IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 6
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) changes directly into a gas when it warms up, with no liquid forming. This change is called
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Correct: (C)
Sublimation is the direct change from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state.
Q2Which statement correctly describes the particles in a gas?
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Correct: (A)
Gas particles are widely spaced, have weak forces between them, and move randomly and quickly in all directions.
Q3A gas in a sealed syringe is compressed to half its volume at constant temperature. The pressure increases mainly because the particles
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Correct: (B)
With the same particles in a smaller space, collisions with the container walls happen more often, so the pressure rises.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom of element X contains 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons. Element X is
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Correct: (D)
The proton number is 6, which is carbon. Atoms are neutral, so the electron number equals the proton number.
Q5An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,8,1. This element is most likely to be
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Correct: (A)
One electron in the outer shell places the element in Group I; with 19 electrons in total it is potassium.
Q6In an oxygen molecule, O2, the two atoms are held together by
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Correct: (C)
Each oxygen atom shares two pairs of electrons with the other, forming a double covalent bond, so both atoms achieve a complete outer shell.
Q7Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. This is because graphite
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Correct: (B)
In graphite each carbon atom uses only three of its outer electrons for bonding; the fourth electron is delocalised and can carry charge along the layers.
Q8Which is a typical property of an ionic compound such as magnesium oxide?
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Correct: (D)
Ionic compounds have giant lattices with strong attractions in all directions, giving high melting points; the ions can only move and carry charge when the lattice is broken down by melting or dissolving.
Q9Metallic bonding is the attraction between
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Correct: (A)
In a metal the atoms lose their outer electrons into a shared 'sea'; the attraction between the positive ions and the delocalised electrons holds the structure together and explains conductivity and malleability.
Q10Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes. They have the same chemical properties because they have
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Correct: (C)
Chemical behaviour depends on the electron arrangement. Both isotopes have 6 protons and 6 electrons arranged identically; only the neutron number differs.
Q11What happens when a magnesium atom forms a magnesium ion in magnesium chloride?
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Correct: (D)
Magnesium is in Group II, so its atom loses its two outer electrons to gain a full outer shell, forming an Mg^2+ ion.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12What is the number of moles in 25 g of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)
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Correct: (B)
Moles = mass / Mr = 25 / 100 = 0.25 mol.
Q13What volume is occupied by 0.50 mol of hydrogen gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.
Q14A compound is analysed and found to contain 1.2 g of carbon combined with 0.2 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
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Correct: (B)
Moles of C = 1.2 / 12 = 0.10; moles of H = 0.2 / 1 = 0.20. Ratio C : H = 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CH2.
Q15A student dissolves 5.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) in water and makes the solution up to 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (C)
Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol. Concentration = 0.10 / 0.250 = 0.40 mol/dm^3.
Q16A sample of impure chalk has a total mass of 10.0 g and contains 9.0 g of pure calcium carbonate. The percentage purity of the sample is
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Correct: (D)
Percentage purity = (mass of pure substance / total mass) × 100 = (9.0 / 10.0) × 100 = 90%.
Q17The equation for the Haber process is N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What volume of hydrogen is needed to react completely with 10 cm^3 of nitrogen (all volumes measured at the same temperature and pressure)?
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Correct: (A)
The equation ratio N2 : H2 is 1 : 3, so 10 cm^3 of nitrogen reacts with 3 × 10 = 30 cm^3 of hydrogen.
Q18Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide is produced from 5.0 g of calcium carbonate? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (B)
Moles of CaCO3 = 5.0 / 100 = 0.050 mol, which gives 0.050 mol of CO2. Mass = 0.050 × 44 = 2.2 g.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is observed at the cathode compared with the anode?
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Correct: (C)
Water is decomposed: hydrogen is discharged at the cathode and oxygen at the anode, with twice the volume of hydrogen because the equation is 2H2O → 2H2 + O2.
Q20Molten sodium chloride is electrolysed. The product formed at the cathode (negative electrode) is
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Correct: (D)
The only positive ions present are Na^+, so sodium metal is discharged at the cathode. Chlorine is formed at the anode.
Q21During electrolysis, cations (positive ions) move towards
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Correct: (A)
Opposite charges attract, so positive cations move to the negative electrode, the cathode, where they gain electrons.
Q22Copper is purified by electrolysis using the impure copper as one electrode in copper(II) sulfate solution. The impure copper must be connected as
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Correct: (B)
The impure copper is made the anode so that copper atoms lose electrons and dissolve as Cu^2+ ions, which then plate out as pure copper on the cathode. The impurities fall away as sludge.
