IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 3

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which change is an example of sublimation?

(A) Solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) changing directly into a gas
(B) Ice melting to form liquid water
(C) Water vapour condensing on a cold window
(D) Liquid water boiling to form steam
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sublimation is the change from a solid directly to a gas, without passing through the liquid state.

Q2A gas is compressed into a smaller volume at constant temperature. What happens to the gas particles?

(A) They move faster
(B) They become closer together
(C) They get bigger
(D) They stop moving
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At constant temperature the particles move at the same average speed, but compression pushes them closer together, so pressure increases.

Q3A long glass tube has cotton wool soaked in ammonia solution at one end and cotton wool soaked in concentrated hydrochloric acid at the other end. A white solid (ammonium chloride) forms inside the tube. Where does it form?

(A) Exactly in the middle of the tube
(B) Nearer the ammonia end, because hydrogen chloride particles diffuse faster
(C) Nearer the hydrochloric acid end, because ammonia particles are lighter and diffuse faster
(D) It does not form at all
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ammonia (Mr = 17) is lighter than hydrogen chloride (Mr = 36.5), so ammonia particles diffuse faster and travel further before the two gases meet.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of sodium has proton number 11 and nucleon number 23. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?

(A) 11
(B) 34
(C) 23
(D) 12
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Number of neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 23 – 11 = 12.

Q5What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium atom (proton number 12)?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,8,2
(C) 2,6,4
(D) 8,2,2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The shells fill as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second, leaving 12 – 10 = 2 electrons in the third shell.

Q6Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?

(A) They have different proton numbers
(B) They have different chemical properties
(C) They have different numbers of neutrons
(D) They have the same nucleon number
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Isotopes have the same number of protons (and electrons, so the same chemistry) but different numbers of neutrons.

Q7Which substance has a giant covalent structure?

(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Water
(C) Solid iodine
(D) Diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In diamond every carbon atom is covalently bonded to four others in a giant lattice. Sodium chloride is giant ionic, and iodine and water are simple molecular.

Q8What holds the ions together in solid sodium chloride?

(A) Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
(B) Shared pairs of electrons between the ions
(C) Weak forces between molecules
(D) Attraction between positive nuclei only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ionic compounds are held together by strong electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions in a giant lattice.

Q9An oxygen atom has 8 protons and 8 electrons. How many electrons are in an oxide ion, O^2-?

(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 18
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The oxide ion is formed when an oxygen atom gains 2 electrons: 8 + 2 = 10 electrons.

Q10Which molecule contains a double covalent bond?

(A) H2
(B) HCl
(C) Cl2
(D) O2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An oxygen molecule has a double bond (O=O). H2, HCl and Cl2 each contain only a single covalent bond.

Q11Why do metals conduct electricity when solid?

(A) They contain delocalised electrons that are free to move
(B) They contain ions that are free to move
(C) Their atoms are free to slide over each other
(D) Their protons are free to move
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a metal, the outer electrons are delocalised and can move through the lattice carrying the charge. The ions stay in fixed positions in the solid.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the relative molecular mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 84
(B) 100
(C) 68
(D) 116
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.

Q13How many moles are in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.25 mol
(B) 2.0 mol
(C) 128 mol
(D) 0.50 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q14Hydrogen burns in oxygen: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. What volume of oxygen, at r.t.p., is needed to react completely with 48 dm^3 of hydrogen?

(A) 24 dm^3
(B) 48 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The ratio H2 : O2 is 2 : 1, so the oxygen volume = 48 / 2 = 24 dm^3.

Q15A compound contains 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH2
(B) CH3
(C) CH
(D) C2H4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

C: 80/12 = 6.67; H: 20/1 = 20. Ratio = 6.67 : 20 = 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.

Q16A solution is made by dissolving 5.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) in water and making the volume up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.20 mol/dm^3
(D) 2.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol. Concentration = 0.10 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.

