IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 16

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which statement about evaporation is correct?

(A) It occurs at any temperature and takes place only at the surface of a liquid
(B) It occurs only when the liquid reaches its boiling point
(C) It takes place throughout the whole liquid at the same time
(D) It can only happen if the liquid is heated strongly
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Evaporation is the escape of the most energetic particles from the surface of a liquid. It happens at any temperature, unlike boiling, which occurs at one fixed temperature throughout the liquid.

Q2A liquid is cooled down until it freezes. What happens to the movement of its particles?

(A) They move faster and spread further apart
(B) They move more slowly and become held in fixed positions
(C) They stop moving completely
(D) They move faster but come closer together
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

As a liquid cools, its particles lose energy and move more slowly. On freezing they are locked into a regular arrangement by strong forces, vibrating about fixed positions.

Q3Which state of matter has a fixed volume but takes the shape of its container?

(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Aqueous solution vapour
(D) Liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The particles in a liquid are close together, so the liquid has a fixed volume, but they can slide past each other, so the liquid takes the shape of its container.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of an element contains 6 protons and 8 neutrons. What is its nucleon number?

(A) 6
(B) 14
(C) 8
(D) 2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nucleon number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 6 + 8 = 14. (This atom is an isotope of carbon, carbon-14.)

Q5Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

(A) Electrons and protons
(B) Neutrons and electrons
(C) Protons and neutrons
(D) Electrons only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The nucleus at the centre of the atom contains protons and neutrons. The electrons move around the nucleus in shells.

Q6An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,2. What is the charge on the ion formed by this element?

(A) 2+
(B) 2-
(C) 6+
(D) 8-
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The element (magnesium) has 2 electrons in its outer shell. It loses both electrons to form a Mg^2+ ion with a full outer shell.

Q7Sodium chloride has a very high melting point. Why is this?

(A) Weak forces between sodium chloride molecules must be broken
(B) Covalent bonds between sodium and chlorine are very strong
(C) The ions carry only small charges
(D) A large amount of energy is needed to break the strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions in the giant lattice
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ionic compounds have giant lattice structures. Strong attractions between oppositely charged ions act in all directions, so a lot of energy is needed to melt them.

Q8How many electrons are shared in a double covalent bond, such as the bond in an oxygen molecule, O2?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A double bond consists of two shared pairs of electrons, which is 4 electrons in total.

Q9Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. Why does graphite conduct electricity?

(A) Graphite contains free ions between its layers
(B) The layers in graphite are charged
(C) Each carbon atom in graphite is bonded to three others, leaving one electron per atom that is delocalised and free to move
(D) Graphite is a metal as well as a form of carbon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In graphite each carbon forms only three covalent bonds. The fourth outer electron from each atom joins a pool of delocalised electrons that can carry charge through the structure. In diamond all four electrons are used in bonds.

Q10Which statement about silicon dioxide (sand) is correct?

(A) It has a very high melting point because it is a giant covalent structure
(B) It conducts electricity in the solid state
(C) It has a low melting point because it consists of small molecules
(D) It dissolves readily in water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Silicon dioxide has a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure like diamond, with strong covalent bonds throughout, so it has a very high melting point.

Q11A sample of magnesium contains 80% magnesium-24, 10% magnesium-25 and 10% magnesium-26. What is the relative atomic mass of magnesium in this sample?

(A) 24.0
(B) 25.0
(C) 24.5
(D) 24.3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ar = (80 × 24 + 10 × 25 + 10 × 26) / 100 = (1920 + 250 + 260) / 100 = 24.3.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 25 g of calcium carbonate? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 0.025 mol
(B) 0.25 mol
(C) 2.5 mol
(D) 4.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = mass / Mr = 25 / 100 = 0.25 mol.

Q13What volume is occupied by 0.50 mol of hydrogen gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 6 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 48 dm^3
(D) 12 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = moles × molar volume = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.

Q14How many moles of sodium hydroxide are dissolved in 20 cm^3 of a 2.0 mol/dm^3 solution?

(A) 0.040 mol
(B) 0.40 mol
(C) 4.0 mol
(D) 0.0020 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

20 cm^3 = 0.020 dm^3. Moles = concentration × volume = 2.0 × 0.020 = 0.040 mol.