Q23In a simple electrical cell made from zinc and copper strips in dilute acid, the negative terminal of the cell is
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Correct: (C)
The more reactive metal, zinc, loses electrons more readily and becomes the negative terminal; electrons flow through the wires from zinc to copper.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which change is endothermic?
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Correct: (D)
Dissolving ammonium nitrate takes in energy from the surroundings, so the temperature drops. The other changes give out energy.
Q25Calculate the energy change for H2 + Br2 → 2HBr using bond energies: H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol.
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Correct: (A)
Energy taken in breaking bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. Energy change = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.
Q26On the energy level diagram of an exothermic reaction, the energy level of the products is
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Correct: (B)
In an exothermic reaction energy is given out, so the products end at a lower energy level than the reactants; the difference is the energy released.
Q27Adding a catalyst to a reaction mixture increases the rate because the catalyst
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst provides an alternative pathway of lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of collisions lead to reaction.
Q28Hydrogen is described as a clean fuel for cars of the future because when it burns
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form only water, so it does not release carbon dioxide or other pollutants at the point of use.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Powdered calcium carbonate reacts much faster with dilute hydrochloric acid than the same mass of large lumps. This is because the powder has
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Correct: (B)
Powder exposes far more surface, so acid particles can collide with the solid much more frequently, increasing the rate.
Q30A reaction between an acid and a metal carbonate gives off carbon dioxide. Which apparatus is the most suitable for following the rate of this reaction?
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Correct: (C)
As carbon dioxide escapes, the total mass falls; recording mass against time gives a direct measure of the rate of reaction.
Q31For the equilibrium 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3, what happens to the position of equilibrium if the pressure is increased?
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Correct: (C)
There are 3 moles of gas on the left and 2 moles on the right. Increasing the pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules, so equilibrium shifts to the right.
Q32In the Contact process the reaction 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 is exothermic. A low temperature gives a high yield of SO3 but is not used alone because
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Correct: (B)
Lower temperatures favour the forward exothermic reaction, but the rate becomes very slow, so a compromise temperature of about 450°C is used with a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst.
Q33In the blast furnace reaction Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2, the reducing agent is
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Correct: (A)
Carbon monoxide gains oxygen (and loses electrons overall) as it converts iron(III) oxide to iron, so CO is the reducing agent; the iron(III) oxide is reduced.
Q34A piece of magnesium ribbon burns in air to form magnesium oxide. In this reaction the magnesium is
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Correct: (D)
Oxidation is gain of oxygen or loss of electrons. Magnesium gains oxygen and its atoms lose electrons to form Mg^2+, so it is oxidised.
Q35Increasing the concentration of a reactant solution increases the rate of reaction because
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Correct: (B)
A higher concentration means more reacting particles per unit volume, so successful collisions happen more often.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation of an acid by an alkali?
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Correct: (A)
In every acid-alkali neutralisation the hydrogen ions from the acid react with the hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water; the other ions are spectators.
Q37Which salt is prepared by the titration method using a burette and pipette?
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Correct: (D)
Titration is used when both the acid and the alkali are soluble and no insoluble excess reactant can be added, as for potassium chloride from KOH(aq) and HCl(aq).
Q38Sulfur dioxide gas dissolves in rainwater. The resulting solution is
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Correct: (B)
Sulfur dioxide is an acidic oxide; it dissolves to give an acidic solution, one cause of acid rain which damages buildings and trees.
Q39Which test identifies a carbonate in a solid sample?
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Correct: (C)
Carbonates react with dilute acids to release carbon dioxide, which is identified by turning limewater milky (cloudy).
Q40Calcium oxide is classified as a basic oxide because it
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Correct: (D)
Basic oxides are oxides of metals that neutralise acids, forming a salt and water. Calcium oxide solution (limewater) is also alkaline.
Q41An unknown salt gives off a gas when warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide. The gas turns damp red litmus paper blue. The salt contains
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Correct: (A)
Ammonium salts release ammonia gas on warming with an alkali. Ammonia is alkaline and turns damp red litmus blue; this is the test for ammonium ions.
Q42Crystals of zinc sulfate are to be prepared from zinc oxide and dilute sulfuric acid. Which step is essential because zinc oxide is insoluble?
