IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 18

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1In which state of matter are the particles furthest apart?

(A) ice
(B) liquid water
(C) steam
(D) all three have the same spacing
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a gas such as steam the particles are far apart and move freely, unlike in solids and liquids.

Q2Which statement about evaporation is correct?

(A) It takes place at the surface of a liquid at any temperature.
(B) It takes place throughout the liquid at its boiling point only.
(C) It happens only in solids.
(D) It requires a catalyst.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Evaporation occurs at the surface, at any temperature, when faster-moving particles escape the liquid.

Q3The smell of perfume spreads across a room. Why?

(A) The particles are carried by sound waves.
(B) The particles react with air.
(C) The particles are attracted to the walls.
(D) The particles move randomly and collide with air particles.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Diffusion happens because particles move randomly and spread from higher to lower concentration.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4What does the proton number of an atom determine?

(A) Its mass only
(B) Which element it is
(C) Its state at room temperature
(D) The number of neutrons it must have
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Every atom of the same element has the same number of protons; a different proton number means a different element.

Q5What is the electronic configuration of a sodium atom?

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,1,8
(C) 8,2,1
(D) 2,8,1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sodium has 11 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 1 in the third shell.

Q6A chlorine atom has 17 electrons. How many electrons does a chloride ion, Cl^-, have?

(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 17
(D) 35
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The atom gains one electron to form Cl^-, so the ion has 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.

Q7Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

(A) Strong electrostatic attractions between ions throughout the lattice need much energy to break.
(B) They contain weak intermolecular forces.
(C) Their ions are free to move in the solid.
(D) They contain delocalised electrons.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The giant ionic lattice is held together by strong attractions in all directions, requiring a lot of thermal energy to break down.

Q8Why can graphite conduct electricity?

(A) Its layers are held by strong ionic bonds.
(B) Its carbon atoms each gain an electron.
(C) It has delocalised electrons that can move along the layers.
(D) It contains metal ions.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each carbon atom in graphite forms three bonds, leaving one electron per atom delocalised and able to carry charge.

Q9Why do simple molecular substances, such as methane, have low boiling points?

(A) Only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome.
(B) Their covalent bonds are very weak.
(C) They contain free-moving ions.
(D) They have giant structures.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Boiling separates the molecules; the weak forces between molecules need little energy, although the covalent bonds inside stay intact.

Q10Which substance is a simple covalent compound?

(A) sodium chloride
(B) magnesium oxide
(C) calcium chloride
(D) methane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Methane consists of molecules held together by shared pairs of electrons; the others are ionic compounds.

Q11What is the relative atomic mass of an element?

(A) The mass of one atom compared with the mass of a neutron
(B) The total number of protons and neutrons
(C) The weighted average mass of the isotopes of the element
(D) The mass of the most common isotope only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ar takes account of the masses and relative abundances of all the isotopes of the element.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q120.10 mol of a solute is dissolved in 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.050 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.20 mol/dm^3
(C) 5.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 50 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

500 cm^3 = 0.500 dm^3, so concentration = 0.10 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.

Q13What is the mass of 0.50 mol of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 25 g
(B) 50 g
(C) 200 g
(D) 0.50 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mass = moles × Mr = 0.50 × 100 = 50 g.

Q14What volume do 2.0 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 48 dm^3
(D) 2.4 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Volume = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q15A compound contains 27.3% carbon and 72.7% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16)

(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) C2O
(D) C2O4
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles: C = 27.3/12 = 2.28, O = 72.7/16 = 4.54; ratio 1 : 2 gives CO2.

Q16A 10 g sample of a salt contains 9.0 g of the pure salt. What is the percentage purity?

(A) 9%
(B) 10%
(C) 99%
(D) 90%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage purity = (9.0 / 10) × 100 = 90%.

Q17Hydrogen reacts with oxygen: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. A mixture contains 2.0 mol of H2 and 2.0 mol of O2. What is the maximum number of moles of water that can form?

