IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 2

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1When a gas changes into a liquid, the process is called

(A) evaporation
(B) freezing
(C) condensation
(D) melting
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Condensation is the change from a gas to a liquid, which happens when the gas is cooled.

Q2Which statement about evaporation is correct?

(A) It occurs at the surface of a liquid at any temperature.
(B) It occurs throughout a liquid only at its boiling point.
(C) It changes a gas into a liquid.
(D) It only occurs when a liquid is heated to 100 °C.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Evaporation takes place at the surface of a liquid at any temperature; boiling takes place throughout the liquid at the boiling point.

Q3A gas jar of bromine vapour is placed over a gas jar of air. After some time, the bromine has spread evenly through both jars. This is evidence that

(A) bromine is heavier than air
(B) particles in gases are held in fixed positions
(C) air particles attract bromine particles strongly
(D) gas particles move randomly in all directions
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The diffusion of bromine shows that gas particles are in constant random motion and spread out to fill all the space available.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom has 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons. What is its nucleon number?

(A) 9
(B) 19
(C) 18
(D) 28
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nucleon number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 9 + 10 = 19.

Q5What is the relative charge of a neutron?

(A) +1
(B) 0
(C) -1
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Neutrons have no charge; protons have a relative charge of +1 and electrons have a relative charge of -1.

Q6An atom of an element has the electronic configuration 2,8,6. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?

(A) Group II
(B) Group IV
(C) Group VIII
(D) Group VI
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell, so the element is in Group VI (it is sulfur).

Q7Calcium has a proton number of 20. What is the electronic configuration of a Ca^2+ ion?

(A) 2,8,8
(B) 2,8,10
(C) 2,8,8,2
(D) 2,8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A calcium atom (2,8,8,2) loses its two outer electrons, leaving the Ca^2+ ion with the configuration 2,8,8.

Q8Which substance is a simple molecular substance with a low melting point?

(A) diamond
(B) silicon dioxide
(C) methane
(D) sodium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Methane consists of small molecules with weak forces between them, so very little energy is needed to separate the molecules and its melting point is low.

Q9Metals conduct electricity in both the solid and liquid states because

(A) electrons are free to move through the structure
(B) protons are free to move through the structure
(C) the atoms are free to slide over each other
(D) the ions are in fixed positions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In metals, the outer electrons are delocalised and can move through the giant structure, carrying the electric charge.

Q10How many electrons are shared in a double covalent bond?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons, which is 4 electrons in total.

Q11Graphite is soft and slippery, and is used as a lubricant, because

(A) all of the bonds in graphite are weak
(B) it is made of small molecules
(C) there are weak forces between its layers, so the layers slide over each other
(D) it contains no covalent bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In graphite the carbon atoms form layers; the forces between the layers are weak, so the layers can slide over each other easily.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the relative formula mass of magnesium sulfate, MgSO4? [Ar: Mg = 24, S = 32, O = 16]

(A) 76
(B) 96
(C) 104
(D) 120
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mr = 24 + 32 + (4 × 16) = 24 + 32 + 64 = 120.

Q13What mass of calcium carbonate contains 0.25 mol of calcium carbonate? [Mr: CaCO3 = 100]

(A) 2.5 g
(B) 4.0 g
(C) 40 g
(D) 25 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mass = moles × Mr = 0.25 × 100 = 25 g.

Q14A gas has a volume of 480 cm^3 at room temperature and pressure. How many moles of the gas are there? [Molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3]

(A) 0.002 mol
(B) 0.20 mol
(C) 0.020 mol
(D) 2.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = volume / molar volume = 480 cm^3 / 24000 cm^3 = 0.020 mol.

Q15How many moles of sodium hydroxide are present in 25.0 cm^3 of 0.100 mol/dm^3 sodium hydroxide solution?

(A) 0.0250 mol
(B) 0.00250 mol
(C) 0.250 mol
(D) 2.50 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = concentration × volume in dm^3 = 0.100 × 0.0250 = 0.00250 mol.

