IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 16
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Which statement about evaporation is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Evaporation is the escape of the most energetic particles from the surface of a liquid. It happens at any temperature, unlike boiling, which occurs at one fixed temperature throughout the liquid.
Q2A liquid is cooled down until it freezes. What happens to the movement of its particles?
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Correct: (B)
As a liquid cools, its particles lose energy and move more slowly. On freezing they are locked into a regular arrangement by strong forces, vibrating about fixed positions.
Q3Which state of matter has a fixed volume but takes the shape of its container?
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Correct: (D)
The particles in a liquid are close together, so the liquid has a fixed volume, but they can slide past each other, so the liquid takes the shape of its container.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom of an element contains 6 protons and 8 neutrons. What is its nucleon number?
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Correct: (B)
Nucleon number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 6 + 8 = 14. (This atom is an isotope of carbon, carbon-14.)
Q5Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?
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Correct: (C)
The nucleus at the centre of the atom contains protons and neutrons. The electrons move around the nucleus in shells.
Q6An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,2. What is the charge on the ion formed by this element?
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Correct: (A)
The element (magnesium) has 2 electrons in its outer shell. It loses both electrons to form a Mg^2+ ion with a full outer shell.
Q7Sodium chloride has a very high melting point. Why is this?
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Correct: (D)
Ionic compounds have giant lattice structures. Strong attractions between oppositely charged ions act in all directions, so a lot of energy is needed to melt them.
Q8How many electrons are shared in a double covalent bond, such as the bond in an oxygen molecule, O2?
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Correct: (B)
A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons, which is 4 electrons in total.
Q9Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. Why does graphite conduct electricity?
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Correct: (C)
In graphite each carbon forms only three covalent bonds. The fourth outer electron from each atom joins a pool of delocalised electrons that can carry charge through the structure. In diamond all four electrons are used in bonds.
Q10Which statement about silicon dioxide (sand) is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Silicon dioxide has a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure like diamond, with strong covalent bonds throughout, so it has a very high melting point.
Q11A sample of magnesium contains 80% magnesium-24, 10% magnesium-25 and 10% magnesium-26. What is the relative atomic mass of magnesium in this sample?
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Correct: (D)
Ar = (80 × 24 + 10 × 25 + 10 × 26) / 100 = (1920 + 250 + 260) / 100 = 24.3.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12How many moles are there in 25 g of calcium carbonate? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)
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Correct: (B)
Moles = mass / Mr = 25 / 100 = 0.25 mol.
Q13What volume is occupied by 0.50 mol of hydrogen gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = moles × molar volume = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.
Q14How many moles of sodium hydroxide are dissolved in 20 cm^3 of a 2.0 mol/dm^3 solution?
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Correct: (A)
20 cm^3 = 0.020 dm^3. Moles = concentration × volume = 2.0 × 0.020 = 0.040 mol.
Q15A compound contains 27.3% carbon and 72.7% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
Moles: C = 27.3/12 = 2.275, O = 72.7/16 = 4.54. Ratio = 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CO2.
Q16A reaction has a theoretical yield of 20 g. The actual yield obtained is 15 g. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage yield = (15 / 20) × 100 = 75%.
Q172.4 g of magnesium burns completely in oxygen to form magnesium oxide. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed? (Ar of Mg = 24, Mr of MgO = 40)
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Correct: (A)
Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol. The equation 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO shows 1 mol of Mg gives 1 mol of MgO, so mass of MgO = 0.10 × 40 = 4.0 g.
Q18What is the relative molecular mass, Mr, of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (D)
K^+ ions move to the negative cathode, where they gain electrons and are discharged as potassium metal. Chlorine is formed at the anode.
Q20Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which gas is given off at the cathode, and how does its volume compare with the gas at the anode?
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Correct: (B)
Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen, and oxygen is given off at the anode. Twice as much hydrogen is produced as oxygen (a 2 : 1 ratio by volume).
Q21In electrolysis, positive ions (cations) move towards the cathode because
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Correct: (A)
In electrolysis the cathode is connected to the negative terminal of the power supply, so it attracts positively charged cations, which gain electrons there.
Q22A metal key is to be electroplated with copper. In the electrolysis cell, the key must be connected as the
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Correct: (C)
The object to be plated is made the cathode (negative electrode), so that positive metal ions from the solution are discharged onto its surface as a layer of metal.
Q23In the extraction of aluminium, the carbon anodes have to be replaced regularly. Why is this?
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen is discharged at the carbon anodes and reacts with them: C + O2 → CO2. The anodes are gradually used up and must be replaced.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which reaction is exothermic?
