IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 3
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Which change is an example of sublimation?
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Correct: (A)
Sublimation is the change from a solid directly to a gas, without passing through the liquid state.
Q2A gas is compressed into a smaller volume at constant temperature. What happens to the gas particles?
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Correct: (B)
At constant temperature the particles move at the same average speed, but compression pushes them closer together, so pressure increases.
Q3A long glass tube has cotton wool soaked in ammonia solution at one end and cotton wool soaked in concentrated hydrochloric acid at the other end. A white solid (ammonium chloride) forms inside the tube. Where does it form?
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Correct: (C)
Ammonia (Mr = 17) is lighter than hydrogen chloride (Mr = 36.5), so ammonia particles diffuse faster and travel further before the two gases meet.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom of sodium has proton number 11 and nucleon number 23. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?
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Correct: (D)
Number of neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 23 – 11 = 12.
Q5What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium atom (proton number 12)?
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Correct: (B)
The shells fill as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second, leaving 12 – 10 = 2 electrons in the third shell.
Q6Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Isotopes have the same number of protons (and electrons, so the same chemistry) but different numbers of neutrons.
Q7Which substance has a giant covalent structure?
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Correct: (D)
In diamond every carbon atom is covalently bonded to four others in a giant lattice. Sodium chloride is giant ionic, and iodine and water are simple molecular.
Q8What holds the ions together in solid sodium chloride?
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Correct: (A)
Ionic compounds are held together by strong electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions in a giant lattice.
Q9An oxygen atom has 8 protons and 8 electrons. How many electrons are in an oxide ion, O^2-?
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Correct: (C)
The oxide ion is formed when an oxygen atom gains 2 electrons: 8 + 2 = 10 electrons.
Q10Which molecule contains a double covalent bond?
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Correct: (D)
An oxygen molecule has a double bond (O=O). H2, HCl and Cl2 each contain only a single covalent bond.
Q11Why do metals conduct electricity when solid?
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Correct: (A)
In a metal, the outer electrons are delocalised and can move through the lattice carrying the charge. The ions stay in fixed positions in the solid.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12What is the relative molecular mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (B)
Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.
Q13How many moles are in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (D)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.50 mol.
Q14Hydrogen burns in oxygen: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. What volume of oxygen, at r.t.p., is needed to react completely with 48 dm^3 of hydrogen?
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Correct: (A)
The ratio H2 : O2 is 2 : 1, so the oxygen volume = 48 / 2 = 24 dm^3.
Q15A compound contains 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
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Correct: (B)
C: 80/12 = 6.67; H: 20/1 = 20. Ratio = 6.67 : 20 = 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.
Q16A solution is made by dissolving 5.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) in water and making the volume up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (C)
Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol. Concentration = 0.10 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.
Q17In a reaction, the theoretical yield of a product is 40 g but only 32 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (A)
Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) × 100 = (32 / 40) × 100 = 80%.
Q18What mass of carbon dioxide is produced when 10 g of calcium carbonate reacts completely with excess dilute hydrochloric acid? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (C)
Moles of CaCO3 = 10 / 100 = 0.10 mol, which forms 0.10 mol of CO2. Mass = 0.10 × 44 = 4.4 g.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (B)
At the cathode, hydrogen ions are discharged in preference to sodium ions because sodium is high in the reactivity series, so hydrogen gas is formed.
Q20Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (D)
The positive lead(II) ions move to the negative electrode, gain electrons and form molten lead.
Q21Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert (graphite) electrodes. Which ion is discharged at the cathode?
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Correct: (B)
Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so copper(II) ions are discharged in preference to hydrogen ions, and copper metal coats the cathode.
Q22A steel spoon is to be electroplated with silver. Which arrangement is correct?
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Correct: (D)
The object to be plated is always the cathode, and the electrolyte must contain ions of the plating metal, here Ag^+ from silver nitrate.
Q23A simple cell is made with zinc and copper electrodes in dilute sulfuric acid. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc is the negative electrode; it loses electrons, which flow through the external wire to the copper electrode.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which process is exothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Combustion releases heat energy to the surroundings, so it is exothermic. The other three processes take in energy.
Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431)
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Correct: (D)
Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. Overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q26When 50 g of water in a calorimeter is heated, its temperature rises by 10 °C. How much energy is absorbed by the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)
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Correct: (C)
Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 50 × 4.2 × 10 = 2100 J = 2.1 kJ.
Q27A reaction mixture is endothermic. What happens to the temperature of the surroundings during the reaction?
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Correct: (A)
An endothermic reaction takes in heat from the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings falls.
Q28Which fuel produces only water as a product when it burns?
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Correct: (B)
Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form only water: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. The other fuels also produce carbon dioxide.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Marble chips (calcium carbonate) react with dilute hydrochloric acid. Which change increases the rate of reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Raising the temperature gives the particles more energy, so collisions are more frequent and more energetic, increasing the rate.
Q30Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction. What is the explanation using collision theory?
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Correct: (A)
A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, so successful collisions occur more often.
Q31How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst speeds up the reaction by lowering the activation energy; it is not used up and does not change the yield.
Q32Ammonia is made in the Haber process: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (B)
For an exothermic forward reaction, raising the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (backward) direction, so the yield of ammonia decreases.