Q15A compound contains 27.3% carbon and 72.7% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, O = 16)

(A) CO
(B) C2O
(C) CO2
(D) C2O4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles: C = 27.3/12 = 2.275, O = 72.7/16 = 4.54. Ratio = 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CO2.

Q16A reaction has a theoretical yield of 20 g. The actual yield obtained is 15 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 60%
(B) 75%
(C) 133%
(D) 25%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (15 / 20) × 100 = 75%.

Q172.4 g of magnesium burns completely in oxygen to form magnesium oxide. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed? (Ar of Mg = 24, Mr of MgO = 40)

(A) 4.0 g
(B) 2.4 g
(C) 40 g
(D) 1.6 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of Mg = 2.4 / 24 = 0.10 mol. The equation 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO shows 1 mol of Mg gives 1 mol of MgO, so mass of MgO = 0.10 × 40 = 4.0 g.

Q18What is the relative molecular mass, Mr, of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 82
(B) 50
(C) 98
(D) 66
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Chlorine
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

K^+ ions move to the negative cathode, where they gain electrons and are discharged as potassium metal. Chlorine is formed at the anode.

Q20Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which gas is given off at the cathode, and how does its volume compare with the gas at the anode?

(A) Oxygen, in twice the volume
(B) Hydrogen, in twice the volume of the oxygen at the anode
(C) Sulfur dioxide, in equal volume
(D) Hydrogen, in half the volume of the oxygen at the anode
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen, and oxygen is given off at the anode. Twice as much hydrogen is produced as oxygen (a 2 : 1 ratio by volume).

Q21In electrolysis, positive ions (cations) move towards the cathode because

(A) the cathode is the negative electrode and opposite charges attract
(B) the cathode is the positive electrode
(C) cations are attracted by the electrolyte itself
(D) electrons push the cations through the solution
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In electrolysis the cathode is connected to the negative terminal of the power supply, so it attracts positively charged cations, which gain electrons there.

Q22A metal key is to be electroplated with copper. In the electrolysis cell, the key must be connected as the

(A) anode, the positive electrode
(B) electrolyte
(C) cathode, the negative electrode
(D) power supply
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The object to be plated is made the cathode (negative electrode), so that positive metal ions from the solution are discharged onto its surface as a layer of metal.

Q23In the extraction of aluminium, the carbon anodes have to be replaced regularly. Why is this?

(A) The anodes melt at the temperature of the cell
(B) The oxygen produced at the anodes reacts with the hot carbon to form carbon dioxide, so the anodes burn away
(C) Aluminium coats the anodes and stops them working
(D) The anodes dissolve in the molten cryolite
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen is discharged at the carbon anodes and reacts with them: C + O2 → CO2. The anodes are gradually used up and must be replaced.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which reaction is exothermic?

(A) Thermal decomposition of zinc carbonate
(B) Photosynthesis in green plants
(C) Dissolving ammonium nitrate in water, which makes the solution colder
(D) The combustion of hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Combustion reactions give out energy to the surroundings, so they are exothermic. In (C) energy is taken in from the surroundings, which is why the temperature falls.

Q25Using the bond energies shown, what is the enthalpy change for the complete combustion of methane, CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O? (Bond energies in kJ/mol: C-H = 410, O=O = 500, C=O = 800, O-H = 460)

(A) -800 kJ/mol
(B) +800 kJ/mol
(C) -2640 kJ/mol
(D) -80 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken: 4 C-H + 2 O=O = (4 × 410) + (2 × 500) = 1640 + 1000 = 2640 kJ. Bonds formed: 2 C=O + 4 O-H = (2 × 800) + (4 × 460) = 1600 + 1840 = 3440 kJ. ΔH = 2640 – 3440 = -800 kJ/mol.

Q26During a reaction carried out in a test-tube, the temperature of the mixture falls. Which statement is correct?

(A) The reaction is exothermic
(B) The reaction must be a combustion
(C) The reaction is endothermic
(D) The reaction is a neutralisation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A fall in temperature shows that the reaction takes in energy from the surroundings, so the reaction is endothermic and ΔH is positive.

Q27Which statement about bond breaking and bond making is correct?