Q17In a reaction, the theoretical yield of a product is 40 g but only 32 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 80%
(B) 20%
(C) 125%
(D) 60%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) × 100 = (32 / 40) × 100 = 80%.

Q18What mass of carbon dioxide is produced when 10 g of calcium carbonate reacts completely with excess dilute hydrochloric acid? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CO2 = 44)

(A) 2.2 g
(B) 10 g
(C) 4.4 g
(D) 44 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of CaCO3 = 10 / 100 = 0.10 mol, which forms 0.10 mol of CO2. Mass = 0.10 × 44 = 4.4 g.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Chlorine
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sodium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At the cathode, hydrogen ions are discharged in preference to sodium ions because sodium is high in the reactivity series, so hydrogen gas is formed.

Q20Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Bromine
(B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Lead
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The positive lead(II) ions move to the negative electrode, gain electrons and form molten lead.

Q21Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert (graphite) electrodes. Which ion is discharged at the cathode?

(A) H^+
(B) Cu^2+
(C) OH^-
(D) SO4^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so copper(II) ions are discharged in preference to hydrogen ions, and copper metal coats the cathode.

Q22A steel spoon is to be electroplated with silver. Which arrangement is correct?

(A) The spoon is the anode, in a solution of silver nitrate
(B) The spoon is the cathode, in a solution of sodium chloride
(C) The spoon is the anode, in water
(D) The spoon is the cathode, in a solution of silver nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The object to be plated is always the cathode, and the electrolyte must contain ions of the plating metal, here Ag^+ from silver nitrate.

Q23A simple cell is made with zinc and copper electrodes in dilute sulfuric acid. Which statement is correct?

(A) Zinc is the negative electrode and electrons flow from zinc to copper through the wire
(B) Copper is the negative electrode and electrons flow from copper to zinc
(C) Zinc is the positive electrode because it is less reactive
(D) Electrons flow from copper to zinc through the electrolyte
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc is the negative electrode; it loses electrons, which flow through the external wire to the copper electrode.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which process is exothermic?

(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) Combustion of methane
(D) Melting of ice
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Combustion releases heat energy to the surroundings, so it is exothermic. The other three processes take in energy.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431)

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -92 kJ/mol
(C) +92 kJ/mol
(D) -184 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. Overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q26When 50 g of water in a calorimeter is heated, its temperature rises by 10 °C. How much energy is absorbed by the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)

(A) 0.21 kJ
(B) 21 kJ
(C) 2.1 kJ
(D) 210 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 50 × 4.2 × 10 = 2100 J = 2.1 kJ.

Q27A reaction mixture is endothermic. What happens to the temperature of the surroundings during the reaction?

(A) It decreases
(B) It increases
(C) It stays exactly the same
(D) It rises and then falls
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An endothermic reaction takes in heat from the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings falls.

Q28Which fuel produces only water as a product when it burns?

(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Coal
(D) Petrol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form only water: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. The other fuels also produce carbon dioxide.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Marble chips (calcium carbonate) react with dilute hydrochloric acid. Which change increases the rate of reaction?

(A) Using larger lumps of marble
(B) Using more dilute acid
(C) Heating the acid
(D) Adding water to the mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Raising the temperature gives the particles more energy, so collisions are more frequent and more energetic, increasing the rate.

Q30Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction. What is the explanation using collision theory?

(A) There are more particles in the same volume, so collisions happen more frequently
(B) Each particle has much more energy
(C) The activation energy of the reaction decreases
(D) The particles become smaller
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, so successful collisions occur more often.

Q31How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It increases the energy of the reactant particles
(B) It increases the yield of product
(C) It is used up quickly by the reaction
(D) It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst speeds up the reaction by lowering the activation energy; it is not used up and does not change the yield.

Q32Ammonia is made in the Haber process: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?

(A) It increases
(B) It decreases
(C) It stays the same
(D) The reaction stops completely
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For an exothermic forward reaction, raising the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (backward) direction, so the yield of ammonia decreases.

