IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 7

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which change of state happens when a liquid loses energy and its particles form a regular arrangement?

(A) boiling
(B) melting
(C) freezing
(D) evaporation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

When a liquid freezes it loses energy, the particles move more slowly and lock into a regular arrangement (a lattice).

Q2A drop of blue ink is added to a beaker of still water. After some time the colour is uniform throughout the water. Which process is this, and why does it occur?

(A) Diffusion, because particles move randomly from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
(B) Condensation, because the particles lose energy
(C) Evaporation, because particles escape from the surface of the liquid
(D) Sublimation, because particles change directly from a solid to a gas
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ink particles spread through the water by diffusion, moving randomly down the concentration gradient until evenly spread.

Q3A gas in a sealed syringe is compressed at constant temperature. Why does the pressure of the gas increase?

(A) The particles become larger
(B) The particles collide with the walls of the syringe more frequently
(C) The particles move faster
(D) The number of particles in the syringe increases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The same number of particles occupies a smaller volume, so they hit the walls more often, increasing the pressure. Their speed is unchanged because the temperature is constant.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of sodium contains 11 protons, 12 neutrons and 11 electrons. What is the nucleon number (mass number) of this atom?

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 22
(D) 23
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Nucleon number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.

Q5Which statement about the isotopes of an element is correct?

(A) They have different numbers of protons
(B) They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of electrons
(C) They have the same number of neutrons
(D) They have the same nucleon number
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Isotopes have the same proton (and electron) number but different numbers of neutrons, so their chemistry, which depends on electrons, is the same.

Q6What is the electronic configuration of a chlorine atom? (Proton number of chlorine = 17)

(A) 2,7,8
(B) 2,8,8
(C) 2,8,7
(D) 8,8,1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

17 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 7 in the third: 2,8,7.

Q7A sample of chlorine contains 75% of chlorine-35 and 25% of chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine in this sample?

(A) 35.5
(B) 35.0
(C) 36.0
(D) 36.5
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ar = (0.75 × 35) + (0.25 × 37) = 26.25 + 9.25 = 35.5.

Q8Which substance has a giant covalent structure?

(A) copper
(B) iodine
(C) sodium chloride
(D) diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In diamond every carbon atom is covalently bonded to four others in one giant lattice. Copper is metallic, iodine is simple molecular and sodium chloride is ionic.

Q9What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium ion, Mg^2+? (Proton number of magnesium = 12)

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,8,2
(C) 2,8,4
(D) 2,6,2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A magnesium atom (2,8,2) loses its two outer electrons to form Mg^2+, leaving 2,8.

Q10Which compound contains ionic bonding?

(A) carbon dioxide, CO2
(B) methane, CH4
(C) magnesium oxide, MgO
(D) ammonia, NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

MgO is formed by electron transfer from a metal (magnesium) to a non-metal (oxygen), giving Mg^2+ and O^2- ions. The others are covalent.

Q11Graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not. Why?

(A) Graphite is an ionic compound but diamond is covalent
(B) Graphite has delocalised electrons between its layers, while in diamond all the outer electrons are used in covalent bonds
(C) Diamond has delocalised electrons but graphite does not
(D) Graphite contains free metal ions
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The delocalised electrons in graphite can move along the layers and carry charge; diamond has no free electrons or ions.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.05 mol
(B) 2.0 mol
(C) 128 mol
(D) 0.5 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q13What is the volume of 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide gas at r.t.p.? (Molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3)

(A) 6 dm^3
(B) 12 dm^3
(C) 24 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

Q145.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water and the solution made up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.02 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.20 mol/dm^3
(D) 2.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of NaCl = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol. Concentration = 0.10 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.

Q15A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)

(A) C2H4O2
(B) CH2O
(C) CHO2
(D) C6H12O6
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles: C = 40.0/12 = 3.33, H = 6.7/1 = 6.7, O = 53.3/16 = 3.33. Ratio 3.33 : 6.7 : 3.33 = 1 : 2 : 1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.

Q16Excess dilute hydrochloric acid is added to 10.0 g of calcium carbonate. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2. What volume of carbon dioxide is produced at r.t.p.? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100; molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 0.24 dm^3
(B) 1.2 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 2.4 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of CaCO3 = 10.0 / 100 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of CO2 forms. Volume = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm^3.

Q17In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 40 g but only 30 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 75%
(B) 25%
(C) 33%
(D) 133%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100 = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.

