IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 20

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which change of state is sublimation?

(A) liquid to gas at the boiling point
(B) gas to liquid on cooling
(C) solid directly to gas without melting
(D) solid to liquid on heating
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sublimation is when a solid changes directly into a gas without passing through the liquid state.

Q2Diffusion happens fastest in gases because

(A) gas particles move rapidly in all directions
(B) gas particles are tightly packed
(C) gas particles have very strong forces between them
(D) gas particles do not move at all
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Gas particles have lots of energy and move quickly and randomly, so they spread out and mix rapidly.

Q3What is the boiling point of pure water at atmospheric pressure?

(A) 0°C
(B) 25°C
(C) 78°C
(D) 100°C
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Pure water boils at 100°C at atmospheric pressure.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom has proton number 17 and mass number 35. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 17
(B) 18
(C) 35
(D) 52
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Neutrons = mass number – proton number = 35 – 17 = 18.

Q5What is the electronic configuration of a chlorine atom (proton number 17)?

(A) 2,8,5
(B) 2,8,6
(C) 2,8,8
(D) 2,8,7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine has 17 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 7 in the third shell.

Q6Which substance is a simple molecular (covalent) substance with a low boiling point?

(A) diamond
(B) sodium chloride
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon dioxide consists of small molecules with weak intermolecular forces, so little energy is needed to separate them.

Q7Metallic bonding is the attraction between

(A) positive metal ions and a sea of delocalised electrons
(B) positive and negative ions
(C) shared pairs of electrons and two nuclei
(D) separate metal molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a metal, the outer electrons are delocalised and hold the positive ions together in a lattice; this also explains electrical conductivity.

Q8A calcium atom has electronic configuration 2,8,8,2. How does it form a Ca^2+ ion?

(A) it gains two electrons
(B) it loses two electrons
(C) it loses two protons
(D) it shares two electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Calcium loses its two outer electrons to gain a full outer shell, forming a Ca^2+ ion.

Q9Which compound contains covalent bonds only?

(A) NaCl
(B) MgO
(C) CaCl2
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Methane is formed between two non-metals sharing electrons; the others are ionic compounds of a metal with a non-metal.

Q10An ion X^2- has electronic configuration 2,8,8. The element X is in which group of the Periodic Table?

(A) Group 2
(B) Group 18
(C) Group 16
(D) Group 14
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

X gained two electrons, so the atom had configuration 2,8,6 with 6 outer electrons, placing it in Group 16 (Group VI). It is sulfur.

Q11Graphite conducts electricity. This is because each carbon atom

(A) is bonded to three others, leaving one delocalised electron
(B) is bonded to four others in a tetrahedral lattice
(C) forms positive ions in a sea of electrons
(D) has a full outer shell with no spare electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In graphite each carbon is bonded to three others in layers, and the fourth outer electron is delocalised and free to carry charge.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the relative formula mass, Mr, of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4? (Ar: Cu = 64, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 80
(B) 100
(C) 128
(D) 160
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mr = 64 + 32 + (4 × 16) = 160.

Q13How many moles of gas are there in 36 dm^3 of gas at r.t.p.? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 0.67 mol
(B) 1.5 mol
(C) 2.0 mol
(D) 864 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = volume / 24 = 36 / 24 = 1.5 mol.

Q14What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in carbon dioxide, CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44; Ar of O = 16)

(A) 72.7%
(B) 27.3%
(C) 50.0%
(D) 33.3%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mass of oxygen in one mole = 2 × 16 = 32 g. Percentage = (32 / 44) × 100 = 72.7%.

Q15A compound has empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 84. What is its molecular formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) C3H6
(B) C5H10
(C) C6H12
(D) C6H6
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The mass of CH2 is 14. 84 / 14 = 6, so the molecular formula is 6 × CH2 = C6H12.

Q16In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of 0.10 mol/dm^3 sodium hydroxide is used. How many moles of sodium hydroxide is this?

(A) 0.025 mol
(B) 0.25 mol
(C) 2.5 mol
(D) 0.0025 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

25.0 cm^3 = 0.0250 dm^3. Moles = 0.0250 × 0.10 = 0.0025 mol.