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Correct: (D)
Combustion reactions give out energy to the surroundings, so they are exothermic. In (C) energy is taken in from the surroundings, which is why the temperature falls.
Q25Using the bond energies shown, what is the enthalpy change for the complete combustion of methane, CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O? (Bond energies in kJ/mol: C-H = 410, O=O = 500, C=O = 800, O-H = 460)
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken: 4 C-H + 2 O=O = (4 × 410) + (2 × 500) = 1640 + 1000 = 2640 kJ. Bonds formed: 2 C=O + 4 O-H = (2 × 800) + (4 × 460) = 1600 + 1840 = 3440 kJ. ΔH = 2640 – 3440 = -800 kJ/mol.
Q26During a reaction carried out in a test-tube, the temperature of the mixture falls. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (C)
A fall in temperature shows that the reaction takes in energy from the surroundings, so the reaction is endothermic and ΔH is positive.
Q27Which statement about bond breaking and bond making is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Energy must be supplied to break bonds, and energy is released when new bonds form. A reaction is exothermic when more energy is released in bond making than is taken in by bond breaking.
Q28Four simple cells are made using dilute sulfuric acid and pairs of metal electrodes. Which pair of metals gives the largest voltage?
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Correct: (D)
The voltage of a simple cell is larger when the two metals are further apart in the reactivity series. Magnesium and copper are the furthest apart of these pairs, so this cell gives the largest voltage.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Increasing the concentration of a reacting solution increases the rate of reaction because
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Correct: (A)
A higher concentration means more particles in a given volume, so the frequency of collisions increases and the reaction is faster.
Q30Which statement about a catalyst is correct?
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Correct: (C)
A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by providing a pathway with a lower activation energy, and it is not used up; it can be recovered unchanged at the end.
Q31A student measures the rate of a reaction in which a gas is produced. 24 cm^3 of gas is collected in the first 30 seconds. What is the average rate of reaction over the first 30 seconds?
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Correct: (B)
Average rate = volume of gas / time = 24 / 30 = 0.8 cm^3/s.
Q32In the Contact process, sulfur trioxide is made by the reversible reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g). The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens if the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (D)
Increasing the temperature shifts the position of equilibrium in the direction of the endothermic reaction (the backward reaction here), so less sulfur trioxide is present at equilibrium, although the reaction is reached faster.
Q33Which reaction is a redox reaction?
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Correct: (C)
In reaction (C), magnesium is oxidised (it loses electrons to form Mg^2+) and copper(II) ions are reduced. Oxidation and reduction occur together, so it is a redox reaction. The others involve no change in oxidation state.
Q34In the reaction CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O, which substance is the oxidising agent?
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Correct: (A)
Copper(II) oxide gives oxygen to the hydrogen (and its copper ions gain electrons), so CuO is reduced and it acts as the oxidising agent. Hydrogen is the reducing agent.
Q35Which change would NOT increase the rate of reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (D)
One large piece has a smaller surface area exposed to the acid than the same mass in small pieces, so it reacts more slowly. Warming, powdering and increasing concentration all increase the rate.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Which statement about a base is correct?
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Correct: (B)
A base is a substance that neutralises an acid (a base is a proton acceptor). A base that dissolves in water is called an alkali; not all bases are soluble.
Q37Excess copper(II) oxide powder is warmed with dilute nitric acid. What are the products?
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Correct: (C)
A metal oxide is a base, and acids react with bases to give a salt and water: CuO + 2HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + H2O.
Q38Which oxide is a neutral oxide?
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Correct: (A)
Carbon monoxide is a neutral oxide: it shows neither acidic nor basic behaviour. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are acidic oxides, and magnesium oxide is a basic oxide.
Q39Barium sulfate is insoluble in water. Which method is the best way to prepare a pure, dry sample of barium sulfate?
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Correct: (D)
An insoluble salt is made by precipitation. Mixing the two solutions forms barium sulfate as a precipitate, which is filtered off, washed to remove soluble impurities and dried.
Q40A student adds excess zinc oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid and stirs until no more dissolves. The mixture is filtered and the filtrate is heated until crystals just begin to form, then left to cool. Which substance is made by this method?
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Correct: (B)
Zinc oxide is an insoluble base. Reacting it with sulfuric acid, filtering off the excess and crystallising the filtrate gives zinc sulfate crystals: ZnO + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2O.
Q41Ammonium sulfate, a fertiliser, is made by neutralising ammonia solution with which acid?
