IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 5

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1A liquid changes into a gas at a temperature below its boiling point. This process is called

(A) condensation
(B) evaporation
(C) freezing
(D) melting
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Evaporation is the change from liquid to gas that takes place at the surface of a liquid at any temperature below its boiling point.

Q2Four gases are placed in a closed tube at the same temperature. Which gas diffuses the fastest?

(A) ammonia, NH3 (Mr = 17)
(B) carbon dioxide, CO2 (Mr = 44)
(C) hydrogen chloride, HCl (Mr = 36.5)
(D) oxygen, O2 (Mr = 32)
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The gas with the smallest Mr diffuses fastest. Ammonia has the lowest Mr (17), so its particles move and spread the fastest.

Q3Which statement about the particles in a solid is correct?

(A) They are far apart and move randomly.
(B) They slide past each other freely.
(C) They vibrate about fixed positions.
(D) They have no forces between them.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a solid the particles are held in fixed positions by strong forces and can only vibrate about those positions.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is its nucleon (mass) number?

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 1
(D) 23
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Nucleon number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.

Q5Isotopes of the same element have

(A) the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
(B) the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
(C) different numbers of protons and neutrons
(D) the same number of protons and neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Isotopes have the same proton number (so they are the same element) but different numbers of neutrons.

Q6An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,6. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?

(A) Group II
(B) Group IV
(C) Group VI
(D) Group VIII
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell. There are 6 outer electrons, so the element is in Group VI.

Q7How is an ionic bond formed between a metal atom and a non-metal atom?

(A) By sharing pairs of electrons equally
(B) By a sea of delocalised electrons
(C) By weak forces between molecules
(D) By transfer of electrons from the metal to the non-metal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In ionic bonding the metal atom loses electrons and the non-metal atom gains them, forming oppositely charged ions that attract each other.

Q8Which statement about diamond is correct?

(A) It conducts electricity because it has delocalised electrons.
(B) Each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms in a giant covalent structure.
(C) It is soft because there are weak forces between layers.
(D) It has a low melting point because its molecules are small.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In diamond each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds to four other carbon atoms, giving a giant structure that is very hard with a very high melting point.

Q9Which substance contains covalent bonds only?

(A) methane, CH4
(B) magnesium oxide, MgO
(C) sodium chloride, NaCl
(D) calcium, Ca
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Methane is made of non-metal atoms only, joined by shared pairs of electrons. MgO and NaCl are ionic, and calcium has metallic bonding.

Q10Sodium chloride does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct when molten. This is because in the molten state

(A) the electrons are free to move
(B) the ions are in fixed positions
(C) the ions are free to move
(D) the molecules can slide past each other
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In solid sodium chloride the ions are locked in fixed positions. When molten, the ions are free to move to the electrodes and carry the charge.

Q11A chlorine atom has 17 electrons arranged 2,8,7. What happens when it forms a chloride ion?

(A) It loses one electron to form Cl^+.
(B) It loses seven electrons to form Cl^7+.
(C) It shares one more electron pair.
(D) It gains one electron to form Cl^- with configuration 2,8,8.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The chlorine atom gains one electron to complete its outer shell, forming a Cl^- ion with the stable configuration 2,8,8.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.5 mol
(B) 2 mol
(C) 8 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q13What volume does 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 0.96 dm^3
(B) 6 dm^3
(C) 24 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

Q14A solution contains 0.20 mol of sodium hydroxide dissolved in 500 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?

(A) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.20 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.40 mol/dm^3
(D) 2.5 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.20 / 0.500 = 0.40 mol/dm^3.

Q15A hydrocarbon contains 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH
(B) CH2
(C) C2H5
(D) CH3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of C = 80 / 12 = 6.67; moles of H = 20 / 1 = 20. Ratio C : H = 6.67 : 20 = 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.

Q16Magnesium reacts with excess oxygen to form magnesium oxide. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 2.4 g of magnesium? (Ar: Mg = 24, O = 16)

(A) 4.0 g
(B) 2.4 g
(C) 6.4 g
(D) 40 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol. This forms 0.10 mol of MgO. Mr of MgO = 24 + 16 = 40, so mass = 0.10 × 40 = 4.0 g.

