IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 5
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1A liquid changes into a gas at a temperature below its boiling point. This process is called
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Correct: (B)
Evaporation is the change from liquid to gas that takes place at the surface of a liquid at any temperature below its boiling point.
Q2Four gases are placed in a closed tube at the same temperature. Which gas diffuses the fastest?
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Correct: (A)
The gas with the smallest Mr diffuses fastest. Ammonia has the lowest Mr (17), so its particles move and spread the fastest.
Q3Which statement about the particles in a solid is correct?
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Correct: (C)
In a solid the particles are held in fixed positions by strong forces and can only vibrate about those positions.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is its nucleon (mass) number?
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Correct: (D)
Nucleon number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.
Q5Isotopes of the same element have
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Correct: (B)
Isotopes have the same proton number (so they are the same element) but different numbers of neutrons.
Q6An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,6. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?
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Correct: (C)
The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell. There are 6 outer electrons, so the element is in Group VI.
Q7How is an ionic bond formed between a metal atom and a non-metal atom?
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Correct: (D)
In ionic bonding the metal atom loses electrons and the non-metal atom gains them, forming oppositely charged ions that attract each other.
Q8Which statement about diamond is correct?
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Correct: (B)
In diamond each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds to four other carbon atoms, giving a giant structure that is very hard with a very high melting point.
Q9Which substance contains covalent bonds only?
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Correct: (A)
Methane is made of non-metal atoms only, joined by shared pairs of electrons. MgO and NaCl are ionic, and calcium has metallic bonding.
Q10Sodium chloride does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct when molten. This is because in the molten state
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Correct: (C)
In solid sodium chloride the ions are locked in fixed positions. When molten, the ions are free to move to the electrodes and carry the charge.
Q11A chlorine atom has 17 electrons arranged 2,8,7. What happens when it forms a chloride ion?
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Correct: (D)
The chlorine atom gains one electron to complete its outer shell, forming a Cl^- ion with the stable configuration 2,8,8.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.
Q13What volume does 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (B)
Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.
Q14A solution contains 0.20 mol of sodium hydroxide dissolved in 500 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?
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Correct: (C)
Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.20 / 0.500 = 0.40 mol/dm^3.
Q15A hydrocarbon contains 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
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Correct: (D)
Moles of C = 80 / 12 = 6.67; moles of H = 20 / 1 = 20. Ratio C : H = 6.67 : 20 = 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.
Q16Magnesium reacts with excess oxygen to form magnesium oxide. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 2.4 g of magnesium? (Ar: Mg = 24, O = 16)
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Correct: (A)
Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol. This forms 0.10 mol of MgO. Mr of MgO = 24 + 16 = 40, so mass = 0.10 × 40 = 4.0 g.
Q17In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 50 g but only 40 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100 = (40 / 50) × 100 = 80%.
Q18How many moles of water molecules are there in 36 g of water? (Mr of H2O = 18)
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Correct: (C)
Moles = 36 / 18 = 2 mol.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is produced at the cathode (negative electrode)?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode in preference to sodium ions because sodium is higher in the reactivity series, so hydrogen gas is produced.
Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert (graphite) electrodes. What is seen at the cathode?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so copper ions are discharged and a pink-brown layer of copper metal forms on the cathode.
Q21Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed. To which electrode do the bromide ions move, and why?
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Correct: (B)
Bromide ions are negative (anions), so they are attracted to the positive electrode, the anode, where they form bromine.
Q22In electroplating a steel spoon with silver, how should the spoon be connected?
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Correct: (C)
The object to be plated is made the cathode (negative electrode) so that positive silver ions are attracted to it and form a layer of silver on its surface.
Q23Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Cryolite is added to the aluminium oxide mainly to
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Correct: (D)
Cryolite dissolves the aluminium oxide and lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte, saving energy. The aluminium oxide itself melts at over 2000°C.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?
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Correct: (A)
An exothermic reaction gives out energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings rises.
Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)
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Correct: (B)
Energy taken in breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy given out forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. Energy change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q26Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Thermal decomposition requires continuous heating because it takes in energy. Burning and neutralisation are exothermic, and freezing gives out energy.
Q27In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, the overall reaction is the same as
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Correct: (D)
In the fuel cell hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water, exactly as when hydrogen burns in oxygen, but the energy is released as electricity.
Q28On an energy level diagram for an exothermic reaction, the activation energy is the energy difference between
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Correct: (A)
The activation energy is the minimum energy particles need to react, shown as the gap between the reactant level and the peak of the barrier.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29The rate of a reaction increases when the temperature is raised. This is mainly because
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Correct: (B)
At a higher temperature the particles move faster, collide more often, and a much larger fraction of the collisions have enough energy to react.
Q30What does a catalyst do in a chemical reaction?
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Correct: (C)
A catalyst speeds up a reaction by providing a different route with a lower activation energy, and it is chemically unchanged at the end.
Q31Marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid. Which method is best for measuring the rate of this reaction?
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Correct: (D)
The reaction produces carbon dioxide gas, so collecting and measuring the gas volume at regular time intervals gives the rate directly.
