IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 19

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which change of state is condensation?

(A) liquid to gas
(B) gas to liquid
(C) solid to gas
(D) solid to liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Condensation is the change from a gas to a liquid when the gas is cooled.

Q2A substance has a melting point of -5°C and a boiling point of 95°C. What is its state at 25°C?

(A) solid
(B) a mixture of solid and liquid
(C) gas
(D) liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

25°C is above the melting point but below the boiling point, so the substance is a liquid.

Q3When a solid melts, what happens to its particles?

(A) They gain energy and move out of their fixed positions
(B) They lose energy and move closer together
(C) They stop moving completely
(D) They break down into atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

On melting, particles gain enough energy to overcome some attractive forces and move around, while the temperature stays constant.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of element X has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is its mass number?

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 23
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mass number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.

Q5What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium atom (proton number 12)?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,8,2
(C) 2,8,3
(D) 2,6,4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Magnesium has 12 electrons arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 2 in the third: 2,8,2.

Q6Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?

(A) They have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
(B) They have the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
(C) They have different numbers of electrons and protons
(D) They have the same mass number
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Isotopes have the same proton number (so they are the same element) but different neutron numbers and therefore different mass numbers.

Q7Which substance has a giant covalent structure?

(A) sodium chloride
(B) water
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In diamond every carbon atom is covalently bonded to four others in one giant lattice, giving a very high melting point.

Q8Which statement about sodium chloride is correct?

(A) It conducts electricity when solid
(B) It has a low melting point
(C) It conducts electricity when molten
(D) It is made of separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium chloride is ionic; its ions are locked in place in the solid but are free to move and carry charge when molten.

Q9How many electrons are shared in a double covalent bond?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons, which is 4 electrons in total.

Q10An atom with electronic configuration 2,8,7 forms an ion. What is the charge on the ion?

(A) 1+
(B) 7-
(C) 2-
(D) 1-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The atom gains one electron to complete its outer shell, forming a 1- ion.

Q11Which is a property of metals?

(A) They are malleable and can be shaped by hammering
(B) They are brittle and shatter when hit
(C) They are poor conductors of heat
(D) They do not have layers of atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In metals the layers of positive ions can slide over each other, so metals are malleable and ductile.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the relative molecular mass, Mr, of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 68
(B) 84
(C) 100
(D) 116
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.

Q13How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.5 mol
(B) 2 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q14What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at r.t.p.? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 3 dm^3
(B) 6 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

Q15A compound contains 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C) CH2
(D) CH3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles: C = 80/12 = 6.67, H = 20/1 = 20. Ratio C:H = 6.67:20 = 1:3, so the empirical formula is CH3.

Q160.10 mol of a solute is dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.04 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.25 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.40 mol/dm^3
(D) 4.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3, so concentration = 0.10 / 0.250 = 0.40 mol/dm^3.

Q17A reaction has a theoretical yield of 40 g but only 30 g of product is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 80%
(D) 133%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100 = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.

Q18Magnesium reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid: Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2. What volume of hydrogen is produced at r.t.p. when 4.8 g of magnesium reacts completely? (Ar of Mg = 24; molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 4.8 dm^3
(B) 2.4 dm^3
(C) 9.6 dm^3
(D) 24 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of Mg = 4.8 / 24 = 0.20 mol, so 0.20 mol of H2 forms. Volume = 0.20 × 24 = 4.8 dm^3.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What forms at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) bromine
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) lead
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Lead(II) ions are positively charged, so they move to the cathode where they gain electrons and form lead metal.

Q20Dilute copper(II) sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What forms at the anode (positive electrode)?

(A) copper
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the anode, hydroxide ions from the water are discharged to form oxygen gas.

Q21Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed. What forms at the anode (positive electrode)?

(A) chlorine
(B) oxygen
(C) sodium
(D) hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In concentrated solution, chloride ions are discharged at the anode to form chlorine gas.

Q22A steel spoon is to be electroplated with silver. The spoon should be connected as the

(A) anode
(B) cathode
(C) electrolyte
(D) power supply
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The object to be plated is made the cathode (negative electrode), so positive silver ions are attracted to it and form a layer of silver.

Q23In a simple cell made with zinc and copper electrodes in dilute sulfuric acid, which metal is oxidised?

(A) copper
(B) neither metal
(C) both metals equally
(D) zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc atoms lose electrons (are oxidised) and electrons flow through the wires to the copper electrode.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which reaction is exothermic?

