IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 6

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) changes directly into a gas when it warms up, with no liquid forming. This change is called

(A) melting
(B) boiling
(C) sublimation
(D) condensation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sublimation is the direct change from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state.

Q2Which statement correctly describes the particles in a gas?

(A) They are far apart and move randomly at high speed.
(B) They are closely packed in a regular arrangement.
(C) They only vibrate about fixed positions.
(D) They are held together by very strong bonds in a giant lattice.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Gas particles are widely spaced, have weak forces between them, and move randomly and quickly in all directions.

Q3A gas in a sealed syringe is compressed to half its volume at constant temperature. The pressure increases mainly because the particles

(A) become heavier
(B) collide with the walls more frequently
(C) move more slowly
(D) join together into molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With the same particles in a smaller space, collisions with the container walls happen more often, so the pressure rises.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of element X contains 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons. Element X is

(A) oxygen
(B) sodium
(C) magnesium
(D) carbon
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The proton number is 6, which is carbon. Atoms are neutral, so the electron number equals the proton number.

Q5An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,8,1. This element is most likely to be

(A) potassium, a Group I metal
(B) argon, a noble gas
(C) chlorine, a Group VII non-metal
(D) calcium, a Group II metal
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

One electron in the outer shell places the element in Group I; with 19 electrons in total it is potassium.

Q6In an oxygen molecule, O2, the two atoms are held together by

(A) an ionic bond
(B) a single covalent bond
(C) a double covalent bond, with two shared pairs of electrons
(D) metallic bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each oxygen atom shares two pairs of electrons with the other, forming a double covalent bond, so both atoms achieve a complete outer shell.

Q7Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. This is because graphite

(A) is a metal
(B) has delocalised electrons that are free to move between the layers
(C) contains ions that can move
(D) has a lower density than diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In graphite each carbon atom uses only three of its outer electrons for bonding; the fourth electron is delocalised and can carry charge along the layers.

Q8Which is a typical property of an ionic compound such as magnesium oxide?

(A) Low melting point and conducts as a solid.
(B) Soft and easily squashed.
(C) Consists of small separate molecules.
(D) Very high melting point and conducts electricity when molten or in aqueous solution.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ionic compounds have giant lattices with strong attractions in all directions, giving high melting points; the ions can only move and carry charge when the lattice is broken down by melting or dissolving.

Q9Metallic bonding is the attraction between

(A) positive metal ions and a sea of delocalised electrons
(B) shared pairs of electrons and nuclei
(C) oppositely charged ions
(D) separate neutral molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a metal the atoms lose their outer electrons into a shared 'sea'; the attraction between the positive ions and the delocalised electrons holds the structure together and explains conductivity and malleability.

Q10Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes. They have the same chemical properties because they have

(A) the same number of neutrons
(B) the same mass number
(C) the same number and arrangement of electrons
(D) the same number of protons and neutrons combined
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chemical behaviour depends on the electron arrangement. Both isotopes have 6 protons and 6 electrons arranged identically; only the neutron number differs.

Q11What happens when a magnesium atom forms a magnesium ion in magnesium chloride?

(A) It gains two electrons to form Mg^2-.
(B) It shares two electrons with chlorine.
(C) It gains one electron to form Mg^-.
(D) It loses two electrons to form Mg^2+.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Magnesium is in Group II, so its atom loses its two outer electrons to gain a full outer shell, forming an Mg^2+ ion.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the number of moles in 25 g of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 4 mol
(B) 0.25 mol
(C) 25 mol
(D) 0.025 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = mass / Mr = 25 / 100 = 0.25 mol.

Q13What volume is occupied by 0.50 mol of hydrogen gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 48 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 6 dm^3
(D) 12 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.

Q14A compound is analysed and found to contain 1.2 g of carbon combined with 0.2 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH
(B) CH2
(C) C2H
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of C = 1.2 / 12 = 0.10; moles of H = 0.2 / 1 = 0.20. Ratio C : H = 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CH2.