Q16A hydrocarbon has an empirical formula of C2H5 and a relative molecular mass of 58. What is its molecular formula? [Ar: C = 12, H = 1]

(A) C4H10
(B) C2H5
(C) C3H8
(D) C5H12
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The mass of the empirical formula is (2 × 12) + (5 × 1) = 29. 58 / 29 = 2, so the molecular formula is 2 × C2H5 = C4H10.

Q17What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in carbon dioxide, CO2? [Ar: C = 12, O = 16]

(A) 27.3%
(B) 72.7%
(C) 50.0%
(D) 36.4%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mr of CO2 = 12 + (2 × 16) = 44. Percentage of oxygen = (32 / 44) × 100 = 72.7%.

Q18What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at r.t.p., is produced when 2.4 g of magnesium reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid? [Ar: Mg = 24; molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3]

(A) 2.4 dm^3
(B) 1.2 dm^3
(C) 4.8 dm^3
(D) 24 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2, so 0.10 mol of H2 is formed; volume = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm^3.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is the main product at the anode?

(A) oxygen
(B) hydrogen
(C) chlorine
(D) sodium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a concentrated solution, chloride ions are discharged at the anode in preference to hydroxide ions, forming chlorine gas.

Q20Which statement about electrolysis is correct?

(A) Electrons flow through the electrolyte from one electrode to the other.
(B) Oxidation takes place at the cathode.
(C) The electrolyte must be a solid.
(D) At the cathode, positive ions gain electrons.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At the cathode, cations (positive ions) gain electrons and are reduced to form atoms.

Q21Which metal is extracted from its ore by electrolysis of the molten compound?

(A) iron
(B) copper
(C) zinc
(D) aluminium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium is too reactive to be extracted by reduction with carbon, so it is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide.

Q22Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed for some time. The volume of hydrogen collected, compared with the volume of oxygen collected, is

(A) half as much
(B) twice as much
(C) exactly the same
(D) four times as much
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Water decomposes according to 2H2O → 2H2 + O2, so twice the volume of hydrogen is produced compared with oxygen.

Q23During the electrolysis of an aqueous solution, which ion moves towards the anode?

(A) SO4^2-
(B) Na^+
(C) Cu^2+
(D) H^+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Negative ions (anions) such as SO4^2- are attracted to the positive anode; the other ions listed are cations and move to the cathode.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which reaction is endothermic?

(A) combustion of coal
(B) neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(C) thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(D) respiration
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings (it needs continuous heating), so it is endothermic.

Q25Calculate the energy change for the combustion of methane using bond energies: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. [Bond energies in kJ/mol: C-H = 410, O=O = 500, C=O = 805, O-H = 460]

(A) -810 kJ/mol
(B) +810 kJ/mol
(C) -890 kJ/mol
(D) -270 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken = 4(410) + 2(500) = 2640 kJ. Bonds formed = 2(805) + 4(460) = 3450 kJ. ΔH = 2640 – 3450 = -810 kJ/mol.

Q26In an endothermic reaction, the total energy of the products is

(A) lower than the energy of the reactants
(B) exactly the same as the energy of the reactants
(C) higher than the energy of the reactants
(D) always zero
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In an endothermic reaction energy is absorbed from the surroundings, so the products store more energy than the reactants.

Q27A fuel is burned and the energy released warms 200 g of water by 15 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/g°C. How much energy is released?

(A) 1.26 kJ
(B) 3.0 kJ
(C) 6.3 kJ
(D) 12.6 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy = 200 × 4.2 × 15 = 12600 J = 12.6 kJ.

Q28Hydrogen is described as a clean fuel because when it burns in air, the only product is

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) water
(C) carbon monoxide
(D) hydrogen peroxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form only water: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, so burning hydrogen produces no carbon dioxide.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29The rate of reaction between zinc and dilute sulfuric acid is increased by all of the following except

(A) using a more concentrated acid
(B) using powdered zinc instead of granules
(C) cooling the mixture
(D) warming the acid
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cooling gives the particles less energy, so there are fewer successful collisions and the rate decreases.

Q30Manganese(IV) oxide is used as a catalyst in the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. A catalyst in a reaction

(A) is used up and disappears
(B) is one of the products formed
(C) only works at very high temperatures
(D) speeds up the reaction but is chemically unchanged at the end
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction but is not used up; it can be recovered unchanged at the end.

