IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 17

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which change is condensation?

(A) liquid → gas
(B) gas → liquid
(C) solid → liquid
(D) solid → gas
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Condensation is the change from the gas state to the liquid state when particles lose energy.

Q2Diffusion happens most quickly in which state of matter?

(A) solids
(B) liquids
(C) solutions
(D) gases
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Gas particles move most freely and at the highest speeds, so they spread out fastest.

Q3Which statement describes the particles in a solid?

(A) They vibrate about fixed positions.
(B) They move randomly throughout the container.
(C) They are far apart and compressible.
(D) They slide past each other freely.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a solid the particles are held in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom has 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons. What is its nucleon (mass) number?

(A) 6
(B) 18
(C) 12
(D) 36
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nucleon number = protons + neutrons = 6 + 6 = 12.

Q5Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?

(A) They have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
(B) They have the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.
(C) They have different chemical properties.
(D) They have the same nucleon number.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Isotopes have the same proton number but different neutron numbers, so their chemistry is the same.

Q6What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium atom?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,8,8
(C) 2,8,2
(D) 2,2,8
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Magnesium has 12 electrons arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 2 in the third shell.

Q7How is an ionic compound such as magnesium oxide formed?

(A) By sharing pairs of electrons between atoms
(B) By atoms forming a giant covalent lattice
(C) By delocalised electrons holding atoms together
(D) By transfer of electrons from metal atoms to non-metal atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The metal loses electrons and the non-metal gains them, forming oppositely charged ions.

Q8Which molecule contains a double covalent bond?

(A) H2
(B) O2
(C) HCl
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An oxygen molecule has a double bond, O=O, between the two atoms.

Q9Why does diamond have a very high melting point?

(A) It has weak forces between molecules.
(B) It contains delocalised electrons.
(C) Many strong covalent bonds must be broken.
(D) It contains oppositely charged ions.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Diamond is a giant covalent structure, and a large amount of energy is needed to break its many strong bonds.

Q10Which statement describes metallic bonding?

(A) A lattice of positive ions in a sea of delocalised electrons
(B) Pairs of electrons shared between atoms
(C) Strong attractions between oppositely charged ions only
(D) Weak forces between separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metallic bonding is the attraction between positive metal ions and a sea of delocalised electrons.

Q11An ion X^2- contains 18 electrons. The neutral atom X is in which group, and what is X?

(A) Group VI, oxygen
(B) Group VI, sulfur
(C) Group VII, chlorine
(D) Group 0, argon
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The ion gained 2 electrons, so the atom has 16 electrons and 16 protons: sulfur, in Group VI.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 2.0 mol
(B) 0.25 mol
(C) 128 mol
(D) 0.50 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q13What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 96 dm^3
(B) 12 dm^3
(C) 2.4 dm^3
(D) 6.0 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.

Q14A solution has a concentration of 0.50 mol/dm^3. How many moles of solute are in 250 cm^3 of it?

(A) 0.050 mol
(B) 0.125 mol
(C) 2.0 mol
(D) 125 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3, so moles = 0.50 × 0.250 = 0.125 mol.

Q15A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)

(A) CHO
(B) C2H4O2
(C) CH2O
(D) CH4O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles: C = 40/12 = 3.33, H = 6.7/1 = 6.7, O = 53.3/16 = 3.33; ratio 1 : 2 : 1 gives CH2O.

Q16In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 24 g but only 18 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 75%
(B) 133%
(C) 25%
(D) 42%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage yield = (18 / 24) × 100 = 75%.

Q17Calcium carbonate decomposes when heated: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of CaO is made from 10 g of CaCO3? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)

(A) 5.6 g
(B) 10 g
(C) 56 g
(D) 4.4 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

10 g CaCO3 is 0.10 mol, which makes 0.10 mol CaO = 0.10 × 56 = 5.6 g.

Q18A compound has empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 42. What is its molecular formula?

(A) C2H4
(B) CH2
(C) C3H8
(D) C3H6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The empirical unit has Mr = 14; 42 / 14 = 3, so the molecular formula is C3H6.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?

(A) bromine
(B) lead
(C) hydrogen
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Lead ions, Pb^2+, move to the negative cathode and gain electrons to form lead metal.

Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) copper
(D) sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so copper ions are discharged and copper coats the cathode.

Q21In an electrolysis cell, which statement about the anode is correct?

(A) It is the negative electrode.
(B) Reduction happens there.
(C) It is the positive electrode.
(D) Cations move towards it.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In electrolysis the anode is connected to the positive terminal and attracts negative ions.

Q22Why is aluminium extracted from its ore by electrolysis rather than by heating with carbon?