(A) 1.0 mol
(B) 3.0 mol
(C) 4.0 mol
(D) 2.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen is the limiting reactant: 2.0 mol of H2 needs only 1.0 mol of O2 and forms 2.0 mol of H2O.

Q188.0 g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved to make 2.0 dm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 4.0 g/dm^3
(B) 16 g/dm^3
(C) 0.25 g/dm^3
(D) 8.0 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Concentration = mass / volume = 8.0 / 2.0 = 4.0 g/dm^3.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the anode?

(A) sodium
(B) chlorine
(C) hydrogen
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In concentrated solution, chloride ions are discharged at the positive anode to form chlorine gas.

Q20Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?

(A) oxygen
(B) sulfur
(C) hydrogen
(D) water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the cathode to form hydrogen gas.

Q21During electrolysis, towards which electrode do cations move?

(A) The cathode, which is negative
(B) The anode, which is positive
(C) Neither electrode
(D) The positive terminal of the battery only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cations are positive ions, so they are attracted to the negative cathode.

Q22Aluminium oxide is electrolysed to extract aluminium. Why is the aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite?

(A) Cryolite reacts to form aluminium directly.
(B) Cryolite increases the electrical conductivity of aluminium.
(C) It lowers the melting point of the mixture, saving energy.
(D) It removes impurities from the bauxite.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cryolite lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte from over 2000°C to about 950°C.

Q23What energy change happens inside a simple chemical (voltaic) cell?

(A) Electrical energy is changed into chemical energy.
(B) Light energy is changed into electrical energy.
(C) Kinetic energy is changed into chemical energy.
(D) Chemical energy is changed into electrical energy.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A voltaic cell uses a spontaneous chemical reaction to produce an electric current.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24A reaction mixture cools down as the reaction takes place. What does this show?

(A) The reaction is a neutralisation.
(B) The reaction is endothermic.
(C) The reaction is reversible.
(D) A catalyst is present.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An endothermic reaction takes in thermal energy from the surroundings, so their temperature falls.

Q25A reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains this in terms of bond energies?

(A) No bonds are broken or made.
(B) The energy absorbed in breaking bonds is greater than the energy released in making bonds.
(C) The energy released in making bonds is greater than the energy absorbed in breaking bonds.
(D) Bond making and bond breaking release equal energy.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

If bond formation releases more energy than bond breaking absorbs, the excess is given out as heat.

Q26Calculate the enthalpy change for H2 + 1/2 O2 → H2O using bond energies. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, O=O = 498, O-H = 464 kJ/mol)

(A) -685 kJ/mol
(B) +243 kJ/mol
(C) -121 kJ/mol
(D) -243 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bonds broken = 436 + (498/2) = 685; bonds made = 2 × 464 = 928; ΔH = 685 – 928 = -243 kJ/mol.

Q27What is the activation energy of a reaction?

(A) The total energy released by the reaction
(B) The minimum energy particles must have for a collision to react
(C) The energy stored in the products
(D) The energy given out as light
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Only collisions with energy at least equal to the activation energy can result in a reaction.

Q28Which is an advantage of using hydrogen as a fuel in vehicles?

(A) The only product of combustion is water.
(B) Hydrogen is easy to store as a liquid at room temperature.
(C) Hydrogen is obtained free from the air.
(D) Hydrogen engines produce carbon dioxide.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen burns to form only water, so it does not add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Why does increasing the pressure increase the rate of a reaction between gases?

(A) It lowers the activation energy.
(B) The particles are closer together, so collisions are more frequent.
(C) It increases the mass of each particle.
(D) It makes every collision successful.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At higher pressure the same number of particles occupies a smaller volume, increasing the collision frequency.

Q30The rate of a reaction that produces a gas is investigated. Which apparatus measures the volume of gas produced over time?

(A) A gas syringe
(B) A thermometer
(C) A pH probe only
(D) A measuring cylinder of acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A gas syringe collects and measures the gas volume at timed intervals so the rate can be calculated.

Q31A reversible reaction in a closed system reaches dynamic equilibrium. Which statement is correct?