(A) combustion of methane
(B) thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) photosynthesis
(D) melting of ice
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Combustion releases energy to the surroundings as heat, so it is exothermic. The others take in energy.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for H2 + Br2 → 2HBr. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol)

(A) -366 kJ/mol
(B) +103 kJ/mol
(C) -103 kJ/mol
(D) -629 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. ΔH = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.

Q26When an endothermic reaction takes place in a test tube, the temperature of the surroundings

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) stays exactly the same
(D) first rises then falls
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An endothermic reaction absorbs energy from the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings falls.

Q27Which fuel produces only water when it burns completely?

(A) methane
(B) petrol
(C) coal
(D) hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form only water: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.

Q28Which statement about an exothermic reaction is correct?

(A) ΔH is negative
(B) ΔH is positive
(C) More energy is absorbed breaking bonds than is released forming bonds
(D) The products have more energy than the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In an exothermic reaction the products have less energy than the reactants, energy is released, and ΔH is negative.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Which change increases the rate of a reaction between a solid and a solution?

(A) using a lower temperature
(B) using larger lumps of the solid
(C) using a more concentrated solution
(D) using a smaller volume of solution at the same concentration
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A higher concentration means more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent and the rate increases.

Q30A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by

(A) increasing the temperature of the reactants
(B) providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) being used up slowly during the reaction
(D) increasing the energy of every particle
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst provides a different reaction pathway with lower activation energy, so more collisions are successful. It is not used up.

Q31In the Haber process, N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, and the forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of ammonia when the pressure is increased?

(A) it decreases
(B) it stays the same
(C) it becomes zero
(D) it increases
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

There are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure shifts the equilibrium towards ammonia, increasing the yield.

Q32In a redox reaction, oxidation is the

(A) loss of electrons
(B) gain of electrons
(C) gain of oxygen only
(D) loss of hydrogen only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Oxidation is loss of electrons (OILRIG); reduction is gain of electrons.

Q33Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. Which species is the oxidising agent?

(A) Zn
(B) Zn^2+ ions
(C) Cu^2+ ions
(D) SO4^2- ions
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cu^2+ ions gain electrons from zinc and are reduced, so Cu^2+ ions are the oxidising agent. Zinc is the reducing agent.

Q34The rate of a reaction that produces a gas is measured in the laboratory. Which apparatus is used to measure the volume of gas produced?

(A) a balance only
(B) a gas syringe
(C) a thermometer
(D) a burette of acid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A gas syringe collects and measures the volume of gas given off as the reaction proceeds.

Q35A reversible reaction in a closed system reaches dynamic equilibrium when

(A) all the reactants have been used up
(B) the forward reaction has stopped
(C) the concentrations of products become zero
(D) the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so the concentrations of reactants and products stay constant.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which pH value shows a strongly alkaline solution?

(A) 13
(B) 1
(C) 7
(D) 5
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

pH 13 is strongly alkaline; pH 7 is neutral, and values below 7 are acidic.

Q37What are the products when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate?

(A) sodium chloride, water and hydrogen
(B) sodium hydroxide, water and carbon dioxide
(C) sodium chloride, water and carbon dioxide
(D) sodium chloride and carbon dioxide only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q38Which oxide is acidic?

(A) calcium oxide
(B) sulfur dioxide
(C) sodium oxide
(D) copper(II) oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur dioxide is the oxide of a non-metal and is acidic; the others are metal oxides and are basic.

Q39Zinc sulfate crystals are prepared from zinc oxide and dilute sulfuric acid. Which procedure is correct?

(A) Titrate the acid with the oxide using an indicator
(B) Mix two salt solutions and filter off the precipitate
(C) Evaporate the acid alone to dryness
(D) Add excess zinc oxide to warm acid, filter, then crystallise the filtrate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The insoluble oxide is added in excess to warm acid, the excess is filtered off, and the filtrate is crystallised to give pure zinc sulfate crystals.

Q40Which test identifies sulfate ions in a solution?

(A) Add dilute hydrochloric acid then barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(B) Add sodium hydroxide and warm; ammonia gas is given off
(C) Add silver nitrate solution; a cream precipitate forms
(D) Use a flame test; a lilac flame is seen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Barium chloride (after acidifying with dilute hydrochloric acid) gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate if sulfate ions are present.

Q41Which salt is most suitably prepared by precipitation?