Q18A compound has empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 56. What is its molecular formula? (Mr of CH2 = 14)

(A) C2H4
(B) C3H6
(C) C4H8
(D) C5H10
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

56 / 14 = 4, so the molecular formula is 4 × CH2 = C4H8.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) chlorine
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) sodium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At the cathode, hydrogen ions are discharged in preference to sodium ions because sodium is high in the reactivity series, so hydrogen gas forms.

Q20Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed. What happens at the negative electrode?

(A) Bromide ions are reduced to bromine
(B) Lead(II) ions lose electrons
(C) Bromine is formed
(D) Lead(II) ions gain electrons and are reduced to lead
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Pb^2+ + 2e^- → Pb. The positive lead ions move to the negative electrode and gain electrons.

Q21Which material is used for inert electrodes in electrolysis?

(A) graphite
(B) copper
(C) iron
(D) zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Graphite (and platinum) are inert and do not react with the electrolyte or the products, unlike reactive metals such as copper, iron or zinc.

Q22Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. 60 cm^3 of hydrogen is collected at the cathode. What volume of oxygen is collected at the anode?

(A) 10 cm^3
(B) 60 cm^3
(C) 30 cm^3
(D) 120 cm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Water decomposes as 2H2O → 2H2 + O2, so hydrogen and oxygen are produced in a 2 : 1 volume ratio. Oxygen = 60 / 2 = 30 cm^3.

Q23A metal spoon is electroplated with silver. Which arrangement is correct?

(A) The spoon is the positive electrode in aqueous silver nitrate
(B) The spoon is the negative electrode in aqueous silver nitrate
(C) The spoon is the negative electrode in aqueous copper(II) sulfate
(D) The spoon is the positive electrode in aqueous copper(II) sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The object to be plated must be the cathode (negative electrode) so that Ag^+ ions are attracted to it and form a layer of silver; the electrolyte must contain silver ions.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which process is exothermic?

(A) photosynthesis
(B) the melting of ice
(C) the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(D) the combustion of methane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Combustion releases energy to the surroundings, so it is exothermic. The other three take in energy and are endothermic.

Q25Using the bond energies shown, what is the enthalpy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl? Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431.

(A) -184 kJ/mol
(B) +184 kJ/mol
(C) -92 kJ/mol
(D) +92 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q26A reaction in a beaker warms 100 g of water by 4.0°C. How much energy is transferred to the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)

(A) 0.168 kJ
(B) 16.8 kJ
(C) 1.68 kJ
(D) 168 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy = m × c × ΔT = 100 × 4.2 × 4.0 = 1680 J = 1.68 kJ.

Q27Which statement about an endothermic reaction is correct?

(A) Its enthalpy change, ΔH, is negative
(B) More energy is absorbed in breaking bonds than is released when new bonds form
(C) The temperature of the surroundings increases during the reaction
(D) It has no activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In an endothermic reaction bond breaking takes in more energy than bond making releases, so ΔH is positive and the surroundings cool down.

Q28What is the overall equation for the reaction in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?

(A) H2 + O2 → H2O2
(B) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
(C) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(D) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In the fuel cell hydrogen is oxidised and the only product is water: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid. Which change will increase the rate of this reaction?

(A) using a more concentrated acid
(B) using larger marble chips
(C) cooling the reaction mixture
(D) adding more water to the acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A more concentrated acid has more particles in the same volume, so collisions between particles are more frequent and the rate increases.

Q30Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction. Which statement explains this?

(A) The activation energy of the reaction decreases
(B) The reactant particles become larger
(C) A greater proportion of the colliding particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy
(D) The particles collide less frequently
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At a higher temperature particles move faster, collide more often, and, most importantly, more of the collisions have enough energy (the activation energy) to react.

Q31What does a catalyst do in a chemical reaction?

(A) It increases the yield of product at equilibrium
(B) It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) It is used up during the reaction
(D) It increases the energy of the products
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst speeds up the reaction by lowering the activation energy and is chemically unchanged at the end; it does not change the yield or the product energies.

Q32Blue hydrated copper(II) sulfate crystals are heated strongly until no further change occurs. What is observed?

(A) They stay blue
(B) They turn pink
(C) They turn green
(D) They turn white
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Heating drives off the water of crystallisation, leaving white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. The change is reversible when water is added again.

Q33Ammonia is made in the Haber process: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the equilibrium yield of ammonia when the pressure is increased?

