IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 17
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Which change is condensation?
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Correct: (B)
Condensation is the change from the gas state to the liquid state when particles lose energy.
Q2Diffusion happens most quickly in which state of matter?
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Correct: (D)
Gas particles move most freely and at the highest speeds, so they spread out fastest.
Q3Which statement describes the particles in a solid?
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Correct: (A)
In a solid the particles are held in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom has 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons. What is its nucleon (mass) number?
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Correct: (C)
Nucleon number = protons + neutrons = 6 + 6 = 12.
Q5Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Isotopes have the same proton number but different neutron numbers, so their chemistry is the same.
Q6What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium atom?
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Correct: (C)
Magnesium has 12 electrons arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 2 in the third shell.
Q7How is an ionic compound such as magnesium oxide formed?
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Correct: (D)
The metal loses electrons and the non-metal gains them, forming oppositely charged ions.
Q8Which molecule contains a double covalent bond?
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Correct: (B)
An oxygen molecule has a double bond, O=O, between the two atoms.
Q9Why does diamond have a very high melting point?
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Correct: (C)
Diamond is a giant covalent structure, and a large amount of energy is needed to break its many strong bonds.
Q10Which statement describes metallic bonding?
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Correct: (A)
Metallic bonding is the attraction between positive metal ions and a sea of delocalised electrons.
Q11An ion X^2- contains 18 electrons. The neutral atom X is in which group, and what is X?
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Correct: (B)
The ion gained 2 electrons, so the atom has 16 electrons and 16 protons: sulfur, in Group VI.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12How many moles are in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (D)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.50 mol.
Q13What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.
Q14A solution has a concentration of 0.50 mol/dm^3. How many moles of solute are in 250 cm^3 of it?
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Correct: (B)
250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3, so moles = 0.50 × 0.250 = 0.125 mol.
Q15A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
Moles: C = 40/12 = 3.33, H = 6.7/1 = 6.7, O = 53.3/16 = 3.33; ratio 1 : 2 : 1 gives CH2O.
Q16In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 24 g but only 18 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (A)
Percentage yield = (18 / 24) × 100 = 75%.
Q17Calcium carbonate decomposes when heated: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of CaO is made from 10 g of CaCO3? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)
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Correct: (A)
10 g CaCO3 is 0.10 mol, which makes 0.10 mol CaO = 0.10 × 56 = 5.6 g.
Q18A compound has empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 42. What is its molecular formula?
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Correct: (D)
The empirical unit has Mr = 14; 42 / 14 = 3, so the molecular formula is C3H6.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?
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Correct: (B)
Lead ions, Pb^2+, move to the negative cathode and gain electrons to form lead metal.
Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?
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Correct: (C)
Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so copper ions are discharged and copper coats the cathode.
Q21In an electrolysis cell, which statement about the anode is correct?
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Correct: (C)
In electrolysis the anode is connected to the positive terminal and attracts negative ions.
Q22Why is aluminium extracted from its ore by electrolysis rather than by heating with carbon?
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Correct: (B)
Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon cannot remove oxygen from aluminium oxide.
Q23Why does an electrolyte conduct electricity when molten or in solution?
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Correct: (A)
In the solid the ions are locked in place, but when molten or dissolved they can move to the electrodes.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?
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Correct: (D)
An exothermic reaction releases thermal energy, warming the surroundings.
Q25Which statement about bond energies is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Energy must be supplied to break bonds, and energy is released when new bonds form.
Q26Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678; bonds made = 2 × 431 = 862; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q27In a hydrogen fuel cell, what is the overall product formed?
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Correct: (C)
Hydrogen reacts with oxygen in the cell and the only product is water.
Q28Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (B)
Calcium carbonate only decomposes when heat energy is continuously supplied, so the process takes in energy.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Why does raising the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (B)
At a higher temperature particles move faster, so a greater proportion of collisions have enough energy to react.
Q30How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (C)
A catalyst offers a different reaction route needing less energy, and it is not used up.