Q15A student dissolves 5.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) in water and makes the solution up to 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.25 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.40 mol/dm^3
(D) 4.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol. Concentration = 0.10 / 0.250 = 0.40 mol/dm^3.

Q16A sample of impure chalk has a total mass of 10.0 g and contains 9.0 g of pure calcium carbonate. The percentage purity of the sample is

(A) 9%
(B) 10%
(C) 111%
(D) 90%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage purity = (mass of pure substance / total mass) × 100 = (9.0 / 10.0) × 100 = 90%.

Q17The equation for the Haber process is N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What volume of hydrogen is needed to react completely with 10 cm^3 of nitrogen (all volumes measured at the same temperature and pressure)?

(A) 30 cm^3
(B) 10 cm^3
(C) 20 cm^3
(D) 3.3 cm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The equation ratio N2 : H2 is 1 : 3, so 10 cm^3 of nitrogen reacts with 3 × 10 = 30 cm^3 of hydrogen.

Q18Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide is produced from 5.0 g of calcium carbonate? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CO2 = 44)

(A) 5.0 g
(B) 2.2 g
(C) 4.4 g
(D) 0.44 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of CaCO3 = 5.0 / 100 = 0.050 mol, which gives 0.050 mol of CO2. Mass = 0.050 × 44 = 2.2 g.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is observed at the cathode compared with the anode?

(A) Equal volumes of gas at both electrodes.
(B) No gas at the cathode.
(C) Twice as much hydrogen at the cathode as oxygen at the anode.
(D) Oxygen at the cathode and hydrogen at the anode.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Water is decomposed: hydrogen is discharged at the cathode and oxygen at the anode, with twice the volume of hydrogen because the equation is 2H2O → 2H2 + O2.

Q20Molten sodium chloride is electrolysed. The product formed at the cathode (negative electrode) is

(A) chlorine gas
(B) hydrogen gas
(C) oxygen gas
(D) sodium metal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The only positive ions present are Na^+, so sodium metal is discharged at the cathode. Chlorine is formed at the anode.

Q21During electrolysis, cations (positive ions) move towards

(A) the cathode, which is the negative electrode
(B) the anode, which is the positive electrode
(C) neither electrode
(D) the middle of the solution only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Opposite charges attract, so positive cations move to the negative electrode, the cathode, where they gain electrons.

Q22Copper is purified by electrolysis using the impure copper as one electrode in copper(II) sulfate solution. The impure copper must be connected as

(A) the cathode (negative electrode)
(B) the anode (positive electrode)
(C) either electrode; it makes no difference
(D) it is not connected to the supply
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The impure copper is made the anode so that copper atoms lose electrons and dissolve as Cu^2+ ions, which then plate out as pure copper on the cathode. The impurities fall away as sludge.

Q23In a simple electrical cell made from zinc and copper strips in dilute acid, the negative terminal of the cell is

(A) the copper strip
(B) the acid
(C) the zinc strip, because zinc is more reactive and loses electrons
(D) neither strip
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The more reactive metal, zinc, loses electrons more readily and becomes the negative terminal; electrons flow through the wires from zinc to copper.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which change is endothermic?

(A) Burning wood in a fire.
(B) Condensing steam to liquid water.
(C) Reacting zinc with dilute acid.
(D) Dissolving ammonium nitrate in water, when the temperature of the solution falls.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Dissolving ammonium nitrate takes in energy from the surroundings, so the temperature drops. The other changes give out energy.

Q25Calculate the energy change for H2 + Br2 → 2HBr using bond energies: H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol.

(A) -103 kJ/mol
(B) +103 kJ/mol
(C) -732 kJ/mol
(D) +1361 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy taken in breaking bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. Energy change = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.

Q26On the energy level diagram of an exothermic reaction, the energy level of the products is

(A) the same as that of the reactants
(B) lower than that of the reactants
(C) higher than that of the reactants
(D) always zero
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In an exothermic reaction energy is given out, so the products end at a lower energy level than the reactants; the difference is the energy released.