Q17Calcium carbonate decomposes when heated: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide is formed when 10 g of calcium carbonate decomposes completely? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CO2 = 44)

(A) 4.4 g
(B) 44 g
(C) 5.6 g
(D) 10 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of CaCO3 = 10 / 100 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of CO2 forms. Mass = 0.10 × 44 = 4.4 g.

Q188 g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved to make 2 dm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 2 g/dm^3
(B) 4 g/dm^3
(C) 8 g/dm^3
(D) 16 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Concentration = mass / volume = 8 / 2 = 4 g/dm^3.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which gas is produced at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) oxygen
(B) sulfur dioxide
(C) hydrogen
(D) steam
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen ions move to the cathode and are discharged to form hydrogen gas.

Q20Cryolite is added to the aluminium oxide used in the extraction of aluminium. Why?

(A) to act as the cathode
(B) to increase the amount of aluminium formed
(C) to provide more oxide ions
(D) to lower the melting point of the aluminium oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Dissolving aluminium oxide in molten cryolite lowers the working temperature, saving energy and cost.

Q21Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What forms at the cathode?

(A) oxygen
(B) copper
(C) hydrogen
(D) sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so copper(II) ions are discharged at the cathode, coating it with copper.

Q22In electrolysis, the electrode connected to the positive terminal of the power supply is called the

(A) anode
(B) cathode
(C) electrolyte
(D) ion
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The anode is the positive electrode; negative ions (anions) move towards it.

Q23What is the overall reaction in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?

(A) H2 + O2 → H2O2
(B) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
(C) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
(D) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In the fuel cell hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water only, converting chemical energy directly into electrical energy.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which process is endothermic?

(A) neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(B) combustion of a fuel
(C) respiration
(D) thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Thermal decomposition absorbs heat from the surroundings, so it is endothermic. The others release energy.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)

(A) -862 kJ/mol
(B) -184 kJ/mol
(C) +184 kJ/mol
(D) -92 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q26In an exothermic reaction, the energy content of the products is

(A) less than the energy content of the reactants
(B) greater than the energy content of the reactants
(C) exactly equal to that of the reactants
(D) always zero
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy is released to the surroundings, so the products have less energy than the reactants and ΔH is negative.

Q27Which statement about bond breaking and bond making is correct?

(A) Bond breaking releases energy and bond making absorbs energy
(B) Both bond breaking and bond making release energy
(C) Bond breaking absorbs energy and bond making releases energy
(D) Both bond breaking and bond making absorb energy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy must be put in to break bonds (endothermic), and energy is given out when bonds form (exothermic).

Q28A fuel is burned to heat 50 g of water, and the temperature of the water rises by 10°C. How much energy is absorbed by the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)

(A) 0.21 kJ
(B) 21 kJ
(C) 210 kJ
(D) 2.1 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy = 50 × 4.2 × 10 = 2100 J = 2.1 kJ.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Which condition increases the rate of reaction between marble chips and dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) using powdered marble instead of chips
(B) using a more dilute acid
(C) cooling the acid before use
(D) using a smaller mass of marble
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Powdered marble has a much larger surface area, so there are more collisions per second with the acid and the rate increases.

Q30According to collision theory, raising the temperature increases the rate of a reaction mainly because

(A) the particles become larger
(B) the activation energy is lowered
(C) more particles have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy
(D) the volume of the container decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At a higher temperature particles move faster and collide more often, and a larger proportion of collisions have enough energy to react.

Q31For the exothermic reversible reaction 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3, which change gives a higher equilibrium yield of SO3?

(A) increasing the temperature
(B) decreasing the temperature
(C) removing the catalyst
(D) decreasing the pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The forward reaction is exothermic, so a lower temperature shifts the equilibrium towards SO3 (in industry a compromise temperature is used for a reasonable rate).

Q32Which reaction is a redox reaction?

(A) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(B) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
(C) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(D) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In the displacement reaction zinc loses electrons (oxidation) and copper(II) ions gain electrons (reduction), so it is redox. The others involve no electron transfer.