Q31Powdered marble reacts faster with dilute hydrochloric acid than the same mass of marble chips. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Powder exposes more surface, so acid particles collide with the solid more frequently.
Q32Which reaction is reversible?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrated copper(II) sulfate loses water on heating and regains it when water is added, so the change can go both ways.
Q33In the Haber process, N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What happens to the yield of ammonia when the pressure is increased?
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Correct: (A)
There are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure shifts the equilibrium towards ammonia.
Q34In terms of electrons, oxidation is
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Correct: (B)
Oxidation is the loss of electrons (OIL: Oxidation Is Loss).
Q35Which statement about a reducing agent is correct?
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Correct: (D)
A reducing agent donates electrons to another substance and is oxidised in the process.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36A dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate. What are the products?
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Correct: (C)
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.
Q37What is the pH of a strong alkali such as concentrated sodium hydroxide solution?
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Correct: (C)
Strong alkalis have high pH values, around 13-14.
Q38Barium sulfate is insoluble in water. How is a pure sample of barium sulfate prepared?
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Correct: (D)
Insoluble salts are made by precipitation: mixing the two solutions forms solid barium sulfate, which is filtered, washed and dried.
Q39Sodium chloride solution is to be prepared from sodium hydroxide solution and dilute hydrochloric acid. Which method is used?
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Correct: (A)
Both reactants are solutions, so titration with an indicator is used to find the exact volumes that react.
Q40Which oxide is amphoteric?
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Correct: (B)
Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is amphoteric.
Q41Which test identifies the sulfate ion in a solution?
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Correct: (D)
Barium ions form insoluble white barium sulfate with sulfate ions.
Q42What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation of an acid by an alkali?
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Correct: (C)
In every acid-alkali neutralisation, hydrogen ions react with hydroxide ions to form water.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43How does the reactivity of the Group I metals change down the group?
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Correct: (B)
Group I metals become more reactive down the group; potassium reacts more violently with water than lithium.
Q44Chlorine water is added to a solution of potassium bromide. What is seen?
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Correct: (A)
Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine, giving an orange solution.
Q45Which property is typical of transition elements?
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Correct: (B)
Transition elements form coloured compounds and many act as catalysts, unlike Group I metals.
Q46Why are the noble gases very unreactive?
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Correct: (A)
A complete outer electron shell is very stable, so noble gas atoms do not gain, lose or share electrons.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which of these metals reacts most vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (C)
Magnesium is the highest of these metals in the reactivity series, so it reacts most vigorously.
Q48In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron. Which substance removes the oxygen?
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Correct: (D)
Carbon monoxide reduces iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.
Q49Stainless steel is an alloy of iron. Which element is added to iron to make stainless steel?
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Correct: (A)
Stainless steel contains chromium (and often nickel), which prevents rusting.
Q50Which two substances must both be present for iron to rust?
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Correct: (C)
Rusting is the corrosion of iron and needs both water and oxygen (air).
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Why is chlorine added to drinking water supplies?
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine sterilises the water by killing microbes that cause disease.
Q52Which gas makes up about 78% of clean, dry air?
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Correct: (D)
Air is approximately 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.
Q53Which fertiliser supplies nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium to the soil?
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Correct: (D)
NPK fertilisers contain all three essential elements: nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (B)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q55Ethene is bubbled through bromine water. What is observed?
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Correct: (A)
Ethene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction across the C=C bond, decolourising the bromine water.
Q56Ethanol can be oxidised to form which compound?
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Correct: (C)
Oxidation of ethanol (for example by acidified potassium manganate(VII)) produces ethanoic acid.
Q57Poly(ethene) is made by addition polymerisation. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (C)
In addition polymerisation, many unsaturated monomer molecules add together to form only the polymer.
Q58Crude oil is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. On what property does the separation depend?
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Correct: (A)
Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column according to its boiling point range.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which test identifies hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen burns with a characteristic squeaky pop when a lighted splint is applied.
Q60In a chromatography experiment a spot moves 4.0 cm while the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?
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Correct: (B)
Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.50.
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