Q32Which reaction is reversible and reaches equilibrium in a sealed container?
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Correct: (A)
Copper(II) sulfate dehydration is a classic reversible reaction: heating drives off the water and adding water reverses the change. The others go to completion.
Q33Ammonia is made in the Haber process: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. Which set of conditions is used industrially?
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Correct: (B)
The Haber process uses about 450°C as a compromise temperature, about 200 atm pressure, and an iron catalyst.
Q34Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. In this reaction
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Correct: (C)
Zinc atoms lose electrons to form Zn^2+ ions, so zinc is oxidised. The copper(II) ions gain electrons and are reduced.
Q35In the reaction 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO, the oxidising agent is
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Correct: (D)
Oxygen gains electrons from magnesium, causing magnesium to be oxidised, so oxygen is the oxidising agent (and is itself reduced).
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Which pH value is most likely for a strong acid such as hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (A)
Strong acids fully ionise in solution and have very low pH values, around pH 1 for a concentrated laboratory acid.
Q37When dilute sulfuric acid reacts with magnesium carbonate, the products are
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Correct: (B)
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide. Here the salt formed is magnesium sulfate.
Q38An alkali is best described as
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Correct: (C)
An alkali is a base that dissolves in water, releasing OH^- ions into the solution, giving a pH above 7.
Q39Which salt can be prepared by a precipitation reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Barium sulfate is insoluble, so it is made by precipitation: mixing two solutions containing Ba^2+ and SO4^2- ions forms the solid salt immediately.
Q40Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis. It is therefore described as
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Correct: (A)
An oxide that reacts with both acids and alkalis is amphoteric. Aluminium oxide and zinc oxide are the standard examples.
Q41Which test is used to identify sulfate ions in a solution?
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Correct: (B)
Ba^2+ ions react with sulfate ions to give a white precipitate of barium sulfate, which stays insoluble when dilute hydrochloric acid is added.
Q42Universal indicator is added to a sample of aqueous sodium hydroxide. What colour is seen?
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Correct: (C)
Sodium hydroxide is a strong alkali (pH about 13-14), so universal indicator turns blue to purple.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43What happens to the reactivity of the Group I metals as you go down the group from lithium to potassium?
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Correct: (D)
Group I metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.
Q44Chlorine is bubbled into aqueous potassium bromide. What is observed?
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Correct: (A)
Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine from its salt: Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2. The bromine colours the solution orange-brown.
Q45Which is a typical property of transition elements and their compounds?
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Correct: (C)
Transition elements form coloured compounds, have variable oxidation states, and many are used as catalysts, e.g. iron in the Haber process.
Q46The noble gases are very unreactive because their atoms
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Correct: (B)
Noble gas atoms already have a full, stable outer electron shell, so they do not need to lose, gain or share electrons.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which metal can displace all of the others from solutions of their salts?
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Correct: (D)
Potassium is the most reactive of the four metals listed, so it displaces copper, iron and zinc from their compounds.
Q48In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is converted into iron. The main reducing agent is
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Correct: (A)
Coke burns to form carbon monoxide, which reduces the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.
Q49Iron rusts when it is in contact with
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Correct: (B)
Rusting needs both air (oxygen) and water together. Painting, oiling or coating the iron works by keeping these away from the surface.
Q50Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc. Brass is harder than pure copper mainly because
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Correct: (C)
In an alloy the different-sized atoms disrupt the regular layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other as easily, making the alloy harder and stronger.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies in water treatment plants in order to
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Correct: (A)
Chlorination sterilises the water by killing bacteria and other microorganisms that could cause disease.
Q52Approximately what percentage of clean, dry air is nitrogen?
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Correct: (C)
Clean air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 1% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.
Q53Ammonium nitrate is used as a fertiliser because it provides plants with the essential element
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Correct: (B)
Fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (NPK). Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is valued for its high nitrogen content.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (C)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2, e.g. methane CH4 and ethane C2H6.
Q55Which test shows that a gas is ethene rather than ethane?
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Correct: (D)
Ethene is unsaturated and undergoes addition with bromine, decolourising the orange bromine water. Ethane, being saturated, does not react.
Q56Ethanol is made industrially by the hydration of ethene and also by fermentation. In fermentation, glucose is converted by yeast. The conditions needed are
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Correct: (A)
Fermentation works best at about 37°C (warm, so the yeast enzymes are not denatured), with yeast, and anaerobic conditions so ethanol is not oxidised further.
Q57Poly(ethene) is formed from ethene. This type of polymerisation is called
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Correct: (B)
Addition polymerisation joins many alkene monomer molecules together with no other product formed; the C=C bonds open up to link the units.
Q58Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol to form
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Correct: (C)
Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form esters: ethanoic acid + ethanol ⇌ ethyl ethanoate + water. This is esterification.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59In a chromatography experiment a spot moves 4.0 cm from the baseline while the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. The Rf value of the spot is
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Correct: (D)
Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.5.
Q60A white precipitate forms when dilute nitric acid and then silver nitrate solution are added to a solution. The solution contains
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Correct: (C)
Silver nitrate in the presence of dilute nitric acid gives a white precipitate of silver chloride if chloride ions are present.
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