IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 18
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1In which state of matter are the particles furthest apart?
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Correct: (C)
In a gas such as steam the particles are far apart and move freely, unlike in solids and liquids.
Q2Which statement about evaporation is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Evaporation occurs at the surface, at any temperature, when faster-moving particles escape the liquid.
Q3The smell of perfume spreads across a room. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Diffusion happens because particles move randomly and spread from higher to lower concentration.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4What does the proton number of an atom determine?
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Correct: (B)
Every atom of the same element has the same number of protons; a different proton number means a different element.
Q5What is the electronic configuration of a sodium atom?
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Correct: (D)
Sodium has 11 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 1 in the third shell.
Q6A chlorine atom has 17 electrons. How many electrons does a chloride ion, Cl^-, have?
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Correct: (B)
The atom gains one electron to form Cl^-, so the ion has 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.
Q7Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
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Correct: (A)
The giant ionic lattice is held together by strong attractions in all directions, requiring a lot of thermal energy to break down.
Q8Why can graphite conduct electricity?
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Correct: (C)
Each carbon atom in graphite forms three bonds, leaving one electron per atom delocalised and able to carry charge.
Q9Why do simple molecular substances, such as methane, have low boiling points?
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Correct: (A)
Boiling separates the molecules; the weak forces between molecules need little energy, although the covalent bonds inside stay intact.
Q10Which substance is a simple covalent compound?
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Correct: (D)
Methane consists of molecules held together by shared pairs of electrons; the others are ionic compounds.
Q11What is the relative atomic mass of an element?
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Correct: (C)
Ar takes account of the masses and relative abundances of all the isotopes of the element.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q120.10 mol of a solute is dissolved in 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm^3?
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Correct: (B)
500 cm^3 = 0.500 dm^3, so concentration = 0.10 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.
Q13What is the mass of 0.50 mol of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)
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Correct: (B)
Mass = moles × Mr = 0.50 × 100 = 50 g.
Q14What volume do 2.0 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (C)
Volume = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.
Q15A compound contains 27.3% carbon and 72.7% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (A)
Moles: C = 27.3/12 = 2.28, O = 72.7/16 = 4.54; ratio 1 : 2 gives CO2.
Q16A 10 g sample of a salt contains 9.0 g of the pure salt. What is the percentage purity?
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Correct: (D)
Percentage purity = (9.0 / 10) × 100 = 90%.
Q17Hydrogen reacts with oxygen: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. A mixture contains 2.0 mol of H2 and 2.0 mol of O2. What is the maximum number of moles of water that can form?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen is the limiting reactant: 2.0 mol of H2 needs only 1.0 mol of O2 and forms 2.0 mol of H2O.
Q188.0 g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved to make 2.0 dm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in g/dm^3?
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Correct: (A)
Concentration = mass / volume = 8.0 / 2.0 = 4.0 g/dm^3.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the anode?
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Correct: (B)
In concentrated solution, chloride ions are discharged at the positive anode to form chlorine gas.
Q20Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?
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Correct: (C)
Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the cathode to form hydrogen gas.
Q21During electrolysis, towards which electrode do cations move?
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Correct: (A)
Cations are positive ions, so they are attracted to the negative cathode.
Q22Aluminium oxide is electrolysed to extract aluminium. Why is the aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite?
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Correct: (C)
Cryolite lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte from over 2000°C to about 950°C.
Q23What energy change happens inside a simple chemical (voltaic) cell?
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Correct: (D)
A voltaic cell uses a spontaneous chemical reaction to produce an electric current.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24A reaction mixture cools down as the reaction takes place. What does this show?
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Correct: (B)
An endothermic reaction takes in thermal energy from the surroundings, so their temperature falls.
Q25A reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains this in terms of bond energies?
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Correct: (C)
If bond formation releases more energy than bond breaking absorbs, the excess is given out as heat.
Q26Calculate the enthalpy change for H2 + 1/2 O2 → H2O using bond energies. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, O=O = 498, O-H = 464 kJ/mol)
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Correct: (D)
Bonds broken = 436 + (498/2) = 685; bonds made = 2 × 464 = 928; ΔH = 685 – 928 = -243 kJ/mol.
Q27What is the activation energy of a reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Only collisions with energy at least equal to the activation energy can result in a reaction.
Q28Which is an advantage of using hydrogen as a fuel in vehicles?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen burns to form only water, so it does not add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Why does increasing the pressure increase the rate of a reaction between gases?
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Correct: (B)
At higher pressure the same number of particles occupies a smaller volume, increasing the collision frequency.
Q30The rate of a reaction that produces a gas is investigated. Which apparatus measures the volume of gas produced over time?
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Correct: (A)
A gas syringe collects and measures the gas volume at timed intervals so the rate can be calculated.
Q31A reversible reaction in a closed system reaches dynamic equilibrium. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (C)
At equilibrium both reactions still occur, but at the same rate, so concentrations stay constant.
Q32Which temperature is used in the Haber process as a compromise between rate and yield?