(A) ammonium sulfate
(B) potassium chloride
(C) barium sulfate
(D) zinc nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Barium sulfate is insoluble, so it is prepared by mixing solutions of soluble barium and sulfate salts and filtering off the precipitate.

Q42Ammonium chloride is warmed with sodium hydroxide solution. Which gas is given off?

(A) hydrogen
(B) ammonia
(C) chlorine
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ammonium salts react with alkalis on warming to release ammonia gas, which turns damp red litmus paper blue.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43How does the reactivity of the Group I metals change down the group?

(A) it decreases steadily
(B) it stays the same
(C) it decreases then increases
(D) it increases steadily
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Group I metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.

Q44Which halogen is the most reactive?

(A) chlorine
(B) bromine
(C) iodine
(D) they are all equally reactive
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Reactivity of the halogens decreases down the group, so chlorine is more reactive than bromine and iodine and displaces them from their salts.

Q45Which is NOT a typical property of transition elements?

(A) high density
(B) they form coloured compounds
(C) low melting points
(D) they act as catalysts
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Transition elements have high melting points and densities, form coloured compounds and often act as catalysts.

Q46An element in Period 3 has electronic configuration 2,8,5. To which group of the Periodic Table does it belong?

(A) Group 13
(B) Group 15
(C) Group 17
(D) Group 16
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The atom has 5 electrons in its outer shell, so it is in Group 15 (Group V). It is phosphorus.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal reacts most vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) silver
(D) zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Of these metals, zinc is highest in the reactivity series and reacts most vigorously with dilute acid; copper and silver do not react.

Q48Aluminium is extracted from its ore by

(A) electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide
(B) heating aluminium oxide with carbon
(C) fractional distillation
(D) heating aluminium oxide alone
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so it is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide dissolved in cryolite.

Q49For rusting of iron to occur, which conditions are needed?

(A) oxygen only
(B) water only
(C) both oxygen (air) and water
(D) carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Iron rusts only when both air (oxygen) and water are present; experiments with boiled water or dry air show no rusting.

Q50Brass is an alloy of copper and

(A) tin
(B) zinc
(C) iron
(D) lead
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Brass is a mixture of copper and zinc; bronze is copper and tin.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51In the treatment of water for drinking, which step kills microbes?

(A) filtration through sand
(B) sedimentation
(C) distillation
(D) chlorination
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine is added to water supplies to kill microbes and make the water safe to drink.

Q52Approximately what percentage of clean, dry air is nitrogen?

(A) 78%
(B) 21%
(C) 1%
(D) 0.04%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gases including argon and about 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53Which gas is a greenhouse gas?

(A) nitrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) methane
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases that absorb infrared radiation and contribute to global warming.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2, e.g. methane CH4 and ethane C2H6.

Q55Ethene decolourises aqueous bromine. This is because ethene

(A) is saturated
(B) burns with a smoky flame
(C) is a gas at room temperature
(D) is unsaturated and undergoes an addition reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The C=C double bond in ethene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, removing the orange colour.

Q56Which conditions are used to make ethanol by fermentation of glucose?

(A) 300°C and high pressure with a catalyst
(B) phosphoric acid catalyst at 300°C
(C) yeast, about 30°C, in the absence of air
(D) reflux with acidified potassium dichromate(VI)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fermentation uses yeast enzymes at around 30°C without air: glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide.

Q57What is the polymer formed by the addition polymerisation of ethene?

(A) polyester
(B) nylon
(C) poly(ethene)
(D) poly(chloroethene)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Many ethene monomers join together to form poly(ethene), a plastic used for bags and bottles.

Q58Which structure represents the functional group of a carboxylic acid?

(A) C=C
(B) -COOH
(C) -NH2
(D) -CHO
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carboxylic acids such as ethanoic acid contain the -COOH functional group, which makes them weak acids.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which test identifies chloride ions in a solution?

(A) a flame test giving a yellow flame
(B) limewater turning milky
(C) damp litmus paper turning blue
(D) acidified silver nitrate solution giving a white precipitate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Silver nitrate solution, acidified with dilute nitric acid, gives a white precipitate of silver chloride if chloride ions are present.

Q60How can the purity of a solid sample be checked using its melting point?

(A) A pure substance has a sharp melting point
(B) A pure substance melts over a wide temperature range
(C) A pure substance has no melting point
(D) An impure substance melts sharply at one temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A pure solid melts sharply at one temperature; impurities lower the melting point and make it melt over a range.