Q33Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. Which substance is oxidised?

(A) Cu
(B) Zn
(C) Cu^2+ ions
(D) SO4^2- ions
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc atoms lose electrons to form Zn^2+ ions. Loss of electrons is oxidation, so zinc is oxidised (copper(II) ions are reduced).

Q34Which reaction is a redox reaction?

(A) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(B) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
(C) CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O
(D) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In (D) magnesium is oxidised (0 to +2) and hydrogen is reduced (+1 to 0). The others involve no change in oxidation state.

Q35A reversible reaction in a closed system has reached equilibrium. Which statement is correct?

(A) The concentrations of reactants and products must be equal
(B) The reaction has stopped
(C) The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction
(D) All the reactants have been converted to products
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At equilibrium the forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates, so the concentrations stay constant (they do not have to be equal).




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36What is the pH of a strong alkali such as concentrated sodium hydroxide solution?

(A) 13
(B) 1
(C) 7
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Strong alkalis have a high pH, typically 13-14 on the pH scale.

Q37Which oxide is acidic?

(A) CaO
(B) SO2
(C) Na2O
(D) MgO
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic; it reacts with alkalis and forms sulfurous/sulfuric acid in water. The others are basic metal oxides.

Q38A student needs a pure, dry sample of copper(II) sulfate crystals. Which method is correct?

(A) Titrate sulfuric acid with sodium hydroxide, then evaporate the solution to dryness
(B) Mix sulfuric acid with barium chloride solution and filter off the solid formed
(C) Add copper metal to dilute sulfuric acid and evaporate the solution
(D) Add excess copper(II) carbonate to warm dilute sulfuric acid, filter off the excess solid, evaporate the filtrate to the crystallisation point, cool, filter and dry the crystals
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Copper(II) sulfate is made from an insoluble base/carbonate and acid; filtration removes the excess solid, and crystallisation gives pure crystals. Copper metal does not react with dilute sulfuric acid.

Q39Which salt is prepared by the precipitation method?

(A) Sodium sulfate
(B) Potassium nitrate
(C) Barium sulfate
(D) Ammonium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Barium sulfate is insoluble, so it is made by mixing solutions of a soluble barium salt and a soluble sulfate, then filtering, washing and drying the precipitate.

Q40Which reagent is used to test for sulfate ions in a solution (after adding dilute hydrochloric acid)?

(A) Barium chloride solution, which gives a white precipitate
(B) Silver nitrate solution, which gives a cream precipitate
(C) Limewater, which turns milky
(D) Ammonia solution, which gives a blue solution
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ba^2+ ions form a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions, which would also give a white precipitate.

Q41What are the products when a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

(A) Salt and hydrogen only
(B) Salt and water only
(C) Salt, water and carbon dioxide
(D) Water and carbon dioxide only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide, e.g. 2HCl + CaCO3 → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2.

Q42A few drops of Universal Indicator are added to a solution and the colour is orange. The solution is

(A) weakly acidic
(B) neutral
(C) strongly acidic
(D) strongly alkaline
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Orange corresponds to about pH 4-5, which is a weak acid. A strong acid would turn the indicator red, and alkalis give blue/purple.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,6. In which group and period of the Periodic Table is it?

(A) Group II, Period 3
(B) Group VI, Period 3
(C) Group VI, Period 6
(D) Group III, Period 6
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Three shells of electrons means Period 3, and 6 electrons in the outer shell means Group VI (it is sulfur).

Q44What happens to the reactivity of the Group I metals as you go down the group?

(A) It decreases
(B) It stays the same
(C) It decreases, then increases
(D) It increases
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Reactivity increases down Group I (lithium reacts gently with water, potassium reacts violently), because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.

Q45Which is a property of the transition elements?

(A) They have low melting points
(B) They form only +1 ions
(C) They are soft and can be cut with a knife
(D) They form coloured compounds
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition elements form coloured compounds (e.g. blue copper(II) sulfate), have high melting points and variable oxidation states.

