IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 4
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Which change of state is condensation?
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Correct: (B)
Condensation is the change from a gas to a liquid, when gas particles lose energy and come closer together.
Q2Which statement describes the particles in a solid?
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Correct: (A)
In a solid the particles are held in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.
Q3A pure substance is heated and its temperature is recorded. During melting, the temperature
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Correct: (D)
During a change of state, the energy supplied breaks forces between particles instead of raising the temperature, so the temperature stays constant.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom has proton number 17 and nucleon number 35. How many neutrons does it contain?
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Correct: (C)
Number of neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 35 – 17 = 18.
Q5What is the electronic configuration of an aluminium atom (proton number 13)?
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Correct: (C)
The first shell holds 2 and the second holds 8, leaving 13 – 10 = 3 electrons in the third shell.
Q6Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?
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Correct: (B)
The nucleus contains protons and neutrons; the electrons are arranged in shells around the nucleus.
Q7Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. Why does graphite conduct electricity?
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Correct: (A)
In graphite each carbon atom uses only three of its electrons in bonding within the layers; the fourth electron is delocalised and free to carry charge.
Q8Which statement about magnesium oxide, MgO, is correct?
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Correct: (D)
MgO is an ionic compound: oppositely charged ions are held in a giant lattice. It conducts electricity only when molten or aqueous, when the ions can move.
Q9A chlorine atom has 17 electrons. How many electrons does a chloride ion, Cl^-, have?
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Correct: (D)
The chloride ion forms when a chlorine atom gains one electron: 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.
Q10Which substance is made of simple molecules with weak forces between the molecules?
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Correct: (C)
Chlorine exists as simple Cl2 molecules with weak intermolecular forces, so it has a low boiling point. The others have giant structures.
Q11How many electrons are in the outer shell of a nitrogen atom (electronic configuration 2,5)?
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Correct: (B)
The configuration 2,5 means 2 electrons in the first shell and 5 electrons in the outer (second) shell.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12What is the relative formula mass of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)2? (Ar: Mg = 24, O = 16, H = 1)
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Correct: (A)
Mr = 24 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 24 + 34 = 58.
Q13How many moles are in 25 g of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Mr = 100)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 25 / 100 = 0.25 mol.
Q14What is the volume of 0.50 mol of a gas at r.t.p.? (Molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = moles × molar volume = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.
Q15A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
C: 40.0/12 = 3.33; H: 6.7/1 = 6.7; O: 53.3/16 = 3.33. Ratio = 1 : 2 : 1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.
Q16A solution contains 0.20 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?
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Correct: (B)
Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.20 / 0.250 = 0.80 mol/dm^3.
Q17A reaction can produce a maximum of 60 g of product, but only 45 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (C)
Percentage yield = (45 / 60) × 100 = 75%.
Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 4.8 g of magnesium? (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr: MgO = 40)
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Correct: (A)
Moles of Mg = 4.8 / 24 = 0.20 mol, which forms 0.20 mol of MgO. Mass = 0.20 × 40 = 8.0 g.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Molten potassium bromide is electrolysed. What is formed at the positive electrode (anode)?
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Correct: (D)
The negative bromide ions move to the positive electrode, lose electrons and form bromine.
Q20During electrolysis, positive ions (cations) move towards the
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Correct: (B)
The cathode is the negative electrode, so it attracts the positively charged cations.
Q21Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes (instead of inert electrodes). What happens?
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Correct: (D)
With copper electrodes, copper dissolves from the anode (Cu → Cu^2+ + 2e^-) and is deposited on the cathode, so the solution concentration stays the same.
Q22Which metal is extracted from its ore by electrolysis?
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Correct: (B)
Aluminium is a very reactive metal, above carbon in the reactivity series, so it is extracted by electrolysis of its molten oxide.
Q23Two metals are used as electrodes in a simple cell with an electrolyte. Which pair of metals gives the largest voltage?
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Correct: (C)
The voltage is largest when the two metals are furthest apart in the reactivity series; magnesium is much more reactive than copper.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (A)
Thermal decomposition takes in heat from the surroundings (the mixture must be kept heated), so it is endothermic.
Q25Estimate the energy change for N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 using bond energies. (kJ/mol: N≡N = 945, H-H = 436, N-H = 391)
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken: 945 + (3 × 436) = 2253 kJ. Bonds formed: 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ. Energy change = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol.
Q26A fuel is burned in a calorimeter and heats 100 g of water, raising its temperature by 20 °C. How much energy is transferred to the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)
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Correct: (C)
Energy = 100 × 4.2 × 20 = 8400 J = 8.4 kJ.
Q27In an exothermic reaction, the products have
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Correct: (B)
In an exothermic reaction energy is released to the surroundings, so the products end up with less energy than the reactants.
Q28Which is an advantage of using hydrogen as a fuel in a fuel cell?
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Correct: (D)
In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell the product is water only, making it a clean source of electrical energy.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Which change increases the rate of the reaction between zinc and dilute sulfuric acid?
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Correct: (B)
Powder has a much larger surface area than a lump, so collisions at the surface happen more frequently and the rate increases.
Q30The rate of a reaction that produces a gas is being measured. Which method can be used to follow the rate?
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Correct: (D)
Plotting the volume of gas produced against time gives the rate; the steeper the gradient, the faster the reaction.
