metal is extracted from its ore by electrolysis of the molten compound?

(A) aluminium
(B) iron
(C) copper
(D) lead
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Aluminium is a reactive metal high in the reactivity series, so it is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide. Iron is extracted by reduction in a blast furnace; copper and lead by reduction/roasting of their ores.

Q49In an experiment, three identical iron nails are placed in separate test tubes: one in dry air, one in boiled distilled water covered with oil, and one in ordinary tap water open to the air. Only the nail in the tap water rusts. This shows that rusting needs

(A) oxygen and carbon dioxide
(B) water and nitrogen
(C) heat and water
(D) both air (oxygen) and water together
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The nail in dry air has oxygen but no water, and the nail in boiled water has water but almost no dissolved air; neither rusts. Rusting requires oxygen and water together.

Q50Bronze is an alloy made from

(A) copper and zinc
(B) copper and tin
(C) iron and carbon
(D) aluminium and copper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bronze is copper alloyed with tin. (Brass is copper and zinc; steel is iron and carbon.)

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Which statement about the treatment of water for drinking is correct?

(A) Chlorine is added to remove solid impurities from the water
(B) Filtration kills the microorganisms in the water
(C) Chlorination kills microorganisms, making the water safe to drink
(D) Sedimentation sterilises the water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Water is filtered to remove solids and then treated with chlorine, which kills bacteria and other microorganisms. Sedimentation just allows solids to settle.

Q52Which gas is a toxic air pollutant formed by the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels?

(A) carbon monoxide, CO
(B) nitrogen, N2
(C) oxygen, O2
(D) argon, Ar
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

When fuels burn in a limited supply of air (e.g. in car engines), carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas, is formed instead of carbon dioxide.

Q53Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

(A) the combustion of fossil fuels
(B) respiration
(C) the decay of dead organisms
(D) photosynthesis
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Green plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis, removing it from the air. Combustion, respiration and decay all release carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What are the products of the complete combustion of methane?

(A) carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(B) carbon dioxide and water
(C) carbon and water
(D) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With a plentiful supply of oxygen, methane burns completely: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.

Q55Which statement about alkenes is correct?

(A) Their general formula is CnH2n+2
(B) They are saturated hydrocarbons
(C) They contain a C=C double bond and decolourise aqueous bromine
(D) They can be identified because they turn limewater cloudy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes are unsaturated (general formula CnH2n) with a carbon-carbon double bond that undergoes addition reactions, e.g. decolourising bromine water.

Q56Ethene is converted into ethanol on an industrial scale by reacting it with

(A) steam, using a phosphoric acid catalyst
(B) hydrogen, using a nickel catalyst
(C) aqueous bromine
(D) yeast enzymes
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ethene + steam → ethanol at about 300°C and 60 atm pressure with a concentrated phosphoric acid catalyst. (Hydrogen and nickel convert ethene to ethane; yeast is used in fermentation, not with ethene.)

Q57Which is a disadvantage of synthetic addition polymers such as poly(ethene)?

(A) They are biodegradable and rot away too quickly
(B) They can be melted and used to line drinking water pipes
(C) They dissolve readily in rainwater
(D) They are not biodegradable, so they cause problems when disposed of in landfill
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Addition polymers have very unreactive long chains, so they do not break down in the environment and create long-lasting waste.

Q58Ethanoic acid is described as a weak acid. This is because in aqueous solution it

(A) is insoluble
(B) is only partially ionised into ions
(C) contains no hydrogen ions at all
(D) does not react with alkalis
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A weak acid is only partly ionised (dissociated) in water, unlike a strong acid such as hydrochloric acid, which is fully ionised. Ethanoic acid still reacts normally with bases, alkalis and carbonates.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59In a paper chromatography experiment, a food colouring produces only one spot on the chromatogram. What does this show?

(A) The food colouring is a mixture of dyes
(B) The food colouring is insoluble in the solvent
(C) The food colouring is a pure substance (a single dye)
(D) The food colouring is an element
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A pure substance gives a single spot on a chromatogram, while a mixture separates into two or more spots.

Q60Which test identifies oxygen gas?

(A) A glowing splint is put into the gas and it relights
(B) Limewater turns cloudy when the gas is bubbled through it
(C) A lighted splint gives a squeaky pop
(D) Damp litmus paper is bleached
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Oxygen relights a glowing splint. (Limewater detects carbon dioxide, the pop test detects hydrogen, and bleaching of litmus indicates chlorine.)