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Correct: (B)
For an insoluble base, excess solid is added to make sure all the acid reacts; the leftover solid is filtered off, and the filtrate is heated and left to crystallise.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43Which statement about the Group VII elements (halogens) is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Halogen reactivity decreases down Group VII because the atoms gain an electron less easily as the outer shell is further from the nucleus. Halogens exist as diatomic molecules.
Q44What is the trend in melting point of the Group I metals from lithium to potassium?
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Correct: (D)
The melting points of the alkali metals fall down the group (Li 180°C, Na 98°C, K 63°C) as the metallic bonding weakens with larger atoms.
Q45Potassium iodide solution is colourless. When chlorine water is added, the mixture turns brown. This shows that
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Correct: (A)
Chlorine, being higher in Group VII and more reactive, displaces iodine from potassium iodide: Cl2 + 2KI → 2KCl + I2. The iodine formed colours the solution brown.
Q46Which element is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia and in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils respectively?
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Correct: (A)
Iron catalyses the Haber process for ammonia, and nickel catalyses the hydrogenation of oils to make margarine. Both are transition elements.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Zinc is extracted from zinc oxide by heating with carbon. This method works because
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Correct: (B)
Carbon sits above zinc in the reactivity series, so on heating it reduces zinc oxide, taking the oxygen to form carbon oxides and leaving zinc metal.
Q48Aluminium cannot be extracted from its oxide by heating with carbon because aluminium
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Correct: (D)
Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so its oxide is too stable to be reduced by carbon; electrolysis of the molten ore must be used instead.
Q49Stainless steel is used for cutlery because it does not rust easily. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron mainly with
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Correct: (A)
Stainless steel contains chromium, which forms a protective oxide layer that stops the iron underneath from rusting.
Q50Galvanising protects iron from rusting. In galvanising, the iron is coated with zinc, which protects it even if the coating is scratched because zinc
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Correct: (B)
Zinc is higher in the reactivity series, so it reacts with air and water preferentially, sacrificing itself while the iron stays protected.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Which gas is a major contributor to the enhanced greenhouse effect?
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Correct: (C)
Carbon dioxide, released in large amounts by burning fossil fuels, traps heat radiation from the Earth and is the main human-made greenhouse gas.
Q52Acid rain damages limestone buildings and kills trees. The main pollutant gases responsible are
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Correct: (C)
Sulfur dioxide from coal-burning power stations and nitrogen oxides from car exhausts dissolve in rain clouds to form acid rain.
Q53Carbon monoxide from car exhausts is dangerous because it
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Correct: (A)
Carbon monoxide is a toxic, colourless, odourless gas that combines with haemoglobin in red blood cells, stopping them carrying oxygen around the body.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54Which fraction is obtained near the bottom of the fractionating column used to separate petroleum (crude oil)?
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Correct: (B)
The fractions with the highest boiling points and longest molecules, such as bitumen, collect near the bottom of the column where it is hottest; bitumen is used for roads and roofing.
Q55What is the general formula of the alkenes?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n, e.g. ethene C2H4 and propene C3H6.
Q56In cracking, a long-chain hydrocarbon such as C10H22 is broken down. Which pair of products could be formed?
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Correct: (A)
Cracking splits one long molecule into a shorter alkane and an alkene: C10H22 → C8H18 + C2H4. The atoms balance (C: 10 = 8 + 2; H: 22 = 18 + 4).
Q57Vinegar is a dilute solution of ethanoic acid. Like other acids, ethanoic acid reacts with magnesium to produce
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Correct: (D)
Ethanoic acid is a typical (weak) acid: with a reactive metal it forms a salt, magnesium ethanoate, plus hydrogen gas, though more slowly than a strong acid.
Q58Terylene is a polyester made by condensation polymerisation. In condensation polymerisation, the monomers join together with the loss of
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Correct: (C)
Condensation polymerisation links monomers by reactions that eliminate a small molecule, usually water, for each link formed — unlike addition polymerisation, where nothing is lost.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which reagent identifies the presence of water in a liquid?
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Correct: (C)
Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is white; adding water converts it to the blue hydrated salt, CuSO4.5H2O. (Blue cobalt(II) chloride paper turning pink is an alternative test.)
Q60A flame test is carried out on a potassium compound. The flame colour observed is
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Correct: (D)
Potassium compounds give a lilac (purple) flame in a flame test. Sodium gives yellow, calcium brick-red, and copper(II) blue-green.
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