Q27Adding a catalyst to a reaction mixture increases the rate because the catalyst

(A) increases the energy of every particle
(B) raises the temperature of the mixture
(C) is used up and replaced by products
(D) lowers the activation energy of the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst provides an alternative pathway of lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of collisions lead to reaction.

Q28Hydrogen is described as a clean fuel for cars of the future because when it burns

(A) it produces only water
(B) it produces carbon dioxide and water
(C) it needs no oxygen
(D) it produces more energy than any other substance per gram of container
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form only water, so it does not release carbon dioxide or other pollutants at the point of use.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Powdered calcium carbonate reacts much faster with dilute hydrochloric acid than the same mass of large lumps. This is because the powder has

(A) a lower activation energy
(B) a larger total surface area for collisions
(C) a higher concentration
(D) smaller Mr
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Powder exposes far more surface, so acid particles can collide with the solid much more frequently, increasing the rate.

Q30A reaction between an acid and a metal carbonate gives off carbon dioxide. Which apparatus is the most suitable for following the rate of this reaction?

(A) A thermometer in the mixture.
(B) A pH probe used only at the end.
(C) A balance, recording the loss in mass of the flask as gas escapes.
(D) A burette for adding the acid.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

As carbon dioxide escapes, the total mass falls; recording mass against time gives a direct measure of the rate of reaction.

Q31For the equilibrium 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3, what happens to the position of equilibrium if the pressure is increased?

(A) It shifts to the left, making more SO2 and O2.
(B) It does not change.
(C) It shifts to the right, making more SO3.
(D) The reaction stops completely.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

There are 3 moles of gas on the left and 2 moles on the right. Increasing the pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules, so equilibrium shifts to the right.

Q32In the Contact process the reaction 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 is exothermic. A low temperature gives a high yield of SO3 but is not used alone because

(A) the catalyst is destroyed at low temperature
(B) the reaction would be too slow at a low temperature
(C) sulfur trioxide is a gas at low temperature
(D) oxygen cannot be obtained at low temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Lower temperatures favour the forward exothermic reaction, but the rate becomes very slow, so a compromise temperature of about 450°C is used with a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst.

Q33In the blast furnace reaction Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2, the reducing agent is

(A) carbon monoxide, CO
(B) iron(III) oxide, Fe2O3
(C) iron, Fe
(D) carbon dioxide, CO2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon monoxide gains oxygen (and loses electrons overall) as it converts iron(III) oxide to iron, so CO is the reducing agent; the iron(III) oxide is reduced.

Q34A piece of magnesium ribbon burns in air to form magnesium oxide. In this reaction the magnesium is

(A) reduced, because it gains oxygen
(B) reduced, because it loses electrons
(C) oxidised, because it gains electrons
(D) oxidised, because it gains oxygen and loses electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxidation is gain of oxygen or loss of electrons. Magnesium gains oxygen and its atoms lose electrons to form Mg^2+, so it is oxidised.

Q35Increasing the concentration of a reactant solution increases the rate of reaction because

(A) the particles have more energy each
(B) there are more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent
(C) the activation energy decreases
(D) the volume of the solution increases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A higher concentration means more reacting particles per unit volume, so successful collisions happen more often.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation of an acid by an alkali?

(A) H^+ + OH^- → H2O
(B) Na^+ + Cl^- → NaCl
(C) 2H^+ + CO3^2- → H2O + CO2
(D) H^+ + Cl^- → HCl
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In every acid-alkali neutralisation the hydrogen ions from the acid react with the hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water; the other ions are spectators.

Q37Which salt is prepared by the titration method using a burette and pipette?

(A) Barium sulfate
(B) Copper(II) sulfate from excess copper(II) oxide
(C) Lead(II) chloride
(D) Potassium chloride from potassium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Titration is used when both the acid and the alkali are soluble and no insoluble excess reactant can be added, as for potassium chloride from KOH(aq) and HCl(aq).