(A) Aluminium is less reactive than carbon.
(B) Aluminium is too reactive for carbon reduction.
(C) Aluminium oxide is a gas.
(D) Carbon is more expensive than electricity.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Aluminium is above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon cannot remove oxygen from aluminium oxide.

Q23Why does an electrolyte conduct electricity when molten or in solution?

(A) Its ions are free to move.
(B) It contains delocalised electrons in the liquid.
(C) Its molecules become charged when heated.
(D) It reacts with the electrodes.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In the solid the ions are locked in place, but when molten or dissolved they can move to the electrodes.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?

(A) The temperature of the surroundings falls.
(B) A gas is produced.
(C) The mixture fizzes.
(D) The temperature of the surroundings rises.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An exothermic reaction releases thermal energy, warming the surroundings.

Q25Which statement about bond energies is correct?

(A) Breaking bonds releases energy.
(B) Making bonds absorbs energy.
(C) Bond energies are only used for ionic compounds.
(D) Breaking bonds requires energy and making bonds releases energy.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy must be supplied to break bonds, and energy is released when new bonds form.

Q26Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)

(A) -184 kJ/mol
(B) +184 kJ/mol
(C) -92 kJ/mol
(D) -1109 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678; bonds made = 2 × 431 = 862; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q27In a hydrogen fuel cell, what is the overall product formed?

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) water
(D) carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen reacts with oxygen in the cell and the only product is water.

Q28Which process is endothermic?

(A) Combustion of methane
(B) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(D) Freezing of water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Calcium carbonate only decomposes when heat energy is continuously supplied, so the process takes in energy.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Why does raising the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It lowers the activation energy.
(B) More particles collide with energy equal to or greater than the activation energy.
(C) It increases the concentration of the reactants.
(D) It makes all collisions successful.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At a higher temperature particles move faster, so a greater proportion of collisions have enough energy to react.

Q30How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It raises the temperature of the mixture.
(B) It increases the energy of the particles.
(C) It provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy.
(D) It is used up to form more product.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst offers a different reaction route needing less energy, and it is not used up.

Q31Powdered marble reacts faster with dilute hydrochloric acid than the same mass of marble chips. Why?

(A) The powder has a lower activation energy.
(B) The powder is more concentrated.
(C) The powder produces a catalyst.
(D) The powder has a larger surface area for collisions.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Powder exposes more surface, so acid particles collide with the solid more frequently.

Q32Which reaction is reversible?

(A) Heating blue hydrated copper(II) sulfate crystals
(B) Burning magnesium in air
(C) Reacting zinc with dilute sulfuric acid in an open test-tube
(D) Neutralising an acid with an alkali
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrated copper(II) sulfate loses water on heating and regains it when water is added, so the change can go both ways.

Q33In the Haber process, N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What happens to the yield of ammonia when the pressure is increased?

(A) It increases, because the products side has fewer gas molecules.
(B) It decreases, because the reactants side has fewer gas molecules.
(C) It stays the same, because a catalyst is used.
(D) It increases, because the temperature rises.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

There are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure shifts the equilibrium towards ammonia.

Q34In terms of electrons, oxidation is

(A) gain of electrons
(B) loss of electrons
(C) sharing of electrons
(D) loss of protons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxidation is the loss of electrons (OIL: Oxidation Is Loss).

Q35Which statement about a reducing agent is correct?

(A) It gains electrons and is reduced.
(B) It removes electrons from itself.
(C) It is never changed in the reaction.
(D) It loses electrons and is itself oxidised.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A reducing agent donates electrons to another substance and is oxidised in the process.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36A dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate. What are the products?

(A) salt + hydrogen
(B) salt + water only
(C) salt + water + carbon dioxide
(D) salt + oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q37What is the pH of a strong alkali such as concentrated sodium hydroxide solution?

(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 13
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Strong alkalis have high pH values, around 13-14.

Q38Barium sulfate is insoluble in water. How is a pure sample of barium sulfate prepared?

(A) By titration
(B) By reacting barium metal with sulfuric acid
(C) By evaporation of a solution
(D) By mixing solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulfate and filtering
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Insoluble salts are made by precipitation: mixing the two solutions forms solid barium sulfate, which is filtered, washed and dried.

Q39Sodium chloride solution is to be prepared from sodium hydroxide solution and dilute hydrochloric acid. Which method is used?

(A) Titration using an indicator
(B) Adding excess solid sodium hydroxide to the acid
(C) Precipitation
(D) Electrolysis
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Both reactants are solutions, so titration with an indicator is used to find the exact volumes that react.