(A) The forward reaction has stopped.
(B) The concentrations of reactants keep falling.
(C) The forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates.
(D) All the reactants have been used up.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At equilibrium both reactions still occur, but at the same rate, so concentrations stay constant.

Q32Which temperature is used in the Haber process as a compromise between rate and yield?

(A) 25°C
(B) 100°C
(C) 800°C
(D) 450°C
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

About 450°C gives an acceptable yield of ammonia at a reasonable rate; lower temperatures would be too slow.

Q33In the reaction Zn + Cu^2+ → Zn^2+ + Cu, which species is the oxidising agent?

(A) Zn
(B) Zn^2+
(C) Cu
(D) Cu^2+
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cu^2+ gains the electrons lost by zinc, so Cu^2+ causes oxidation and is the oxidising agent.

Q34Acidified potassium manganate(VII) is purple. What happens when it reacts with a reducing agent?

(A) It turns blue.
(B) It turns green permanently.
(C) It becomes colourless.
(D) It forms a brown precipitate.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A reducing agent reduces the purple manganate(VII) ions to almost colourless Mn^2+ ions.

Q35Rusting of iron is an example of which process?

(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Neutralisation
(D) Cracking
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Iron gains oxygen as it rusts, forming hydrated iron(III) oxide, so it is oxidised.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36In the Brønsted-Lowry theory, what is a base?

(A) A proton donor
(B) A proton acceptor
(C) A substance that releases OH^- ions only
(D) A substance with pH below 7
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A base accepts a hydrogen ion (proton) from an acid during a reaction.

Q37What colour does universal indicator turn in a strong acid?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Purple
(D) Blue
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Universal indicator is red at very low pH, green at pH 7 and purple in strong alkali.

Q38A soluble salt is dissolved in water. How is a pure dry sample of the salt recovered from the solution?

(A) By filtration
(B) By crystallisation followed by filtering and drying
(C) By electrolysis
(D) By simple distillation only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The solution is evaporated to the crystallisation point, cooled, and the crystals are filtered, washed and dried.

Q39Copper(II) sulfate solution is made from dilute sulfuric acid and solid copper(II) oxide. Which procedure is correct?

(A) Add exactly one drop of acid to the solid.
(B) Use titration with an indicator.
(C) Mix the acid with copper metal.
(D) Add excess copper(II) oxide to warm acid, filter, then crystallise the filtrate.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Excess insoluble oxide ensures all the acid reacts; the unreacted solid is filtered off before crystallisation.

Q40Which oxide is acidic?

(A) calcium oxide
(B) sodium oxide
(C) sulfur dioxide
(D) copper(II) oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Non-metal oxides such as sulfur dioxide are acidic; metal oxides are usually basic.

Q41Which test shows that a solid contains the carbonate ion?

(A) Warm with sodium hydroxide; a gas turns red litmus blue.
(B) Dissolve and add barium chloride; a white precipitate forms.
(C) Add dilute acid; the gas given off turns limewater milky.
(D) Add silver nitrate; a yellow precipitate forms.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbonates react with dilute acid to give carbon dioxide, which turns limewater milky.

Q42Salts formed from sulfuric acid are called

(A) sulfates
(B) sulfites
(C) sulfides
(D) nitrates
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrochloric acid gives chlorides, nitric acid gives nitrates and sulfuric acid gives sulfates.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43How does the reactivity of the halogens change down Group VII?

(A) It increases.
(B) It decreases.
(C) It stays the same.
(D) It increases then decreases.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The halogens become less reactive down the group; fluorine is the most reactive and iodine the least of the common halogens.

Q44An element is in Period 3 and Group II. What is the element?

(A) sodium
(B) calcium
(C) aluminium
(D) magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Period 3 contains Na, Mg, Al and the non-metals; the Group II member is magnesium.

Q45Which property is shown by transition elements but not by Group I metals?

(A) Reacting with water
(B) Having variable oxidation states
(C) Being stored under oil
(D) Having one outer-shell electron
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Transition elements form ions with different charges, for example Fe^2+ and Fe^3+, and their compounds are often coloured.