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Correct: (D)
About 450°C gives an acceptable yield of ammonia at a reasonable rate; lower temperatures would be too slow.
Q33In the reaction Zn + Cu^2+ → Zn^2+ + Cu, which species is the oxidising agent?
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Correct: (D)
Cu^2+ gains the electrons lost by zinc, so Cu^2+ causes oxidation and is the oxidising agent.
Q34Acidified potassium manganate(VII) is purple. What happens when it reacts with a reducing agent?
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Correct: (C)
A reducing agent reduces the purple manganate(VII) ions to almost colourless Mn^2+ ions.
Q35Rusting of iron is an example of which process?
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Correct: (A)
Iron gains oxygen as it rusts, forming hydrated iron(III) oxide, so it is oxidised.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36In the Brønsted-Lowry theory, what is a base?
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Correct: (B)
A base accepts a hydrogen ion (proton) from an acid during a reaction.
Q37What colour does universal indicator turn in a strong acid?
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Correct: (A)
Universal indicator is red at very low pH, green at pH 7 and purple in strong alkali.
Q38A soluble salt is dissolved in water. How is a pure dry sample of the salt recovered from the solution?
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Correct: (B)
The solution is evaporated to the crystallisation point, cooled, and the crystals are filtered, washed and dried.
Q39Copper(II) sulfate solution is made from dilute sulfuric acid and solid copper(II) oxide. Which procedure is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Excess insoluble oxide ensures all the acid reacts; the unreacted solid is filtered off before crystallisation.
Q40Which oxide is acidic?
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Correct: (C)
Non-metal oxides such as sulfur dioxide are acidic; metal oxides are usually basic.
Q41Which test shows that a solid contains the carbonate ion?
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Correct: (C)
Carbonates react with dilute acid to give carbon dioxide, which turns limewater milky.
Q42Salts formed from sulfuric acid are called
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Correct: (A)
Hydrochloric acid gives chlorides, nitric acid gives nitrates and sulfuric acid gives sulfates.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43How does the reactivity of the halogens change down Group VII?
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Correct: (B)
The halogens become less reactive down the group; fluorine is the most reactive and iodine the least of the common halogens.
Q44An element is in Period 3 and Group II. What is the element?
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Correct: (D)
Period 3 contains Na, Mg, Al and the non-metals; the Group II member is magnesium.
Q45Which property is shown by transition elements but not by Group I metals?
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Correct: (B)
Transition elements form ions with different charges, for example Fe^2+ and Fe^3+, and their compounds are often coloured.
Q46Which Group I metal reacts most vigorously with cold water?
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Correct: (D)
Reactivity increases down Group I, so potassium reacts more vigorously with water than lithium or sodium.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which factor mainly decides whether a metal is extracted by heating with carbon or by electrolysis?
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Correct: (C)
Metals below carbon in the reactivity series are extracted by carbon reduction; more reactive metals need electrolysis.
Q48In the thermite reaction, aluminium powder reacts with iron(III) oxide. What is the role of the aluminium?
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Correct: (A)
Aluminium is more reactive than iron, so it removes oxygen from iron(III) oxide, producing molten iron.
Q49Why is aluminium used to make aircraft bodies?
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Correct: (D)
Aluminium is light for its strength and its oxide layer protects it from further corrosion.
Q50Galvanising protects iron from rusting. How does it work?
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Correct: (B)
Zinc is more reactive than iron, so it acts as a barrier and also protects sacrificially if the coating is scratched.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51A farmer spreads ammonium sulfate fertiliser on a field at the same time as calcium hydroxide (slaked lime). Why does this waste the fertiliser?
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Correct: (A)
The alkali reacts with the ammonium salt: NH4^+ + OH^- → NH3 + H2O, so the nitrogen escapes as ammonia gas instead of feeding the plants.
Q52Which gas is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (C)
Methane and carbon dioxide absorb infrared radiation and contribute to the enhanced greenhouse effect.
Q53What is the formula of the fertiliser ammonium nitrate?
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Correct: (A)
Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is a widely used nitrogenous fertiliser.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the general formula of the alkenes?
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Correct: (D)
Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n.
Q55Which test distinguishes an alkene from an alkane?
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Correct: (B)
The C=C bond in an alkene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, removing the orange colour.
Q56What is the functional group in alcohols such as ethanol?
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Correct: (C)
Alcohols contain the hydroxyl functional group, -OH, attached to a carbon chain.
Q57Which statement about condensation polymerisation is correct?
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Correct: (C)
In condensation polymerisation, monomers join by reacting together and eliminating a small molecule, usually water.
Q58What are the products when a long-chain alkane is cracked?
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Correct: (B)
Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which test identifies oxygen gas?
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Correct: (D)
Oxygen relights a glowing splint; this is the standard test for the gas.
Q60How can the melting point be used to judge the purity of a substance?
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Correct: (A)
Pure substances melt sharply at one temperature, while impure samples melt over a range at a lower temperature.
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