Q33Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. Which substance is oxidised?
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Correct: (B)
Zinc atoms lose electrons to form Zn^2+ ions. Loss of electrons is oxidation, so zinc is oxidised (copper(II) ions are reduced).
Q34Which reaction is a redox reaction?
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Correct: (D)
In (D) magnesium is oxidised (0 to +2) and hydrogen is reduced (+1 to 0). The others involve no change in oxidation state.
Q35A reversible reaction in a closed system has reached equilibrium. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (C)
At equilibrium the forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates, so the concentrations stay constant (they do not have to be equal).
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36What is the pH of a strong alkali such as concentrated sodium hydroxide solution?
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Correct: (A)
Strong alkalis have a high pH, typically 13-14 on the pH scale.
Q37Which oxide is acidic?
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Correct: (B)
Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic; it reacts with alkalis and forms sulfurous/sulfuric acid in water. The others are basic metal oxides.
Q38A student needs a pure, dry sample of copper(II) sulfate crystals. Which method is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Copper(II) sulfate is made from an insoluble base/carbonate and acid; filtration removes the excess solid, and crystallisation gives pure crystals. Copper metal does not react with dilute sulfuric acid.
Q39Which salt is prepared by the precipitation method?
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Correct: (C)
Barium sulfate is insoluble, so it is made by mixing solutions of a soluble barium salt and a soluble sulfate, then filtering, washing and drying the precipitate.
Q40Which reagent is used to test for sulfate ions in a solution (after adding dilute hydrochloric acid)?
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Correct: (A)
Ba^2+ ions form a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions, which would also give a white precipitate.
Q41What are the products when a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate?
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Correct: (C)
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide, e.g. 2HCl + CaCO3 → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2.
Q42A few drops of Universal Indicator are added to a solution and the colour is orange. The solution is
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Correct: (A)
Orange corresponds to about pH 4-5, which is a weak acid. A strong acid would turn the indicator red, and alkalis give blue/purple.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,6. In which group and period of the Periodic Table is it?
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Correct: (B)
Three shells of electrons means Period 3, and 6 electrons in the outer shell means Group VI (it is sulfur).
Q44What happens to the reactivity of the Group I metals as you go down the group?
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Correct: (D)
Reactivity increases down Group I (lithium reacts gently with water, potassium reacts violently), because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.
Q45Which is a property of the transition elements?
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Correct: (D)
Transition elements form coloured compounds (e.g. blue copper(II) sulfate), have high melting points and variable oxidation states.
Q46Chlorine is a pale green gas, bromine is a red-brown liquid and iodine is a dark grey solid. What happens to the colour of the Group VII elements as you go down the group?
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Correct: (B)
The colours get darker down Group VII, while reactivity decreases.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which metal reacts most vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (C)
Magnesium is the highest of these metals in the reactivity series, so it reacts most vigorously, producing hydrogen rapidly.
Q48In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron. Which gas does the reducing?
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Correct: (A)
Carbon monoxide, formed from coke, reduces the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.
Q49Why is aluminium used to make aircraft bodies?
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Correct: (A)
Aluminium is light (low density) and its protective oxide layer makes it corrosion-resistant, which is ideal for aircraft.
Q50Painting an iron gate prevents rusting mainly because the paint
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Correct: (D)
Rusting needs both oxygen and water; a paint layer forms a barrier that excludes both from the iron surface.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Which gas, released when fossil fuels burn, is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (B)
Carbon dioxide from burning fossil fuels contributes to the enhanced greenhouse effect and global warming.
Q52Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is used as a fertiliser. Which element does it supply to the soil?
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Correct: (C)
Fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (NPK). Ammonium nitrate supplies nitrogen, which plants need for growth.
Q53In the treatment of water for drinking, filtration is used to
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Correct: (B)
Filtration (through sand beds) removes insoluble solid particles; chlorine is added separately to kill microorganisms.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the molecular formula of ethane?
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Correct: (A)
Ethane is an alkane with two carbon atoms: CnH2n+2 gives C2H6.
Q55Which compound is an alkene?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n, so C3H6 is an alkene (propene). The others are alkanes.
Q56Which test shows that a compound is an alkene?
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Correct: (D)
Alkenes have a C=C double bond and decolourise bromine water by addition. Alkanes do not react with bromine water in the dark.
Q57Ethanol is made by the fermentation of glucose solution. Which conditions are needed?
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Correct: (C)
Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast, works best at about 30 °C, and air must be kept out so the ethanol is not oxidised.
Q58Poly(propene) is a plastic made by addition polymerisation. Which compound is its monomer?
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Correct: (D)
The monomer has the same name as the polymer without "poly": propene molecules join together to form poly(propene).
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which reagent is used to test for chloride ions in a solution (after adding dilute nitric acid)?
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Correct: (A)
Ag^+ ions form a white precipitate of silver chloride with chloride ions.
Q60In a chromatography experiment, the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. A dye has an Rf value of 0.80. How far does the dye move?
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Correct: (B)
Rf = distance moved by dye / distance moved by solvent, so distance moved by dye = 0.80 × 10.0 = 8.0 cm.
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