Q33A reducing agent is a substance that

(A) loses electrons and is itself oxidised
(B) gains electrons and is itself oxidised
(C) loses electrons and is itself reduced
(D) never takes part in redox reactions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A reducing agent gives electrons to another substance (reducing it) and is itself oxidised in the process.

Q34Which statement about a catalyst is correct?

(A) it is chemically changed at the end of the reaction
(B) it increases the yield of an equilibrium reaction
(C) it remains chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction
(D) it provides energy to the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst speeds up a reaction but is not used up and is chemically unchanged at the end; it does not change the equilibrium yield.

Q35In an experiment on rate, the volume of gas produced is plotted against time. The curve becomes less steep as time passes because

(A) the temperature is rising rapidly
(B) the reactants are being used up, so collisions become less frequent
(C) the catalyst is running out
(D) the product is turning back into reactants at the start
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

As reactant particles are used up their concentration falls, collisions are less frequent, and the rate decreases until the reaction finishes.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36A solution has a pH of 2. The solution is

(A) a weak alkali
(B) neutral
(C) a weak acid
(D) a strong acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A pH of 2 is well below 7, showing a strongly acidic solution.

Q37Which substance is a base?

(A) copper(II) oxide
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) sulfur dioxide
(D) ammonium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bases are metal oxides and hydroxides that neutralise acids; copper(II) oxide is a typical base. Carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide are acidic oxides.

Q38Potassium nitrate is a soluble salt of a Group I metal. Which method is used to prepare it in the laboratory?

(A) precipitation from two salt solutions
(B) adding excess metal carbonate to an acid
(C) titration of potassium hydroxide with nitric acid
(D) electrolysis of potassium nitrate solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Salts of Group I metals and ammonium salts are made by titration, using an indicator to find the exact volume of acid needed.

Q39Which test is used to identify nitrate ions?

(A) add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(B) add sodium hydroxide and aluminium foil and warm; ammonia gas is given off
(C) add silver nitrate solution; a yellow precipitate forms
(D) warm with sodium hydroxide alone; oxygen gas is given off
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nitrates are reduced by aluminium in alkaline solution on warming, releasing ammonia, which turns damp red litmus paper blue.

Q40Which pair of substances reacts to release ammonia gas when warmed?

(A) ammonium sulfate and hydrochloric acid
(B) sodium chloride and calcium hydroxide
(C) ammonium nitrate and water
(D) ammonium sulfate and calcium hydroxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An ammonium salt reacts with any alkali, such as calcium hydroxide, on warming to give off ammonia gas.

Q41Which insoluble salt is prepared by precipitation?

(A) lead(II) sulfate
(B) sodium sulfate
(C) magnesium sulfate
(D) potassium sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Lead(II) sulfate is insoluble, so it is made by mixing solutions containing Pb^2+ and SO4^2- ions and filtering the precipitate.

Q42Which metal reacts with dilute sulfuric acid to form a salt and hydrogen, at a safe, steady rate suitable for a laboratory preparation?

(A) copper
(B) silver
(C) zinc
(D) gold
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc is reactive enough to react steadily with dilute acid but not dangerously; copper, silver and gold do not react with dilute sulfuric acid.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43Which statement about the halogens is correct?

(A) iodine is a gas at room temperature
(B) bromine is a liquid at room temperature
(C) chlorine is purple
(D) reactivity increases down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine is a green gas, bromine is a red-brown liquid and iodine is a dark solid; reactivity decreases down the group.

Q44What happens when potassium is added to cold water?

(A) nothing happens
(B) it sinks and dissolves slowly without fizzing
(C) it reacts gently, forming a few bubbles
(D) it floats, melts and reacts violently, giving hydrogen and an alkaline solution
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Potassium is very reactive: it floats, melts into a ball, fizzes violently and the hydrogen may catch fire, leaving an alkaline solution of potassium hydroxide.

Q45The noble gases are unreactive because their atoms

(A) have a complete outer shell of electrons
(B) have only one electron shell
(C) are very small
(D) have equal numbers of protons and neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

With a full outer electron shell, noble gas atoms neither lose, gain nor share electrons, so they are very unreactive.