Q46Which Group I metal reacts most vigorously with cold water?

(A) lithium
(B) sodium
(C) magnesium
(D) potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Reactivity increases down Group I, so potassium reacts more vigorously with water than lithium or sodium.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which factor mainly decides whether a metal is extracted by heating with carbon or by electrolysis?

(A) The colour of the ore
(B) The density of the metal
(C) The reactivity of the metal
(D) The cost of the ore only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Metals below carbon in the reactivity series are extracted by carbon reduction; more reactive metals need electrolysis.

Q48In the thermite reaction, aluminium powder reacts with iron(III) oxide. What is the role of the aluminium?

(A) It reduces the iron(III) oxide to iron.
(B) It acts as a catalyst.
(C) It oxidises the iron.
(D) It neutralises the oxide.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Aluminium is more reactive than iron, so it removes oxygen from iron(III) oxide, producing molten iron.

Q49Why is aluminium used to make aircraft bodies?

(A) It is the most reactive metal.
(B) It is very dense.
(C) It does not corrode in air at all because it is unreactive.
(D) It has a low density and resists corrosion.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium is light for its strength and its oxide layer protects it from further corrosion.

Q50Galvanising protects iron from rusting. How does it work?

(A) A layer of paint keeps out the air.
(B) A coating of zinc acts as a barrier and corrodes in place of the iron.
(C) A layer of oil stops water reaching the iron.
(D) A coating of copper speeds up rusting of the surface.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc is more reactive than iron, so it acts as a barrier and also protects sacrificially if the coating is scratched.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51A farmer spreads ammonium sulfate fertiliser on a field at the same time as calcium hydroxide (slaked lime). Why does this waste the fertiliser?

(A) Ammonia gas is released, so nitrogen is lost from the soil
(B) The fertiliser dissolves too quickly in rainwater
(C) The lime makes the soil too acidic for plants
(D) The fertiliser is converted into insoluble calcium sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The alkali reacts with the ammonium salt: NH4^+ + OH^- → NH3 + H2O, so the nitrogen escapes as ammonia gas instead of feeding the plants.

Q52Which gas is a greenhouse gas?

(A) oxygen
(B) nitrogen
(C) methane
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Methane and carbon dioxide absorb infrared radiation and contribute to the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Q53What is the formula of the fertiliser ammonium nitrate?

(A) NH4NO3
(B) (NH4)2SO4
(C) NH3
(D) KNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is a widely used nitrogenous fertiliser.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnHn
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnH2n
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n.

Q55Which test distinguishes an alkene from an alkane?

(A) The alkene burns with a blue flame.
(B) The alkene decolourises bromine water.
(C) The alkane decolourises bromine water.
(D) The alkene turns limewater milky.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The C=C bond in an alkene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, removing the orange colour.

Q56What is the functional group in alcohols such as ethanol?

(A) -COOH
(B) C=C
(C) -OH
(D) -NH2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alcohols contain the hydroxyl functional group, -OH, attached to a carbon chain.

Q57Which statement about condensation polymerisation is correct?

(A) Only one product is formed.
(B) The monomers must contain C=C bonds.
(C) A small molecule such as water is lost as the polymer forms.
(D) It is used to make poly(ethene).
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In condensation polymerisation, monomers join by reacting together and eliminating a small molecule, usually water.

Q58What are the products when a long-chain alkane is cracked?

(A) Only carbon and hydrogen
(B) A shorter-chain alkane and an alkene
(C) An alcohol and a carboxylic acid
(D) Carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which test identifies oxygen gas?

(A) It gives a pop with a lighted splint.
(B) It turns limewater milky.
(C) It bleaches damp litmus paper.
(D) It relights a glowing splint.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; this is the standard test for the gas.

Q60How can the melting point be used to judge the purity of a substance?

(A) A pure substance has a sharp melting point; impurities lower and broaden it.
(B) A pure substance has no melting point.
(C) Impurities always raise the melting point.
(D) Purity cannot be judged from melting point.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Pure substances melt sharply at one temperature, while impure samples melt over a range at a lower temperature.