Q31Raising the temperature increases the rate of a reaction mainly because the particles
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Correct: (A)
At higher temperature the particles move faster, colliding more often, and more of the collisions exceed the activation energy.
Q32Which conditions are used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia?
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Correct: (C)
The Haber process uses about 450 °C and 200 atm with an iron catalyst, a compromise between rate and yield.
Q33Hydrogen reduces copper(II) oxide: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O. Which substance is reduced?
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Correct: (D)
Copper(II) oxide loses oxygen (and the copper gains electrons, +2 to 0), so CuO is reduced; hydrogen is oxidised.
Q34In terms of electrons, oxidation is
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Correct: (A)
Oxidation Is Loss of electrons (OIL); reduction is gain of electrons.
Q35Which statement about a system at equilibrium is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Equilibrium is dynamic: both reactions continue at equal rates, so the overall amounts remain constant.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Which is a property of a dilute acid?
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Correct: (B)
Acids turn blue litmus red and have a pH below 7. Feeling soapy and containing OH^- ions are properties of alkalis.
Q37Which oxide is a basic oxide?
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Correct: (B)
Calcium oxide is a metal oxide; it reacts with acids to form a salt and water, so it is basic. The others are acidic non-metal oxides.
Q38Which method is used to prepare a pure sample of zinc sulfate crystals?
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Correct: (C)
Zinc sulfate is soluble, so it is made by reacting an insoluble solid (zinc carbonate) with the acid, filtering off the excess, and crystallising the solution.
Q39Which salt is prepared by titration, using an indicator to find the end point?
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Correct: (D)
Sodium chloride is made by titrating sodium hydroxide solution with hydrochloric acid, because both the alkali and the salt are soluble and colourless.
Q40What is the test for nitrate ions in a solution?
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Correct: (A)
Nitrate ions are reduced by aluminium in alkaline solution to ammonia gas, which is alkaline and turns damp red litmus blue.
Q41What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation of an acid by an alkali?
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Correct: (A)
In every acid-alkali neutralisation, hydrogen ions from the acid react with hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water; the other ions are spectators.
Q42Aluminium oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solution. Aluminium oxide is described as
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Correct: (D)
An oxide that reacts with both acids and alkalis is called amphoteric; zinc oxide is another example.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43An atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,8,2. In which group and period is this element?
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Correct: (B)
Four shells means Period 4 and 2 outer electrons means Group II (the element is calcium).
Q44Fluorine, chlorine and bromine are in Group VII. Which of them is the most reactive?
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Correct: (C)
Reactivity decreases down Group VII, so of the halogens listed, chlorine (the highest in the group) is the most reactive.
Q45How do transition elements differ from Group I metals?
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Correct: (C)
Transition elements form coloured compounds, have high melting points and variable oxidation states, unlike the Group I metals.
Q46Why are the noble gases (Group VIII/0) very unreactive?
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Correct: (B)
Noble gas atoms already have a full outer electron shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which metal does not react with cold water but does react with steam?
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Correct: (A)
Magnesium reacts extremely slowly with cold water but reacts with steam to form magnesium oxide and hydrogen. Potassium and calcium react with cold water; copper does not react even with steam.
Q48Stainless steel is an alloy of iron. Which other metal is mixed with iron to make stainless steel?
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Correct: (D)
Stainless steel contains chromium (and often nickel), which gives the steel its resistance to rusting.
Q49Zinc is extracted from zinc oxide in industry by
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Correct: (D)
Zinc is in the middle of the reactivity series, so its oxide is reduced by heating with carbon (coke): ZnO + C → Zn + CO.
Q50What is the chemical name of rust?
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Correct: (A)
Rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe2O3.xH2O, formed when iron is exposed to oxygen and water.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Which pollutant gas is the main cause of acid rain?
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Correct: (B)
Sulfur dioxide, released when fossil fuels containing sulfur burn, dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain.
Q52Which compound, used in fertilisers, contains both nitrogen and phosphorus?
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Correct: (C)
Ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4, contains nitrogen (from the ammonium ions) and phosphorus (from the phosphate ions).
Q53Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies in order to
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Correct: (A)
A small amount of chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful microorganisms; insoluble solids are removed earlier by filtration.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (C)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2, e.g. ethane is C2H6.
Q55Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
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Correct: (D)
Saturated hydrocarbons have only single bonds and fit CnH2n+2: C4H10 (butane). The others fit CnH2n and are alkenes.
Q56Ethene reacts with steam to produce ethanol: C2H4 + H2O → C2H5OH. What are the conditions for this reaction?
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Correct: (B)
The hydration of ethene uses a phosphoric acid catalyst at about 300 °C and 60 atm pressure. Yeast is used for the fermentation method instead.
Q57Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, in the presence of a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst, to form
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Correct: (B)
Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form esters; here ethyl ethanoate and water are produced.
Q58Which statement about addition polymerisation is correct?
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Correct: (D)
In addition polymerisation, the C=C bonds of many alkene monomers open up and join into a long chain, with no by-product.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which test identifies hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (C)
Hydrogen burns explosively with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is applied. (The splint test that relights is for oxygen, and limewater tests for carbon dioxide.)
Q60A mixture of ethanol (boiling point 78 °C) and water (boiling point 100 °C) is separated in the laboratory by
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Correct: (A)
The liquids are miscible but have different boiling points, so fractional distillation separates them; filtration only works for insoluble solids in liquids.
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