Q46What happens to the melting points of the Group I metals down the group?

(A) they increase steadily
(B) they stay the same
(C) they decrease steadily
(D) they increase then decrease
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The melting points of Group I metals decrease down the group (e.g. lithium 180°C, sodium 98°C, potassium 63°C).

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal reacts most vigorously with cold water?

(A) iron
(B) potassium
(C) copper
(D) gold
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Potassium is near the top of the reactivity series and reacts violently with cold water; iron reacts only very slowly and copper and gold do not react.

Q48In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron. The main reducing agent is

(A) oxygen
(B) limestone
(C) slag
(D) carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon burns to form carbon monoxide, which removes oxygen from the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.

Q49Why is brass harder than pure copper?

(A) the different-sized atoms in the alloy disrupt the layers, so they cannot slide easily
(B) brass contains iron, which is very hard
(C) the atoms in brass are more closely packed in a giant covalent structure
(D) brass is a compound with ionic bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disturb the regular layers of the metal, preventing them sliding over each other, so the alloy is harder.

Q50Which method of rust prevention works by sacrificial protection?

(A) painting the iron
(B) covering the iron with oil
(C) galvanising the iron with zinc
(D) covering the iron with plastic
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc is more reactive than iron, so in galvanising the zinc corrodes (reacts) in preference to the iron, protecting it even if the coating is scratched.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Ammonium nitrate is used as a fertiliser because it provides plants with

(A) phosphorus
(B) nitrogen
(C) potassium
(D) calcium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium for healthy plant growth; ammonium nitrate is a rich source of nitrogen.

Q52Acid rain is mainly caused by which gas dissolving in rainwater?

(A) carbon monoxide
(B) methane
(C) argon
(D) sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur dioxide, released when fossil fuels containing sulfur are burned, dissolves in rain to form acid rain (oxides of nitrogen also contribute).

Q53In the carbon cycle, which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

(A) photosynthesis in green plants
(B) combustion of fossil fuels
(C) respiration in animals
(D) decomposition of dead organisms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Green plants absorb carbon dioxide for photosynthesis; combustion, respiration and decomposition release it.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnH2n
(D) CnHn+2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing one C=C bond, with general formula CnH2n, e.g. ethene C2H4.

Q55Which statement about cracking is correct?

(A) it joins small molecules together to make polymers
(B) it breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter, more useful molecules, using a catalyst and high temperature
(C) it is done at room temperature without a catalyst
(D) it produces only alkanes
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cracking breaks down less useful long-chain alkanes into shorter alkanes and alkenes, using high temperature and a catalyst (or steam).

Q56Poly(chloroethene), PVC, is made by polymerising which monomer?

(A) ethene
(B) ethane
(C) ethanol
(D) chloroethene
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

PVC is the addition polymer of chloroethene monomers, used for pipes and insulation.

Q57Which test distinguishes an alkene from an alkane?

(A) aqueous bromine is decolourised by the alkene but not by the alkane
(B) both decolourise aqueous bromine immediately
(C) the alkane turns limewater milky
(D) the alkene turns damp litmus paper blue
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The C=C double bond of an alkene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, removing its colour; a saturated alkane does not react in the dark.

Q58Ethanol can be oxidised to ethanoic acid. Which reagent and conditions achieve this?

(A) yeast at 30°C without air
(B) concentrated sulfuric acid at 180°C
(C) acidified potassium dichromate(VI) on heating
(D) sodium hydroxide solution at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acidified potassium dichromate(VI) oxidises ethanol to ethanoic acid, turning from orange to green.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which method is used to separate two miscible liquids with different boiling points, such as ethanol and water?

(A) filtration
(B) fractional distillation
(C) crystallisation
(D) paper chromatography
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fractional distillation separates miscible liquids because they boil at different temperatures and can be collected separately.

Q60In paper chromatography, a dye has an Rf value of 0.75 and the solvent front moves 12.0 cm from the start line. How far does the dye move?

(A) 6.0 cm
(B) 9.0 cm
(C) 16.0 cm
(D) 0.75 cm
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by dye / distance moved by solvent, so distance = 0.75 × 12.0 = 9.0 cm.