(A) It increases
(B) It decreases
(C) It stays the same
(D) The reaction stops
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

There are 4 moles of gas on the left and only 2 moles on the right, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules, giving more ammonia.

Q34Zinc reacts with aqueous copper(II) sulfate: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. Which species is oxidised?

(A) copper, Cu
(B) copper ions, Cu^2+
(C) zinc, Zn
(D) zinc ions, Zn^2+
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc atoms lose electrons to form Zn^2+ ions. Loss of electrons is oxidation, so zinc is oxidised (and is the reducing agent).

Q35Which reaction is a redox reaction?

(A) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(B) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
(C) CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
(D) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Magnesium is oxidised (0 to +2) and hydrogen is reduced (+1 to 0), so electrons are transferred. The others are neutralisation, acid-carbonate and precipitation reactions with no oxidation number changes.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36A solution has a pH of 2. What does this show about the solution?

(A) It is a weak acid
(B) It is a weak alkali
(C) It is a strong alkali
(D) It is a strong acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A pH of 2 is well below 7, showing a high concentration of H^+ ions that only a strong (fully ionised) acid gives at this concentration.

Q37Which oxide is acidic?

(A) SO2
(B) CaO
(C) MgO
(D) Na2O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and reacts with water and alkalis as an acid. Calcium, magnesium and sodium oxides are basic metal oxides.

Q38How are pure crystals of copper(II) sulfate prepared from copper(II) oxide and dilute sulfuric acid?

(A) Mix two solutions, filter off the precipitate formed and dry it
(B) Add an indicator and titrate the acid against the oxide
(C) Add excess copper(II) oxide to warm acid, filter off the excess, then evaporate the filtrate until crystals form on cooling
(D) Electrolyse the mixture and collect the crystals at the cathode
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Copper(II) oxide is insoluble, so the excess-insoluble method is used: react, filter off unreacted oxide, then crystallise the copper(II) sulfate from the filtrate.

Q39Which test identifies the sulfate ion, SO4^2-, in a solution?

(A) Add aqueous silver nitrate; a white precipitate forms
(B) Add dilute hydrochloric acid followed by aqueous barium chloride; a white precipitate forms
(C) Add limewater; it turns cloudy
(D) Warm with sodium hydroxide solution; ammonia gas is given off
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ba^2+ ions form insoluble white barium sulfate. The solution is acidified first to remove carbonate ions, which would also give a white precipitate with barium ions.

Q40Which oxide is amphoteric, reacting with both acids and alkalis?

(A) calcium oxide, CaO
(B) sodium oxide, Na2O
(C) carbon dioxide, CO2
(D) aluminium oxide, Al2O3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium oxide (and zinc oxide) are amphoteric: they react with both strong acids and strong alkalis. CaO and Na2O are basic; CO2 is acidic.

Q41What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation of an acid by an alkali?

(A) H^+(aq) + OH^-(aq) → H2O(l)
(B) Na^+(aq) + Cl^-(aq) → NaCl(s)
(C) H^+(aq) + Cl^-(aq) → HCl(aq)
(D) 2H^+(aq) + CO3^2-(aq) → H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In every acid-alkali neutralisation the hydrogen ions from the acid react with the hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water; the other ions are spectators.

Q42Ammonium sulfate fertiliser is made by reacting aqueous ammonia with dilute sulfuric acid. Which method gives a pure sample of the salt solution ready for crystallisation?

(A) precipitation
(B) filtration
(C) titration
(D) electrolysis
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Both reactants are solutions, so the volumes are measured by titration (first with an indicator to find the volumes, then repeated without indicator) to give a pure salt solution.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43How does the reactivity of the Group I metals change going down the group?

(A) It decreases
(B) It increases
(C) It stays the same
(D) It increases and then decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Going down Group I the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily and the metals become more reactive (Li < Na < K).

Q44Chlorine gas is bubbled into aqueous potassium iodide. What is observed?

(A) No change
(B) The solution turns from colourless to green
(C) The solution turns from brown to colourless
(D) The solution turns from colourless to brown
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine is more reactive than iodine and displaces it: Cl2 + 2KI → 2KCl + I2. The iodine formed colours the solution brown.

Q45Which is NOT a typical property of transition elements?

(A) They have low melting points
(B) They form coloured compounds
(C) They act as catalysts
(D) They have variable oxidation states
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Transition elements have high melting points and densities, form coloured compounds, show variable oxidation numbers and are often used as catalysts.

Q46Which trend is correct going down Group VII (the halogens)?