Q17In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 50 g but only 40 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 20%
(B) 80%
(C) 125%
(D) 90%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100 = (40 / 50) × 100 = 80%.

Q18How many moles of water molecules are there in 36 g of water? (Mr of H2O = 18)

(A) 0.5 mol
(B) 1 mol
(C) 2 mol
(D) 18 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = 36 / 18 = 2 mol.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is produced at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) chlorine
(B) sodium
(C) oxygen
(D) hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode in preference to sodium ions because sodium is higher in the reactivity series, so hydrogen gas is produced.

Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert (graphite) electrodes. What is seen at the cathode?

(A) A pink-brown layer of copper forms.
(B) Bubbles of hydrogen form.
(C) The blue colour becomes darker.
(D) The electrode dissolves away.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so copper ions are discharged and a pink-brown layer of copper metal forms on the cathode.

Q21Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed. To which electrode do the bromide ions move, and why?

(A) To the cathode, because they are positively charged.
(B) To the anode, because they are negatively charged.
(C) To the cathode, because they are negatively charged.
(D) To the anode, because they are positively charged.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bromide ions are negative (anions), so they are attracted to the positive electrode, the anode, where they form bromine.

Q22In electroplating a steel spoon with silver, how should the spoon be connected?

(A) As the positive electrode (anode).
(B) It should not be connected to the power supply.
(C) As the negative electrode (cathode).
(D) Either electrode can be used.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The object to be plated is made the cathode (negative electrode) so that positive silver ions are attracted to it and form a layer of silver on its surface.

Q23Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Cryolite is added to the aluminium oxide mainly to

(A) increase the amount of aluminium produced
(B) act as the cathode
(C) produce carbon dioxide
(D) lower the melting point of the mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cryolite dissolves the aluminium oxide and lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte, saving energy. The aluminium oxide itself melts at over 2000°C.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?

(A) The temperature of the surroundings increases.
(B) The temperature of the surroundings decreases.
(C) A gas is produced.
(D) The colour of the mixture changes.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An exothermic reaction gives out energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings rises.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -184 kJ/mol
(C) -92 kJ/mol
(D) +1109 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy taken in breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy given out forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. Energy change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q26Which process is endothermic?

(A) Burning methane in air
(B) Neutralising an acid with an alkali
(C) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(D) Freezing of water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Thermal decomposition requires continuous heating because it takes in energy. Burning and neutralisation are exothermic, and freezing gives out energy.

Q27In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, the overall reaction is the same as

(A) the electrolysis of water
(B) the rusting of iron
(C) photosynthesis
(D) the burning of hydrogen in oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In the fuel cell hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water, exactly as when hydrogen burns in oxygen, but the energy is released as electricity.

Q28On an energy level diagram for an exothermic reaction, the activation energy is the energy difference between

(A) the reactants and the top of the energy barrier
(B) the reactants and the products
(C) the products and the top of the energy barrier
(D) the starting temperature and the final temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The activation energy is the minimum energy particles need to react, shown as the gap between the reactant level and the peak of the barrier.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29The rate of a reaction increases when the temperature is raised. This is mainly because

(A) the activation energy is lowered
(B) more particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy
(C) the particles become smaller
(D) the volume of the mixture decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At a higher temperature the particles move faster, collide more often, and a much larger fraction of the collisions have enough energy to react.

Q30What does a catalyst do in a chemical reaction?

(A) It is used up during the reaction.
(B) It increases the energy of the particles.
(C) It provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy.
(D) It increases the yield of product at equilibrium only.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst speeds up a reaction by providing a different route with a lower activation energy, and it is chemically unchanged at the end.

Q31Marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid. Which method is best for measuring the rate of this reaction?

(A) Timing how long the mixture takes to change colour.
(B) Measuring the pH at the end of the reaction.
(C) Weighing the flask once after one hour.
(D) Measuring the volume of gas collected in a gas syringe over time.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The reaction produces carbon dioxide gas, so collecting and measuring the gas volume at regular time intervals gives the rate directly.

