IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 4

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which change of state is condensation?

(A) Liquid changing to gas
(B) Gas changing to liquid
(C) Solid changing directly to gas
(D) Solid changing to liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Condensation is the change from a gas to a liquid, when gas particles lose energy and come closer together.

Q2Which statement describes the particles in a solid?

(A) They vibrate about fixed positions
(B) They move freely and rapidly in all directions
(C) They slide past each other in a random arrangement
(D) They do not move at all
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a solid the particles are held in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.

Q3A pure substance is heated and its temperature is recorded. During melting, the temperature

(A) rises steadily
(B) falls steadily
(C) rises and then falls
(D) remains constant
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

During a change of state, the energy supplied breaks forces between particles instead of raising the temperature, so the temperature stays constant.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom has proton number 17 and nucleon number 35. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 17
(B) 35
(C) 18
(D) 52
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Number of neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 35 – 17 = 18.

Q5What is the electronic configuration of an aluminium atom (proton number 13)?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,8,2
(C) 2,8,3
(D) 8,3,2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The first shell holds 2 and the second holds 8, leaving 13 – 10 = 3 electrons in the third shell.

Q6Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

(A) Protons and electrons
(B) Protons and neutrons
(C) Neutrons and electrons
(D) Electrons only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The nucleus contains protons and neutrons; the electrons are arranged in shells around the nucleus.

Q7Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. Why does graphite conduct electricity?

(A) It contains delocalised electrons that can move between the layers
(B) It contains ions that are free to move
(C) It is softer than diamond
(D) Its atoms are held together by weak bonds only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In graphite each carbon atom uses only three of its electrons in bonding within the layers; the fourth electron is delocalised and free to carry charge.

Q8Which statement about magnesium oxide, MgO, is correct?

(A) It consists of simple molecules
(B) It conducts electricity when solid
(C) Its atoms are joined by shared pairs of electrons
(D) Its ions are held in a giant lattice by electrostatic attraction
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

MgO is an ionic compound: oppositely charged ions are held in a giant lattice. It conducts electricity only when molten or aqueous, when the ions can move.

Q9A chlorine atom has 17 electrons. How many electrons does a chloride ion, Cl^-, have?

(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 18
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The chloride ion forms when a chlorine atom gains one electron: 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.

Q10Which substance is made of simple molecules with weak forces between the molecules?

(A) Diamond
(B) Sodium chloride
(C) Chlorine
(D) Silicon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chlorine exists as simple Cl2 molecules with weak intermolecular forces, so it has a low boiling point. The others have giant structures.

Q11How many electrons are in the outer shell of a nitrogen atom (electronic configuration 2,5)?

(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 14
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The configuration 2,5 means 2 electrons in the first shell and 5 electrons in the outer (second) shell.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the relative formula mass of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)2? (Ar: Mg = 24, O = 16, H = 1)

(A) 58
(B) 42
(C) 41
(D) 74
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mr = 24 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 24 + 34 = 58.

Q13How many moles are in 25 g of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Mr = 100)

(A) 0.25 mol
(B) 2.5 mol
(C) 4.0 mol
(D) 2500 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 25 / 100 = 0.25 mol.

Q14What is the volume of 0.50 mol of a gas at r.t.p.? (Molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3)

(A) 24 dm^3
(B) 48 dm^3
(C) 6.0 dm^3
(D) 12 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = moles × molar volume = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.

Q15A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)

(A) CHO
(B) C2H4O2
(C) CH2O
(D) CH3O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

C: 40.0/12 = 3.33; H: 6.7/1 = 6.7; O: 53.3/16 = 3.33. Ratio = 1 : 2 : 1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.

Q16A solution contains 0.20 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?

(A) 0.05 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.80 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(D) 50 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.20 / 0.250 = 0.80 mol/dm^3.

Q17A reaction can produce a maximum of 60 g of product, but only 45 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 25%
(B) 133%
(C) 75%
(D) 15%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage yield = (45 / 60) × 100 = 75%.

Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 4.8 g of magnesium? (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr: MgO = 40)

(A) 8.0 g
(B) 4.8 g
(C) 2.9 g
(D) 40 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of Mg = 4.8 / 24 = 0.20 mol, which forms 0.20 mol of MgO. Mass = 0.20 × 40 = 8.0 g.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Molten potassium bromide is electrolysed. What is formed at the positive electrode (anode)?

(A) Potassium
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Bromine
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The negative bromide ions move to the positive electrode, lose electrons and form bromine.

Q20During electrolysis, positive ions (cations) move towards the

(A) anode, because it is positive
(B) cathode, because it is negative
(C) centre of the electrolyte and stay there
(D) power supply
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The cathode is the negative electrode, so it attracts the positively charged cations.

Q21Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes (instead of inert electrodes). What happens?

(A) The cathode decreases in mass
(B) The blue colour of the solution fades away completely
(C) Oxygen is formed at the anode
(D) The anode decreases in mass and the cathode increases in mass
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With copper electrodes, copper dissolves from the anode (Cu → Cu^2+ + 2e^-) and is deposited on the cathode, so the solution concentration stays the same.

Q22Which metal is extracted from its ore by electrolysis?

(A) Iron
(B) Aluminium
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Aluminium is a very reactive metal, above carbon in the reactivity series, so it is extracted by electrolysis of its molten oxide.

Q23Two metals are used as electrodes in a simple cell with an electrolyte. Which pair of metals gives the largest voltage?

(A) Copper and silver
(B) Zinc and copper
(C) Magnesium and copper
(D) Iron and copper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The voltage is largest when the two metals are furthest apart in the reactivity series; magnesium is much more reactive than copper.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which process is endothermic?

(A) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(B) Combustion of petrol
(C) Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(D) Respiration
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Thermal decomposition takes in heat from the surroundings (the mixture must be kept heated), so it is endothermic.

Q25Estimate the energy change for N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 using bond energies. (kJ/mol: N≡N = 945, H-H = 436, N-H = 391)

(A) -93 kJ/mol
(B) +93 kJ/mol
(C) -186 kJ/mol
(D) -47 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken: 945 + (3 × 436) = 2253 kJ. Bonds formed: 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ. Energy change = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol.

Q26A fuel is burned in a calorimeter and heats 100 g of water, raising its temperature by 20 °C. How much energy is transferred to the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)

(A) 0.84 kJ
(B) 84 kJ
(C) 8.4 kJ
(D) 840 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy = 100 × 4.2 × 20 = 8400 J = 8.4 kJ.

Q27In an exothermic reaction, the products have

(A) more energy than the reactants
(B) less energy than the reactants
(C) exactly the same energy as the reactants
(D) no activation energy barrier
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In an exothermic reaction energy is released to the surroundings, so the products end up with less energy than the reactants.

Q28Which is an advantage of using hydrogen as a fuel in a fuel cell?

(A) It produces large amounts of carbon dioxide
(B) It is obtained from fossil fuels
(C) It burns to form solid carbon
(D) Its only product is water, so no carbon dioxide is produced at the point of use
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell the product is water only, making it a clean source of electrical energy.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Which change increases the rate of the reaction between zinc and dilute sulfuric acid?

(A) Cooling the mixture in ice
(B) Using zinc powder instead of a lump of zinc
(C) Adding more water to the acid
(D) Using a more dilute acid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Powder has a much larger surface area than a lump, so collisions at the surface happen more frequently and the rate increases.

Q30The rate of a reaction that produces a gas is being measured. Which method can be used to follow the rate?

(A) Measuring the colour of the solution only
(B) Measuring the temperature once at the end
(C) Measuring the pH once at the start
(D) Measuring the volume of gas collected over time
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Plotting the volume of gas produced against time gives the rate; the steeper the gradient, the faster the reaction.

Q31Raising the temperature increases the rate of a reaction mainly because the particles

(A) collide more frequently and a larger fraction of the collisions have enough energy to react
(B) increase in size
(C) have a higher activation energy
(D) become more concentrated
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At higher temperature the particles move faster, colliding more often, and more of the collisions exceed the activation energy.

Q32Which conditions are used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia?

