IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 2
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1When a gas changes into a liquid, the process is called
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Correct: (C)
Condensation is the change from a gas to a liquid, which happens when the gas is cooled.
Q2Which statement about evaporation is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Evaporation takes place at the surface of a liquid at any temperature; boiling takes place throughout the liquid at the boiling point.
Q3A gas jar of bromine vapour is placed over a gas jar of air. After some time, the bromine has spread evenly through both jars. This is evidence that
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Correct: (D)
The diffusion of bromine shows that gas particles are in constant random motion and spread out to fill all the space available.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom has 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons. What is its nucleon number?
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Correct: (B)
Nucleon number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 9 + 10 = 19.
Q5What is the relative charge of a neutron?
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Correct: (B)
Neutrons have no charge; protons have a relative charge of +1 and electrons have a relative charge of -1.
Q6An atom of an element has the electronic configuration 2,8,6. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?
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Correct: (D)
The atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell, so the element is in Group VI (it is sulfur).
Q7Calcium has a proton number of 20. What is the electronic configuration of a Ca^2+ ion?
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Correct: (A)
A calcium atom (2,8,8,2) loses its two outer electrons, leaving the Ca^2+ ion with the configuration 2,8,8.
Q8Which substance is a simple molecular substance with a low melting point?
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Correct: (C)
Methane consists of small molecules with weak forces between them, so very little energy is needed to separate the molecules and its melting point is low.
Q9Metals conduct electricity in both the solid and liquid states because
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Correct: (A)
In metals, the outer electrons are delocalised and can move through the giant structure, carrying the electric charge.
Q10How many electrons are shared in a double covalent bond?
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Correct: (B)
A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons, which is 4 electrons in total.
Q11Graphite is soft and slippery, and is used as a lubricant, because
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Correct: (C)
In graphite the carbon atoms form layers; the forces between the layers are weak, so the layers can slide over each other easily.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12What is the relative formula mass of magnesium sulfate, MgSO4? [Ar: Mg = 24, S = 32, O = 16]
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Correct: (D)
Mr = 24 + 32 + (4 × 16) = 24 + 32 + 64 = 120.
Q13What mass of calcium carbonate contains 0.25 mol of calcium carbonate? [Mr: CaCO3 = 100]
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Correct: (D)
Mass = moles × Mr = 0.25 × 100 = 25 g.
Q14A gas has a volume of 480 cm^3 at room temperature and pressure. How many moles of the gas are there? [Molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3]
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Correct: (C)
Moles = volume / molar volume = 480 cm^3 / 24000 cm^3 = 0.020 mol.
Q15How many moles of sodium hydroxide are present in 25.0 cm^3 of 0.100 mol/dm^3 sodium hydroxide solution?
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Correct: (B)
Moles = concentration × volume in dm^3 = 0.100 × 0.0250 = 0.00250 mol.
Q16A hydrocarbon has an empirical formula of C2H5 and a relative molecular mass of 58. What is its molecular formula? [Ar: C = 12, H = 1]
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Correct: (A)
The mass of the empirical formula is (2 × 12) + (5 × 1) = 29. 58 / 29 = 2, so the molecular formula is 2 × C2H5 = C4H10.
Q17What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in carbon dioxide, CO2? [Ar: C = 12, O = 16]
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Correct: (B)
Mr of CO2 = 12 + (2 × 16) = 44. Percentage of oxygen = (32 / 44) × 100 = 72.7%.
Q18What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at r.t.p., is produced when 2.4 g of magnesium reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid? [Ar: Mg = 24; molar gas volume at r.t.p. = 24 dm^3]
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Correct: (A)
Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2, so 0.10 mol of H2 is formed; volume = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 dm^3.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is the main product at the anode?
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Correct: (C)
In a concentrated solution, chloride ions are discharged at the anode in preference to hydroxide ions, forming chlorine gas.
Q20Which statement about electrolysis is correct?
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Correct: (D)
At the cathode, cations (positive ions) gain electrons and are reduced to form atoms.
Q21Which metal is extracted from its ore by electrolysis of the molten compound?
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Correct: (D)
Aluminium is too reactive to be extracted by reduction with carbon, so it is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide.
Q22Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed for some time. The volume of hydrogen collected, compared with the volume of oxygen collected, is
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Correct: (B)
Water decomposes according to 2H2O → 2H2 + O2, so twice the volume of hydrogen is produced compared with oxygen.
Q23During the electrolysis of an aqueous solution, which ion moves towards the anode?
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Correct: (A)
Negative ions (anions) such as SO4^2- are attracted to the positive anode; the other ions listed are cations and move to the cathode.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which reaction is endothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings (it needs continuous heating), so it is endothermic.
Q25Calculate the energy change for the combustion of methane using bond energies: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. [Bond energies in kJ/mol: C-H = 410, O=O = 500, C=O = 805, O-H = 460]
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken = 4(410) + 2(500) = 2640 kJ. Bonds formed = 2(805) + 4(460) = 3450 kJ. ΔH = 2640 – 3450 = -810 kJ/mol.
Q26In an endothermic reaction, the total energy of the products is
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Correct: (C)
In an endothermic reaction energy is absorbed from the surroundings, so the products store more energy than the reactants.
Q27A fuel is burned and the energy released warms 200 g of water by 15 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/g°C. How much energy is released?
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Correct: (D)
Energy = 200 × 4.2 × 15 = 12600 J = 12.6 kJ.
Q28Hydrogen is described as a clean fuel because when it burns in air, the only product is
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Correct: (B)
Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form only water: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, so burning hydrogen produces no carbon dioxide.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29The rate of reaction between zinc and dilute sulfuric acid is increased by all of the following except
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Correct: (C)
Cooling gives the particles less energy, so there are fewer successful collisions and the rate decreases.