Q32Which reaction is reversible and reaches equilibrium in a sealed container?

(A) Blue hydrated copper(II) sulfate crystals are heated, then water is added back to the white solid.
(B) Magnesium burns in oxygen.
(C) Sodium reacts with water.
(D) Methane burns in air.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper(II) sulfate dehydration is a classic reversible reaction: heating drives off the water and adding water reverses the change. The others go to completion.

Q33Ammonia is made in the Haber process: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. Which set of conditions is used industrially?

(A) 150°C, 1000 atm, no catalyst
(B) 450°C, 200 atm, iron catalyst
(C) 25°C, 1 atm, iron catalyst
(D) 800°C, 50 atm, nickel catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The Haber process uses about 450°C as a compromise temperature, about 200 atm pressure, and an iron catalyst.

Q34Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. In this reaction

(A) zinc is reduced
(B) copper(II) ions are oxidised
(C) zinc is oxidised
(D) sulfate ions are reduced
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc atoms lose electrons to form Zn^2+ ions, so zinc is oxidised. The copper(II) ions gain electrons and are reduced.

Q35In the reaction 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO, the oxidising agent is

(A) magnesium
(B) magnesium oxide
(C) zinc oxide
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxygen gains electrons from magnesium, causing magnesium to be oxidised, so oxygen is the oxidising agent (and is itself reduced).




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which pH value is most likely for a strong acid such as hydrochloric acid?

(A) pH 1
(B) pH 6
(C) pH 7
(D) pH 13
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Strong acids fully ionise in solution and have very low pH values, around pH 1 for a concentrated laboratory acid.

Q37When dilute sulfuric acid reacts with magnesium carbonate, the products are

(A) magnesium sulfate and hydrogen only
(B) magnesium sulfate, water and carbon dioxide
(C) magnesium sulfate and oxygen
(D) magnesium hydroxide and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide. Here the salt formed is magnesium sulfate.

Q38An alkali is best described as

(A) an insoluble base
(B) a solution with pH less than 7
(C) a soluble base that produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution
(D) any metal oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An alkali is a base that dissolves in water, releasing OH^- ions into the solution, giving a pH above 7.

Q39Which salt can be prepared by a precipitation reaction?

(A) Sodium chloride, by titrating acid with alkali
(B) Copper(II) sulfate, by adding excess copper(II) oxide to acid
(C) Ammonium nitrate, by titration
(D) Barium sulfate, by mixing solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Barium sulfate is insoluble, so it is made by precipitation: mixing two solutions containing Ba^2+ and SO4^2- ions forms the solid salt immediately.

Q40Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis. It is therefore described as

(A) amphoteric
(B) neutral
(C) basic
(D) acidic
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An oxide that reacts with both acids and alkalis is amphoteric. Aluminium oxide and zinc oxide are the standard examples.

Q41Which test is used to identify sulfate ions in a solution?

(A) Add silver nitrate solution; a white precipitate forms.
(B) Add barium chloride solution and dilute hydrochloric acid; a white precipitate forms.
(C) Add sodium hydroxide and warm; ammonia gas is given off.
(D) Add dilute acid; the gas produced turns limewater milky.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ba^2+ ions react with sulfate ions to give a white precipitate of barium sulfate, which stays insoluble when dilute hydrochloric acid is added.

Q42Universal indicator is added to a sample of aqueous sodium hydroxide. What colour is seen?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Blue / purple
(D) Orange
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium hydroxide is a strong alkali (pH about 13-14), so universal indicator turns blue to purple.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43What happens to the reactivity of the Group I metals as you go down the group from lithium to potassium?

(A) It decreases.
(B) It stays the same.
(C) It decreases then increases.
(D) It increases.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Group I metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.

Q44Chlorine is bubbled into aqueous potassium bromide. What is observed?

(A) The solution turns orange-brown as bromine is formed.
(B) Nothing happens.
(C) A white precipitate forms.
(D) The solution is bleached colourless.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from its salt: Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2. The bromine colours the solution orange-brown.