Q38Sulfur dioxide gas dissolves in rainwater. The resulting solution is

(A) neutral
(B) acidic, and it contributes to acid rain
(C) alkaline
(D) a salt solution
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur dioxide is an acidic oxide; it dissolves to give an acidic solution, one cause of acid rain which damages buildings and trees.

Q39Which test identifies a carbonate in a solid sample?

(A) Warm with sodium hydroxide; ammonia turns damp litmus blue.
(B) Add silver nitrate solution; a cream precipitate forms.
(C) Add dilute hydrochloric acid; the gas given off turns limewater milky.
(D) Heat strongly; the solid melts.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbonates react with dilute acids to release carbon dioxide, which is identified by turning limewater milky (cloudy).

Q40Calcium oxide is classified as a basic oxide because it

(A) is a gas at room temperature
(B) has pH 7 in solution
(C) reacts with water to form a gas
(D) reacts with acids to form a salt and water only
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Basic oxides are oxides of metals that neutralise acids, forming a salt and water. Calcium oxide solution (limewater) is also alkaline.

Q41An unknown salt gives off a gas when warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide. The gas turns damp red litmus paper blue. The salt contains

(A) ammonium ions
(B) chloride ions
(C) carbonate ions
(D) sulfate ions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ammonium salts release ammonia gas on warming with an alkali. Ammonia is alkaline and turns damp red litmus blue; this is the test for ammonium ions.

Q42Crystals of zinc sulfate are to be prepared from zinc oxide and dilute sulfuric acid. Which step is essential because zinc oxide is insoluble?

(A) Add exactly one drop of acid.
(B) Add excess zinc oxide to warm acid, then filter off the unreacted solid before crystallising.
(C) Use titration with an indicator throughout.
(D) Electrolyse the final solution.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For an insoluble base, excess solid is added to make sure all the acid reacts; the leftover solid is filtered off, and the filtrate is heated and left to crystallise.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43Which statement about the Group VII elements (halogens) is correct?

(A) Iodine is a gas at room temperature and pressure.
(B) Fluorine is the least reactive halogen.
(C) Their reactivity decreases down the group.
(D) They all exist as single atoms.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Halogen reactivity decreases down Group VII because the atoms gain an electron less easily as the outer shell is further from the nucleus. Halogens exist as diatomic molecules.

Q44What is the trend in melting point of the Group I metals from lithium to potassium?

(A) It increases steadily.
(B) It stays about the same.
(C) It increases then decreases.
(D) It decreases.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The melting points of the alkali metals fall down the group (Li 180°C, Na 98°C, K 63°C) as the metallic bonding weakens with larger atoms.

Q45Potassium iodide solution is colourless. When chlorine water is added, the mixture turns brown. This shows that

(A) chlorine is more reactive than iodine and displaces it
(B) iodine is more reactive than chlorine
(C) chlorine reacts with water only
(D) potassium reacts with chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine, being higher in Group VII and more reactive, displaces iodine from potassium iodide: Cl2 + 2KI → 2KCl + I2. The iodine formed colours the solution brown.

Q46Which element is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of ammonia and in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils respectively?

(A) Iron and nickel
(B) Copper and zinc
(C) Platinum and gold
(D) Aluminium and silver
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Iron catalyses the Haber process for ammonia, and nickel catalyses the hydrogenation of oils to make margarine. Both are transition elements.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Zinc is extracted from zinc oxide by heating with carbon. This method works because

(A) zinc is very unreactive
(B) carbon is more reactive than zinc and removes the oxygen from zinc oxide
(C) zinc oxide is soluble in water
(D) zinc melts at a low temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon sits above zinc in the reactivity series, so on heating it reduces zinc oxide, taking the oxygen to form carbon oxides and leaving zinc metal.

Q48Aluminium cannot be extracted from its oxide by heating with carbon because aluminium

(A) has a very low melting point
(B) does not form an oxide
(C) is a liquid at room temperature
(D) is more reactive than carbon, so carbon cannot reduce its oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so its oxide is too stable to be reduced by carbon; electrolysis of the molten ore must be used instead.