(A) Reactivity increases
(B) The colour of the elements becomes paler
(C) The melting points increase
(D) The atoms become smaller
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Going down Group VII the molecules get larger, the forces between them get stronger, and melting and boiling points increase, while reactivity decreases and the colour deepens.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal reacts vigorously with cold water?

(A) copper
(B) sodium
(C) iron
(D) zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sodium (like potassium and calcium) reacts vigorously with cold water. Iron and zinc react with steam, and copper does not react with water at all.

Q48Limestone is added to the blast furnace during the extraction of iron. What is its purpose?

(A) It acts as a fuel
(B) It reduces the iron(III) oxide
(C) It supplies oxygen for combustion
(D) It reacts with impurities to form slag
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Limestone decomposes to calcium oxide, which reacts with sandy impurities (silicon dioxide) to form molten slag. Coke and carbon monoxide do the reducing; coke is the fuel.

Q49Which method protects iron from rusting by sacrificial protection?

(A) Coating the iron with zinc (galvanising)
(B) Painting the iron
(C) Covering the iron with oil
(D) Covering the iron with plastic
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is more reactive than iron, so in galvanising the zinc corrodes in preference to the iron, protecting it even if the coating is scratched. Paint, oil and plastic are only barrier methods.

Q50Why are alloys usually harder than the pure metals from which they are made?

(A) The layers of atoms in an alloy slide over each other more easily
(B) All the atoms in an alloy are the same size
(C) Atoms of different sizes distort the regular layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other easily
(D) Alloys have much lower melting points than pure metals
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In an alloy, differently sized atoms disrupt the regular arrangement, stopping the layers sliding, which makes the alloy harder and stronger.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51In the treatment of water for drinking, which step kills microorganisms?

(A) sedimentation
(B) chlorination
(C) filtration
(D) screening
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine is added to sterilise the water by killing bacteria and other microorganisms. Filtration and sedimentation remove solid impurities.

Q52What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in clean, dry air?

(A) 21%
(B) 1%
(C) 0.04%
(D) 78%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with about 1% argon and other gases and about 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53Which compound is used as a fertiliser because it provides both nitrogen and potassium for plant growth?

(A) potassium nitrate, KNO3
(B) ammonium sulfate, (NH4)2SO4
(C) calcium carbonate, CaCO3
(D) calcium phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Potassium nitrate contains both potassium and nitrogen (in the nitrate ion), two of the essential elements (N, P, K) that fertilisers supply.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnHn
(C) CnH2n+2
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2, e.g. methane CH4 and ethane C2H6.

Q55Ethene gas is bubbled through aqueous bromine. What is observed?

(A) The bromine stays orange
(B) The orange bromine colour disappears (the solution becomes colourless)
(C) The solution turns cloudy
(D) Effervescence occurs and a gas is given off
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene is unsaturated and undergoes addition with bromine across its C=C bond, decolourising the bromine water. This is the standard test for a C=C double bond.

Q56Under which conditions is ethanol made by the fermentation of glucose?

(A) Phosphoric acid catalyst at 300°C and high pressure
(B) Iron catalyst at 450°C
(C) Concentrated sulfuric acid and strong heating
(D) Yeast enzymes, about 37°C, in the absence of air
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Fermentation uses yeast, a warm temperature of about 37°C and anaerobic conditions: C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2.

Q57Which statement about condensation polymerisation is correct?

(A) A small molecule such as water is eliminated as the polymer chains form
(B) Only one product, the polymer, is formed
(C) The monomers must contain a C=C double bond
(D) Poly(ethene) is made by condensation polymerisation
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In condensation polymerisation the monomers join with the loss of a small molecule such as water (e.g. forming nylon or a polyester). Poly(ethene) is made by addition polymerisation, where only the polymer forms.

Q58What is the functional group of the carboxylic acids?

(A) -OH
(B) a C=C double bond
(C) -COOH
(D) -NH2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carboxylic acids such as ethanoic acid contain the -COOH functional group, which gives them their acidic properties.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59In a chromatography experiment a spot moves 4.0 cm from the baseline and the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?

(A) 2.5
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.04
(D) 40
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 10.0 = 0.4.

Q60Which test identifies water?

(A) Limewater turns cloudy
(B) A glowing splint relights
(C) A squeaky pop is heard with a lighted splint
(D) White anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns blue
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is a chemical test for water, turning from white to blue. (Limewater tests for carbon dioxide, a glowing splint for oxygen and the pop test for hydrogen.)