(A) 200 °C, 1000 atm and a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst
(B) 600 °C, 1 atm and no catalyst
(C) 450 °C, 200 atm and an iron catalyst
(D) Room temperature, 200 atm and an enzyme
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The Haber process uses about 450 °C and 200 atm with an iron catalyst, a compromise between rate and yield.

Q33Hydrogen reduces copper(II) oxide: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O. Which substance is reduced?

(A) H2
(B) Cu
(C) H2O
(D) CuO
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Copper(II) oxide loses oxygen (and the copper gains electrons, +2 to 0), so CuO is reduced; hydrogen is oxidised.

Q34In terms of electrons, oxidation is

(A) loss of electrons
(B) gain of electrons
(C) a decrease in oxidation number
(D) loss of oxygen from a compound
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Oxidation Is Loss of electrons (OIL); reduction is gain of electrons.

Q35Which statement about a system at equilibrium is correct?

(A) The amounts of reactants and products keep changing rapidly
(B) The forward reaction has stopped
(C) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction
(D) No products are present
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Equilibrium is dynamic: both reactions continue at equal rates, so the overall amounts remain constant.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which is a property of a dilute acid?

(A) It has a pH of about 12
(B) It turns blue litmus red
(C) It feels soapy to touch
(D) It contains mainly hydroxide ions
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acids turn blue litmus red and have a pH below 7. Feeling soapy and containing OH^- ions are properties of alkalis.

Q37Which oxide is a basic oxide?

(A) SO3
(B) CaO
(C) CO2
(D) NO2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Calcium oxide is a metal oxide; it reacts with acids to form a salt and water, so it is basic. The others are acidic non-metal oxides.

Q38Which method is used to prepare a pure sample of zinc sulfate crystals?

(A) Titration of zinc hydroxide with sulfuric acid using an indicator
(B) Precipitation by mixing zinc chloride and magnesium sulfate solutions
(C) Add excess zinc carbonate to warm dilute sulfuric acid, filter, evaporate the filtrate to the crystallisation point, then cool, filter and dry the crystals
(D) Electrolysis of zinc sulfate solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc sulfate is soluble, so it is made by reacting an insoluble solid (zinc carbonate) with the acid, filtering off the excess, and crystallising the solution.

Q39Which salt is prepared by titration, using an indicator to find the end point?

(A) Barium sulfate
(B) Copper(II) sulfate
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Sodium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sodium chloride is made by titrating sodium hydroxide solution with hydrochloric acid, because both the alkali and the salt are soluble and colourless.

Q40What is the test for nitrate ions in a solution?

(A) Add sodium hydroxide solution and aluminium foil and warm; the gas given off turns damp red litmus blue
(B) Add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(C) Add silver nitrate solution; a yellow precipitate forms
(D) Add limewater; it turns milky
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nitrate ions are reduced by aluminium in alkaline solution to ammonia gas, which is alkaline and turns damp red litmus blue.

Q41What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation of an acid by an alkali?

(A) H^+ + OH^- → H2O
(B) Na^+ + Cl^- → NaCl
(C) H^+ + Cl^- → HCl
(D) H2 + O2 → H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In every acid-alkali neutralisation, hydrogen ions from the acid react with hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water; the other ions are spectators.

Q42Aluminium oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solution. Aluminium oxide is described as

(A) acidic
(B) basic
(C) neutral
(D) amphoteric
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An oxide that reacts with both acids and alkalis is called amphoteric; zinc oxide is another example.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43An atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,8,2. In which group and period is this element?

(A) Group II, Period 2
(B) Group II, Period 4
(C) Group IV, Period 2
(D) Group VIII, Period 4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Four shells means Period 4 and 2 outer electrons means Group II (the element is calcium).

Q44Fluorine, chlorine and bromine are in Group VII. Which of them is the most reactive?

(A) Iodine
(B) Bromine
(C) Chlorine
(D) Astatine
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Reactivity decreases down Group VII, so of the halogens listed, chlorine (the highest in the group) is the most reactive.

Q45How do transition elements differ from Group I metals?

(A) They have low melting points
(B) They react extremely fast with cold water
(C) They form coloured compounds
(D) They all form ions with a single +1 charge
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Transition elements form coloured compounds, have high melting points and variable oxidation states, unlike the Group I metals.