Q49Stainless steel is used for cutlery because it does not rust easily. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron mainly with

(A) chromium (and often nickel)
(B) lead
(C) tin only
(D) aluminium only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Stainless steel contains chromium, which forms a protective oxide layer that stops the iron underneath from rusting.

Q50Galvanising protects iron from rusting. In galvanising, the iron is coated with zinc, which protects it even if the coating is scratched because zinc

(A) is a non-metal
(B) is more reactive than iron and corrodes in its place (sacrificial protection)
(C) melts over the scratch
(D) is cheaper than iron
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc is higher in the reactivity series, so it reacts with air and water preferentially, sacrificing itself while the iron stays protected.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Which gas is a major contributor to the enhanced greenhouse effect?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon dioxide, released in large amounts by burning fossil fuels, traps heat radiation from the Earth and is the main human-made greenhouse gas.

Q52Acid rain damages limestone buildings and kills trees. The main pollutant gases responsible are

(A) carbon dioxide and oxygen
(B) methane and ammonia
(C) sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides from burning fuels
(D) hydrogen and helium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide from coal-burning power stations and nitrogen oxides from car exhausts dissolve in rain clouds to form acid rain.

Q53Carbon monoxide from car exhausts is dangerous because it

(A) binds strongly to haemoglobin in the blood and reduces oxygen transport
(B) is a greenhouse gas
(C) dissolves in rain to form acid rain
(D) damages the ozone layer
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon monoxide is a toxic, colourless, odourless gas that combines with haemoglobin in red blood cells, stopping them carrying oxygen around the body.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54Which fraction is obtained near the bottom of the fractionating column used to separate petroleum (crude oil)?

(A) Refinery gas
(B) Bitumen, used for road surfaces
(C) Petrol (gasoline)
(D) Naphtha
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The fractions with the highest boiling points and longest molecules, such as bitumen, collect near the bottom of the column where it is hottest; bitumen is used for roads and roofing.

Q55What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnH2n
(D) CnHn+2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n, e.g. ethene C2H4 and propene C3H6.

Q56In cracking, a long-chain hydrocarbon such as C10H22 is broken down. Which pair of products could be formed?

(A) C8H18 and C2H4
(B) C10H20 and H2
(C) CO2 and H2O
(D) C5H12 and C5H12
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cracking splits one long molecule into a shorter alkane and an alkene: C10H22 → C8H18 + C2H4. The atoms balance (C: 10 = 8 + 2; H: 22 = 18 + 4).

Q57Vinegar is a dilute solution of ethanoic acid. Like other acids, ethanoic acid reacts with magnesium to produce

(A) no reaction at all, because it is a weak acid
(B) magnesium oxide and water
(C) carbon dioxide and water
(D) magnesium ethanoate and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ethanoic acid is a typical (weak) acid: with a reactive metal it forms a salt, magnesium ethanoate, plus hydrogen gas, though more slowly than a strong acid.

Q58Terylene is a polyester made by condensation polymerisation. In condensation polymerisation, the monomers join together with the loss of

(A) hydrogen molecules
(B) carbon dioxide only
(C) small molecules such as water
(D) no atoms at all
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Condensation polymerisation links monomers by reactions that eliminate a small molecule, usually water, for each link formed — unlike addition polymerisation, where nothing is lost.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which reagent identifies the presence of water in a liquid?

(A) Limewater, which turns milky
(B) Damp litmus paper, which is bleached
(C) Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate, which turns from white to blue
(D) Acidified potassium dichromate(VI), which turns green
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is white; adding water converts it to the blue hydrated salt, CuSO4.5H2O. (Blue cobalt(II) chloride paper turning pink is an alternative test.)

Q60A flame test is carried out on a potassium compound. The flame colour observed is

(A) yellow
(B) brick-red
(C) blue-green
(D) lilac
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Potassium compounds give a lilac (purple) flame in a flame test. Sodium gives yellow, calcium brick-red, and copper(II) blue-green.