Q46Chlorine is a pale green gas, bromine is a red-brown liquid and iodine is a dark grey solid. What happens to the colour of the Group VII elements as you go down the group?

(A) It becomes lighter
(B) It becomes darker
(C) It stays the same
(D) The elements become colourless
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The colours get darker down Group VII, while reactivity decreases.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal reacts most vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Magnesium
(D) Zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Magnesium is the highest of these metals in the reactivity series, so it reacts most vigorously, producing hydrogen rapidly.

Q48In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron. Which gas does the reducing?

(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Oxygen
(D) Nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon monoxide, formed from coke, reduces the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.

Q49Why is aluminium used to make aircraft bodies?

(A) It has a low density and is resistant to corrosion
(B) It has a very high density
(C) It is magnetic
(D) It is the cheapest metal
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Aluminium is light (low density) and its protective oxide layer makes it corrosion-resistant, which is ideal for aircraft.

Q50Painting an iron gate prevents rusting mainly because the paint

(A) reacts with oxygen in the air
(B) contains water that protects the iron
(C) acts as a catalyst for the rusting reaction
(D) acts as a barrier, keeping out oxygen and water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rusting needs both oxygen and water; a paint layer forms a barrier that excludes both from the iron surface.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Which gas, released when fossil fuels burn, is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon dioxide from burning fossil fuels contributes to the enhanced greenhouse effect and global warming.

Q52Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is used as a fertiliser. Which element does it supply to the soil?

(A) Potassium
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Calcium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (NPK). Ammonium nitrate supplies nitrogen, which plants need for growth.

Q53In the treatment of water for drinking, filtration is used to

(A) kill bacteria
(B) remove insoluble solids
(C) remove dissolved salts completely
(D) neutralise the water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Filtration (through sand beds) removes insoluble solid particles; chlorine is added separately to kill microorganisms.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the molecular formula of ethane?

(A) C2H6
(B) C2H4
(C) CH4
(D) C3H8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ethane is an alkane with two carbon atoms: CnH2n+2 gives C2H6.

Q55Which compound is an alkene?

(A) C2H6
(B) C4H10
(C) C3H6
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n, so C3H6 is an alkene (propene). The others are alkanes.

Q56Which test shows that a compound is an alkene?

(A) Limewater turns milky
(B) A lighted splint gives a squeaky pop
(C) Damp litmus paper turns blue
(D) Bromine water changes from orange to colourless
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes have a C=C double bond and decolourise bromine water by addition. Alkanes do not react with bromine water in the dark.

Q57Ethanol is made by the fermentation of glucose solution. Which conditions are needed?

(A) An iron catalyst and a high pressure
(B) Concentrated acid and strong heating
(C) Yeast, a warm temperature and the absence of air
(D) Electrolysis of the glucose solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast, works best at about 30 °C, and air must be kept out so the ethanol is not oxidised.

Q58Poly(propene) is a plastic made by addition polymerisation. Which compound is its monomer?

(A) Ethane
(B) Ethene
(C) Propane
(D) Propene
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The monomer has the same name as the polymer without "poly": propene molecules join together to form poly(propene).

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which reagent is used to test for chloride ions in a solution (after adding dilute nitric acid)?

(A) Silver nitrate solution, which gives a white precipitate
(B) Barium chloride solution, which gives a white precipitate
(C) Limewater, which turns milky
(D) Sodium hydroxide solution, which gives a green precipitate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ag^+ ions form a white precipitate of silver chloride with chloride ions.

Q60In a chromatography experiment, the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. A dye has an Rf value of 0.80. How far does the dye move?

(A) 12.5 cm
(B) 8.0 cm
(C) 0.80 cm
(D) 2.0 cm
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by dye / distance moved by solvent, so distance moved by dye = 0.80 × 10.0 = 8.0 cm.