Q30Manganese(IV) oxide is used as a catalyst in the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. A catalyst in a reaction
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction but is not used up; it can be recovered unchanged at the end.
Q31Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction because
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Correct: (B)
With more particles in the same volume, collisions between reactant particles happen more often, so the rate increases.
Q32Sulfur trioxide is made in the Contact process: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g). The forward reaction is exothermic. Lowering the temperature
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Correct: (A)
Because the forward reaction is exothermic, a lower temperature shifts the equilibrium to the right, increasing the yield (although the rate becomes slower).
Q33In the reaction CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O, the substance that is reduced is
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Correct: (B)
Copper(II) oxide loses oxygen and the copper ions gain electrons, so CuO is reduced; hydrogen is oxidised.
Q34Which process involves reduction?
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Correct: (A)
Reduction is the gain of electrons. Fe^3+ gains an electron to form Fe^2+; the other processes all involve loss of electrons (oxidation).
Q35In a rate experiment, 30 cm^3 of gas is collected in 15 seconds. What is the average rate of the reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Average rate = volume / time = 30 / 15 = 2.0 cm^3/s.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Which oxide is amphoteric?
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Correct: (C)
Aluminium oxide is amphoteric: it reacts with both acids and alkalis. Sodium oxide is basic, and the non-metal oxides are acidic.
Q37What is the approximate pH of 0.1 mol/dm^3 sodium hydroxide solution, a strong alkali?
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Correct: (D)
Strong alkalis have a pH well above 7; 0.1 mol/dm^3 sodium hydroxide has a pH of about 13.
Q38Crystals of copper(II) sulfate are prepared by adding excess copper(II) carbonate to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Why is the carbonate added in excess?
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Correct: (C)
Excess insoluble carbonate ensures that all the acid reacts; the unreacted solid carbonate is then removed by filtration.
Q39Dilute nitric acid and then silver nitrate solution are added to a solution. A white precipitate forms. Which ion is present in the solution?
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Correct: (A)
Silver nitrate solution gives a white precipitate of silver chloride when chloride ions are present.
Q40Ammonium sulfate, used as a fertiliser, is made by reacting
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Correct: (B)
Ammonia is neutralised by sulfuric acid to form ammonium sulfate: 2NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4.
Q41Which salt is insoluble in water?
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Correct: (A)
Most sulfates are soluble in water, but barium sulfate (and lead(II) sulfate) are insoluble.
Q42Universal indicator is added to a strongly alkaline solution. What colour does the indicator become?
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Correct: (D)
Universal indicator turns purple (violet) in a strongly alkaline solution, green in a neutral solution and red in a strongly acidic solution.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43Which statement about the Group II elements is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Group II atoms have two electrons in their outer shell and lose both of them to form ions with a charge of +2.
Q44Which element is a transition element?
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Correct: (B)
Iron is found in the central block of the Periodic Table and is a transition element; sodium, aluminium and calcium are not.
Q45Which mixture shows a displacement reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Chlorine is more reactive than bromine (it is higher in Group VII), so chlorine displaces bromine from potassium bromide solution.
Q46The noble gases (Group VIII/0) are very unreactive because their atoms
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Correct: (B)
Noble gas atoms already have a complete outer electron shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which metal reacts vigorously with cold water, forming an alkaline solution and hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (D)
Calcium reacts vigorously with cold water to form calcium hydroxide (an alkali) and hydrogen; magnesium reacts only very slowly with cold water, and iron and copper do not react.
Q48Which metal displaces iron from a solution of iron(II) sulfate?
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Correct: (A)
Zinc is above iron in the reactivity series, so it displaces iron from its salts; copper, silver and gold are all below iron.
Q49In the blast furnace, limestone is added mainly to
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Correct: (B)
The limestone decomposes to form calcium oxide, which reacts with impurities such as silicon dioxide (sand) to form molten slag, which is removed.
Q50Brass is an alloy of
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Correct: (C)
Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc; bronze is copper and tin, and steel is iron with carbon.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Clean, dry air contains approximately
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Correct: (A)
Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gases, mainly argon and carbon dioxide.
Q52Which gas is a greenhouse gas released when organic matter decays and from the digestion of cattle?
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Correct: (D)
Methane is a greenhouse gas; it traps heat in the atmosphere and contributes to climate change, as does carbon dioxide.
Q53Which statement about the treatment of a domestic water supply is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Water supplies are filtered to remove insoluble solids and then treated with chlorine to kill harmful microorganisms.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the molecular formula of butane?
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Correct: (A)
Butane is an alkane with four carbon atoms, so using CnH2n+2 with n = 4 gives C4H10.
Q55Cracking of long-chain alkanes produces
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Correct: (C)
Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes, using a catalyst and high temperature.
Q56Ethanol is manufactured from ethene and steam on an industrial scale. Which conditions are used?
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Correct: (B)
Ethene is hydrated with steam using a phosphoric acid catalyst at about 300 °C and 60-70 atmospheres pressure.
Q57Ethanoic acid is described as a weak acid because
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Correct: (A)
A weak acid is only partially ionised when dissolved in water. Ethanoic acid does react with carbonates, producing carbon dioxide.
Q58Which polymer is made by condensation polymerisation?
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Correct: (D)
Nylon is a condensation polymer, formed when monomers join with the loss of a small molecule such as water; poly(ethene), poly(chloroethene) and poly(propene) are addition polymers.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which gas relights a glowing splint?
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen relights a glowing splint; this is the standard chemical test for oxygen gas.
Q60Which test shows that a liquid contains water?
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Correct: (C)
Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is white and turns blue when water is present; this is the chemical test for water.
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