Q45Which is a typical property of transition elements and their compounds?

(A) They are all colourless.
(B) They have low melting points.
(C) They form coloured compounds and can act as catalysts.
(D) They have only one possible oxidation state, +1.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Transition elements form coloured compounds, have variable oxidation states, and many are used as catalysts, e.g. iron in the Haber process.

Q46The noble gases are very unreactive because their atoms

(A) have no electrons
(B) have a complete outer shell of electrons
(C) are very small
(D) have more neutrons than protons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Noble gas atoms already have a full, stable outer electron shell, so they do not need to lose, gain or share electrons.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal can displace all of the others from solutions of their salts?

(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) zinc
(D) potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Potassium is the most reactive of the four metals listed, so it displaces copper, iron and zinc from their compounds.

Q48In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is converted into iron. The main reducing agent is

(A) carbon monoxide
(B) limestone
(C) hot air
(D) slag
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Coke burns to form carbon monoxide, which reduces the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.

Q49Iron rusts when it is in contact with

(A) oxygen only
(B) both oxygen (air) and water
(C) carbon dioxide only
(D) oil and grease
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rusting needs both air (oxygen) and water together. Painting, oiling or coating the iron works by keeping these away from the surface.

Q50Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc. Brass is harder than pure copper mainly because

(A) brass contains no metal atoms
(B) the zinc atoms evaporate at the surface
(C) atoms of different sizes disturb the layers so they cannot slide easily
(D) brass has a lower density than copper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In an alloy the different-sized atoms disrupt the regular layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other as easily, making the alloy harder and stronger.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies in water treatment plants in order to

(A) kill harmful microorganisms
(B) improve the taste only
(C) remove dissolved calcium salts
(D) add fluoride to the water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorination sterilises the water by killing bacteria and other microorganisms that could cause disease.

Q52Approximately what percentage of clean, dry air is nitrogen?

(A) 21%
(B) 1%
(C) 78%
(D) 50%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Clean air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 1% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53Ammonium nitrate is used as a fertiliser because it provides plants with the essential element

(A) potassium
(B) nitrogen
(C) phosphorus
(D) sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (NPK). Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is valued for its high nitrogen content.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnH2n+2
(D) CnHn
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2, e.g. methane CH4 and ethane C2H6.

Q55Which test shows that a gas is ethene rather than ethane?

(A) It turns limewater milky.
(B) It pops with a lighted splint.
(C) It relights a glowing splint.
(D) It decolourises aqueous bromine.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ethene is unsaturated and undergoes addition with bromine, decolourising the orange bromine water. Ethane, being saturated, does not react.

Q56Ethanol is made industrially by the hydration of ethene and also by fermentation. In fermentation, glucose is converted by yeast. The conditions needed are

(A) about 37°C, yeast enzymes, absence of air
(B) 300°C and a phosphoric acid catalyst
(C) reflux with acidified potassium dichromate(VI)
(D) strong heating in a furnace
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Fermentation works best at about 37°C (warm, so the yeast enzymes are not denatured), with yeast, and anaerobic conditions so ethanol is not oxidised further.

Q57Poly(ethene) is formed from ethene. This type of polymerisation is called

(A) condensation polymerisation
(B) addition polymerisation
(C) cracking
(D) esterification
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Addition polymerisation joins many alkene monomer molecules together with no other product formed; the C=C bonds open up to link the units.

Q58Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol to form

(A) an alkane and water
(B) a polymer and water
(C) an ester and water
(D) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form esters: ethanoic acid + ethanol ⇌ ethyl ethanoate + water. This is esterification.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59In a chromatography experiment a spot moves 4.0 cm from the baseline while the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. The Rf value of the spot is

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.25
(C) 12.0
(D) 0.5
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.5.

Q60A white precipitate forms when dilute nitric acid and then silver nitrate solution are added to a solution. The solution contains

(A) sulfate ions
(B) carbonate ions
(C) chloride ions
(D) nitrate ions
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silver nitrate in the presence of dilute nitric acid gives a white precipitate of silver chloride if chloride ions are present.