Q31Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction because

(A) the particles gain more energy
(B) the particles are closer together, so collisions occur more frequently
(C) the activation energy increases
(D) the particles move faster at the same temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With more particles in the same volume, collisions between reactant particles happen more often, so the rate increases.

Q32Sulfur trioxide is made in the Contact process: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g). The forward reaction is exothermic. Lowering the temperature

(A) increases the yield of sulfur trioxide
(B) decreases the yield of sulfur trioxide
(C) has no effect on the yield
(D) stops the reaction completely
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Because the forward reaction is exothermic, a lower temperature shifts the equilibrium to the right, increasing the yield (although the rate becomes slower).

Q33In the reaction CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O, the substance that is reduced is

(A) H2
(B) CuO
(C) Cu
(D) H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Copper(II) oxide loses oxygen and the copper ions gain electrons, so CuO is reduced; hydrogen is oxidised.

Q34Which process involves reduction?

(A) Fe^3+ + e^- → Fe^2+
(B) Fe → Fe^2+ + 2e^-
(C) 2Cl^- → Cl2 + 2e^-
(D) Na → Na^+ + e^-
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Reduction is the gain of electrons. Fe^3+ gains an electron to form Fe^2+; the other processes all involve loss of electrons (oxidation).

Q35In a rate experiment, 30 cm^3 of gas is collected in 15 seconds. What is the average rate of the reaction?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 1.0 cm^3/s
(C) 4.0 cm^3/s
(D) 2.0 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Average rate = volume / time = 30 / 15 = 2.0 cm^3/s.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which oxide is amphoteric?

(A) sodium oxide
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) aluminium oxide
(D) sulfur trioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium oxide is amphoteric: it reacts with both acids and alkalis. Sodium oxide is basic, and the non-metal oxides are acidic.

Q37What is the approximate pH of 0.1 mol/dm^3 sodium hydroxide solution, a strong alkali?

(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 13
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Strong alkalis have a pH well above 7; 0.1 mol/dm^3 sodium hydroxide has a pH of about 13.

Q38Crystals of copper(II) sulfate are prepared by adding excess copper(II) carbonate to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Why is the carbonate added in excess?

(A) To make the solution alkaline.
(B) To act as a catalyst.
(C) To make sure all of the acid is used up.
(D) To increase the temperature of the acid.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Excess insoluble carbonate ensures that all the acid reacts; the unreacted solid carbonate is then removed by filtration.

Q39Dilute nitric acid and then silver nitrate solution are added to a solution. A white precipitate forms. Which ion is present in the solution?

(A) chloride
(B) sulfate
(C) carbonate
(D) nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Silver nitrate solution gives a white precipitate of silver chloride when chloride ions are present.

Q40Ammonium sulfate, used as a fertiliser, is made by reacting

(A) ammonia with nitric acid
(B) aqueous ammonia with sulfuric acid
(C) ammonium chloride with sulfuric acid
(D) ammonia with hydrochloric acid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ammonia is neutralised by sulfuric acid to form ammonium sulfate: 2NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4.

Q41Which salt is insoluble in water?

(A) barium sulfate
(B) sodium sulfate
(C) ammonium sulfate
(D) potassium sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Most sulfates are soluble in water, but barium sulfate (and lead(II) sulfate) are insoluble.

Q42Universal indicator is added to a strongly alkaline solution. What colour does the indicator become?

(A) red
(B) green
(C) orange
(D) purple
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Universal indicator turns purple (violet) in a strongly alkaline solution, green in a neutral solution and red in a strongly acidic solution.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43Which statement about the Group II elements is correct?

(A) They form ions with a charge of +1.
(B) Their reactivity decreases down the group.
(C) They form ions with a charge of +2.
(D) They do not react with oxygen.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Group II atoms have two electrons in their outer shell and lose both of them to form ions with a charge of +2.

Q44Which element is a transition element?

(A) sodium
(B) iron
(C) aluminium
(D) calcium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Iron is found in the central block of the Periodic Table and is a transition element; sodium, aluminium and calcium are not.

Q45Which mixture shows a displacement reaction?