Q40Which oxide is amphoteric?

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) aluminium oxide
(C) sodium oxide
(D) sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is amphoteric.

Q41Which test identifies the sulfate ion in a solution?

(A) Add sodium hydroxide; a green precipitate forms.
(B) Add silver nitrate; a cream precipitate forms.
(C) Add dilute acid; a gas turns limewater milky.
(D) Add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Barium ions form insoluble white barium sulfate with sulfate ions.

Q42What is the ionic equation for the neutralisation of an acid by an alkali?

(A) H^+ + Cl^- → HCl
(B) Na^+ + OH^- → NaOH
(C) H^+ + OH^- → H2O
(D) H2 + O2 → H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In every acid-alkali neutralisation, hydrogen ions react with hydroxide ions to form water.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43How does the reactivity of the Group I metals change down the group?

(A) It decreases.
(B) It increases.
(C) It stays the same.
(D) It increases then decreases.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Group I metals become more reactive down the group; potassium reacts more violently with water than lithium.

Q44Chlorine water is added to a solution of potassium bromide. What is seen?

(A) The solution turns orange as bromine is formed.
(B) The solution turns purple as iodine is formed.
(C) A white precipitate forms.
(D) No change occurs.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine, giving an orange solution.

Q45Which property is typical of transition elements?

(A) They have low melting points.
(B) They form coloured compounds.
(C) They are soft and can be cut with a knife.
(D) Their compounds are always white.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Transition elements form coloured compounds and many act as catalysts, unlike Group I metals.

Q46Why are the noble gases very unreactive?

(A) They have a full outer shell of electrons.
(B) They are all solids at room temperature.
(C) They have no electrons.
(D) They have more neutrons than protons.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A complete outer electron shell is very stable, so noble gas atoms do not gain, lose or share electrons.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which of these metals reacts most vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) magnesium
(D) silver
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Magnesium is the highest of these metals in the reactivity series, so it reacts most vigorously.

Q48In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron. Which substance removes the oxygen?

(A) limestone
(B) hot air
(C) slag
(D) carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon monoxide reduces iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.

Q49Stainless steel is an alloy of iron. Which element is added to iron to make stainless steel?

(A) chromium
(B) carbon only
(C) zinc
(D) tin
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Stainless steel contains chromium (and often nickel), which prevents rusting.

Q50Which two substances must both be present for iron to rust?

(A) oxygen and carbon dioxide
(B) water and carbon dioxide
(C) water and oxygen
(D) water and nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rusting is the corrosion of iron and needs both water and oxygen (air).

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Why is chlorine added to drinking water supplies?

(A) To improve the taste
(B) To kill harmful microorganisms
(C) To remove dissolved calcium salts
(D) To make the water slightly acidic
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine sterilises the water by killing microbes that cause disease.

Q52Which gas makes up about 78% of clean, dry air?

(A) oxygen
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) argon
(D) nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Air is approximately 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.

Q53Which fertiliser supplies nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium to the soil?

(A) ammonium nitrate
(B) superphosphate
(C) urea
(D) an NPK compound fertiliser
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

NPK fertilisers contain all three essential elements: nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnHn
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q55Ethene is bubbled through bromine water. What is observed?

(A) The orange bromine water becomes colourless.
(B) A white precipitate forms.
(C) The mixture catches fire.
(D) The bromine water turns blue.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ethene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction across the C=C bond, decolourising the bromine water.

Q56Ethanol can be oxidised to form which compound?

(A) ethene
(B) ethane
(C) ethanoic acid
(D) ethyl ethanoate directly, with no other product
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Oxidation of ethanol (for example by acidified potassium manganate(VII)) produces ethanoic acid.

Q57Poly(ethene) is made by addition polymerisation. Which statement is correct?

(A) Water is lost when the monomers join.
(B) The monomer is ethanoic acid.
(C) Many ethene monomers join and no other product is formed.
(D) The polymer contains C=C bonds in every repeat unit.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In addition polymerisation, many unsaturated monomer molecules add together to form only the polymer.

Q58Crude oil is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. On what property does the separation depend?

(A) The different boiling points of the hydrocarbons
(B) The different colours of the hydrocarbons
(C) The different densities of the fractions only
(D) The flammability of the hydrocarbons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column according to its boiling point range.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which test identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) It relights a glowing splint.
(B) It turns limewater milky.
(C) It turns damp red litmus blue.
(D) It gives a pop with a lighted splint.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen burns with a characteristic squeaky pop when a lighted splint is applied.

Q60In a chromatography experiment a spot moves 4.0 cm while the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.50
(C) 4.0
(D) 12
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.50.