Q46Why are the noble gases (Group VIII/0) very unreactive?

(A) They are all gases at room temperature
(B) They have a complete outer shell of electrons
(C) They have very low boiling points
(D) They have only one shell of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Noble gas atoms already have a full outer electron shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal does not react with cold water but does react with steam?

(A) Magnesium
(B) Potassium
(C) Calcium
(D) Copper
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Magnesium reacts extremely slowly with cold water but reacts with steam to form magnesium oxide and hydrogen. Potassium and calcium react with cold water; copper does not react even with steam.

Q48Stainless steel is an alloy of iron. Which other metal is mixed with iron to make stainless steel?

(A) Carbon only
(B) Zinc
(C) Tin
(D) Chromium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Stainless steel contains chromium (and often nickel), which gives the steel its resistance to rusting.

Q49Zinc is extracted from zinc oxide in industry by

(A) electrolysis of an aqueous solution
(B) heating the oxide on its own until it decomposes
(C) reacting the oxide with water
(D) heating the oxide with carbon
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Zinc is in the middle of the reactivity series, so its oxide is reduced by heating with carbon (coke): ZnO + C → Zn + CO.

Q50What is the chemical name of rust?

(A) Hydrated iron(III) oxide
(B) Iron(II) oxide
(C) Copper(II) oxide
(D) Zinc oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe2O3.xH2O, formed when iron is exposed to oxygen and water.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Which pollutant gas is the main cause of acid rain?

(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Sulfur dioxide
(C) Oxygen
(D) Methane
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur dioxide, released when fossil fuels containing sulfur burn, dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain.

Q52Which compound, used in fertilisers, contains both nitrogen and phosphorus?

(A) Ammonium sulfate
(B) Potassium nitrate
(C) Ammonium phosphate
(D) Calcium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4, contains nitrogen (from the ammonium ions) and phosphorus (from the phosphate ions).

Q53Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies in order to

(A) kill microorganisms
(B) remove insoluble solids
(C) improve the flavour
(D) remove all dissolved substances
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A small amount of chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful microorganisms; insoluble solids are removed earlier by filtration.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnHn
(C) CnH2n+2
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2, e.g. ethane is C2H6.

Q55Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

(A) C2H4
(B) C3H6
(C) C5H10
(D) C4H10
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Saturated hydrocarbons have only single bonds and fit CnH2n+2: C4H10 (butane). The others fit CnH2n and are alkenes.

Q56Ethene reacts with steam to produce ethanol: C2H4 + H2O → C2H5OH. What are the conditions for this reaction?

(A) Yeast at about 30 °C
(B) A phosphoric acid catalyst, high temperature and high pressure
(C) A nickel catalyst at 60 °C
(D) Vanadium(V) oxide at 450 °C
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The hydration of ethene uses a phosphoric acid catalyst at about 300 °C and 60 atm pressure. Yeast is used for the fermentation method instead.

Q57Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, in the presence of a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst, to form

(A) an alkene and water
(B) an ester and water
(C) a polymer
(D) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form esters; here ethyl ethanoate and water are produced.

Q58Which statement about addition polymerisation is correct?

(A) The monomers are alkanes
(B) A molecule of water is lost for each monomer that joins
(C) Only one monomer is ever used, so all addition polymers are identical
(D) Many alkene molecules join together and no other product is formed
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In addition polymerisation, the C=C bonds of many alkene monomers open up and join into a long chain, with no by-product.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which test identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) It turns limewater milky
(B) It relights a glowing splint
(C) A lighted splint gives a squeaky pop
(D) It turns damp red litmus blue
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen burns explosively with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is applied. (The splint test that relights is for oxygen, and limewater tests for carbon dioxide.)

Q60A mixture of ethanol (boiling point 78 °C) and water (boiling point 100 °C) is separated in the laboratory by

(A) fractional distillation
(B) filtration
(C) crystallisation
(D) simple evaporation to dryness
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The liquids are miscible but have different boiling points, so fractional distillation separates them; filtration only works for insoluble solids in liquids.