(A) iodine solution added to potassium bromide solution
(B) bromine solution added to potassium chloride solution
(C) chlorine solution added to potassium bromide solution
(D) iodine solution added to potassium chloride solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine (it is higher in Group VII), so chlorine displaces bromine from potassium bromide solution.

Q46The noble gases (Group VIII/0) are very unreactive because their atoms

(A) have no electrons in the outer shell
(B) have a full outer shell of electrons
(C) are all gases at room temperature
(D) contain equal numbers of protons and neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Noble gas atoms already have a complete outer electron shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal reacts vigorously with cold water, forming an alkaline solution and hydrogen gas?

(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) magnesium
(D) calcium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Calcium reacts vigorously with cold water to form calcium hydroxide (an alkali) and hydrogen; magnesium reacts only very slowly with cold water, and iron and copper do not react.

Q48Which metal displaces iron from a solution of iron(II) sulfate?

(A) zinc
(B) copper
(C) silver
(D) gold
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is above iron in the reactivity series, so it displaces iron from its salts; copper, silver and gold are all below iron.

Q49In the blast furnace, limestone is added mainly to

(A) reduce the iron(III) oxide
(B) remove impurities, forming slag
(C) burn to produce the heat needed
(D) oxidise the coke
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The limestone decomposes to form calcium oxide, which reacts with impurities such as silicon dioxide (sand) to form molten slag, which is removed.

Q50Brass is an alloy of

(A) copper and tin
(B) iron and carbon
(C) copper and zinc
(D) aluminium and copper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc; bronze is copper and tin, and steel is iron with carbon.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Clean, dry air contains approximately

(A) 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen
(B) 21% nitrogen and 78% oxygen
(C) 50% nitrogen and 50% oxygen
(D) 95% nitrogen and 4% oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gases, mainly argon and carbon dioxide.

Q52Which gas is a greenhouse gas released when organic matter decays and from the digestion of cattle?

(A) nitrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) argon
(D) methane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Methane is a greenhouse gas; it traps heat in the atmosphere and contributes to climate change, as does carbon dioxide.

Q53Which statement about the treatment of a domestic water supply is correct?

(A) The water is distilled before it is supplied.
(B) Chlorination adds minerals to the water.
(C) Filtration kills bacteria in the water.
(D) Filtration removes insoluble solids, and chlorination kills microorganisms.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Water supplies are filtered to remove insoluble solids and then treated with chlorine to kill harmful microorganisms.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the molecular formula of butane?

(A) C4H10
(B) C4H8
(C) C4H12
(D) C3H8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Butane is an alkane with four carbon atoms, so using CnH2n+2 with n = 4 gives C4H10.

Q55Cracking of long-chain alkanes produces

(A) only hydrogen and carbon
(B) one long polymer molecule
(C) a shorter-chain alkane and an alkene
(D) carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes, using a catalyst and high temperature.

Q56Ethanol is manufactured from ethene and steam on an industrial scale. Which conditions are used?

(A) yeast at about 37 °C
(B) a phosphoric acid catalyst, about 300 °C and a high pressure
(C) a nickel catalyst at 150 °C
(D) concentrated sulfuric acid at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene is hydrated with steam using a phosphoric acid catalyst at about 300 °C and 60-70 atmospheres pressure.

Q57Ethanoic acid is described as a weak acid because

(A) it is only partly ionised in aqueous solution
(B) it is always used as a dilute solution
(C) it does not react with carbonates
(D) it contains carbon and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A weak acid is only partially ionised when dissolved in water. Ethanoic acid does react with carbonates, producing carbon dioxide.

Q58Which polymer is made by condensation polymerisation?

(A) poly(ethene)
(B) poly(chloroethene)
(C) poly(propene)
(D) nylon
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Nylon is a condensation polymer, formed when monomers join with the loss of a small molecule such as water; poly(ethene), poly(chloroethene) and poly(propene) are addition polymers.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which gas relights a glowing splint?

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) ammonia
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; this is the standard chemical test for oxygen gas.

Q60Which test shows that a liquid contains water?

(A) Limewater turns milky.
(B) Damp litmus paper is bleached.
(C) White anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns blue.
(D) A glowing splint relights.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is white and turns blue when water is present; this is the chemical test for water.