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Correct: (C)
The sulfate salt is formed from sulfuric acid: 2NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4.
Q42What is the approximate pH of a solution of sodium hydroxide, a strong alkali?
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Correct: (D)
Sodium hydroxide is a strong alkali, so its solution has a high pH, around 13-14, and turns Universal Indicator purple.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43Which statement about the Group I metals is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Reactivity increases down Group I because the single outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost. They are soft metals with low melting points and are stored under oil.
Q44Bromine water is added to a solution of potassium chloride. What is observed?
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Correct: (B)
A more reactive halogen displaces a less reactive one, but bromine is below chlorine in Group VII, so it cannot displace chlorine from its compounds and no reaction occurs.
Q45Which is a typical property of transition metals (transition elements)?
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Correct: (D)
Transition metals are hard, dense, strong metals with high melting points. They form coloured compounds and ions with variable oxidation states, e.g. Fe^2+ and Fe^3+.
Q46An atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,3. In which period of the Periodic Table is this element?
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Correct: (D)
The atom has electrons in three shells (2 + 8 + 3), so it is in Period 3. It has 3 outer electrons, so it is also in Group III (aluminium).
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which metal reacts steadily with cold water, forming a solution that turns Universal Indicator purple?
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Correct: (A)
Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide, an alkali that turns Universal Indicator purple, and hydrogen: Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2. Copper and zinc do not react with cold water, and iron reacts only very slowly (rusting).
Q48In the blast furnace, limestone is added during the extraction of iron. What is the purpose of the limestone?
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Correct: (C)
The limestone (calcium carbonate) decomposes and the calcium oxide formed reacts with sandy impurities to form molten slag, which is tapped off separately from the molten iron. Carbon (coke) is the fuel and source of the reducing agent.
Q49Stainless steel is used to make cutlery (knives and forks). Which property makes it suitable for this use?
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Correct: (B)
Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with chromium (and other metals). It does not rust, so it stays clean and shiny, making it ideal for cutlery.
Q50Which method protects iron from rusting by sacrificial protection?
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Correct: (D)
Magnesium is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes (loses electrons) instead of the iron. Painting, oiling and plastic coating are barrier methods that simply keep out air and water.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51In the treatment of water for drinking, filtration is used to remove
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Correct: (C)
The water is passed through filter beds (often sand), which trap insoluble solid particles. Chlorination afterwards kills bacteria.
Q52Approximately what percentage of clean, dry air is nitrogen?
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Correct: (A)
Clean dry air contains about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with about 1% argon and noble gases and 0.04% carbon dioxide.
Q53Why is ammonium nitrate used as a fertiliser?
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Correct: (B)
Ammonium nitrate contains a high percentage of nitrogen in a form plants can absorb. Fertilisers supply elements such as nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (NPK) needed for healthy plant growth.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54Which formula represents an alkene?
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Correct: (D)
Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n and contain a C=C double bond. C3H6 fits CnH2n. C2H6, CH4 and C3H8 are alkanes with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q55Ethene reacts with hydrogen in the presence of a nickel catalyst. What is the product?
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Correct: (A)
This is an addition reaction: hydrogen adds across the C=C double bond, converting ethene into the saturated alkane ethane: C2H4 + H2 → C2H6.
Q56Long-chain hydrocarbons from crude oil are cracked. What does cracking produce?
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Correct: (C)
Cracking breaks large hydrocarbon molecules into smaller, more useful ones, typically a shorter-chain alkane and an alkene. The alkenes are used to make polymers and the short alkanes as fuels.
Q57Which statement about poly(ethene) is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Ethene molecules join together by addition polymerisation, opening their double bonds, to form poly(ethene). No other product is formed, and the polymer is non-biodegradable.
Q58Ethanol in alcoholic drinks left open to the air slowly turns sour. This is because the ethanol is oxidised to
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Correct: (D)
Ethanol is oxidised (by bacteria in the air, or by acidified potassium dichromate in the laboratory) to ethanoic acid, which is the acid in vinegar and gives the sour taste.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which test identifies the chloride ion, Cl^-, in a solution?
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Correct: (C)
Silver nitrate gives a white precipitate of silver chloride with chloride ions. The solution is acidified with dilute nitric acid first. Test (A) is for sulfate ions and test (D) is for ammonium ions.
Q60A solid sample is heated in a melting-point apparatus. It melts gradually over a range of temperatures instead of at one sharp temperature. What does this show about the sample?
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Correct: (A)
A pure substance melts sharply at one fixed temperature. Impurities lower the melting point and make the substance melt over a range of temperatures.
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