(A) Breaking bonds releases energy and making bonds takes in energy
(B) Breaking bonds takes in energy and making bonds releases energy
(C) Both breaking and making bonds release energy
(D) Both breaking and making bonds take in energy
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy must be supplied to break bonds, and energy is released when new bonds form. A reaction is exothermic when more energy is released in bond making than is taken in by bond breaking.

Q28Four simple cells are made using dilute sulfuric acid and pairs of metal electrodes. Which pair of metals gives the largest voltage?

(A) Copper and silver
(B) Iron and copper
(C) Zinc and iron
(D) Magnesium and copper
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The voltage of a simple cell is larger when the two metals are further apart in the reactivity series. Magnesium and copper are the furthest apart of these pairs, so this cell gives the largest voltage.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Increasing the concentration of a reacting solution increases the rate of reaction because

(A) there are more particles in the same volume, so collisions between particles are more frequent
(B) each particle moves faster than before
(C) the activation energy of the reaction decreases
(D) the particles become larger
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A higher concentration means more particles in a given volume, so the frequency of collisions increases and the reaction is faster.

Q30Which statement about a catalyst is correct?

(A) It increases the yield of product in every reaction
(B) It is used up during the reaction and cannot be recovered
(C) It speeds up the reaction and is chemically unchanged at the end
(D) It increases the energy of the reacting particles
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by providing a pathway with a lower activation energy, and it is not used up; it can be recovered unchanged at the end.

Q31A student measures the rate of a reaction in which a gas is produced. 24 cm^3 of gas is collected in the first 30 seconds. What is the average rate of reaction over the first 30 seconds?

(A) 24 cm^3/s
(B) 0.8 cm^3/s
(C) 1.25 cm^3/s
(D) 0.08 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Average rate = volume of gas / time = 24 / 30 = 0.8 cm^3/s.

Q32In the Contact process, sulfur trioxide is made by the reversible reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g). The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens if the temperature is increased?

(A) The yield of sulfur trioxide increases
(B) Nothing changes because temperature does not affect equilibrium
(C) The catalyst stops working completely
(D) The yield of sulfur trioxide decreases because the equilibrium shifts in the endothermic direction
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Increasing the temperature shifts the position of equilibrium in the direction of the endothermic reaction (the backward reaction here), so less sulfur trioxide is present at equilibrium, although the reaction is reached faster.

Q33Which reaction is a redox reaction?

(A) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(B) CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
(C) Mg + CuSO4 → MgSO4 + Cu
(D) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In reaction (C), magnesium is oxidised (it loses electrons to form Mg^2+) and copper(II) ions are reduced. Oxidation and reduction occur together, so it is a redox reaction. The others involve no change in oxidation state.

Q34In the reaction CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O, which substance is the oxidising agent?

(A) CuO
(B) H2
(C) Cu
(D) H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper(II) oxide gives oxygen to the hydrogen (and its copper ions gain electrons), so CuO is reduced and it acts as the oxidising agent. Hydrogen is the reducing agent.

Q35Which change would NOT increase the rate of reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Warming the acid
(B) Using magnesium powder instead of ribbon
(C) Using a more concentrated acid
(D) Using the same mass of magnesium as one single large piece
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

One large piece has a smaller surface area exposed to the acid than the same mass in small pieces, so it reacts more slowly. Warming, powdering and increasing concentration all increase the rate.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which statement about a base is correct?

(A) It always has a pH less than 7
(B) It neutralises an acid, forming a salt and water
(C) It always dissolves completely in water
(D) It turns Universal Indicator red
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A base is a substance that neutralises an acid (a base is a proton acceptor). A base that dissolves in water is called an alkali; not all bases are soluble.

Q37Excess copper(II) oxide powder is warmed with dilute nitric acid. What are the products?

(A) Copper(II) nitrate and hydrogen
(B) Copper(II) nitrate and oxygen
(C) Copper(II) nitrate and water
(D) Copper and water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A metal oxide is a base, and acids react with bases to give a salt and water: CuO + 2HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + H2O.

Q38Which oxide is a neutral oxide?

(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Sulfur dioxide
(C) Magnesium oxide
(D) Nitrogen dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon monoxide is a neutral oxide: it shows neither acidic nor basic behaviour. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are acidic oxides, and magnesium oxide is a basic oxide.

Q39Barium sulfate is insoluble in water. Which method is the best way to prepare a pure, dry sample of barium sulfate?

(A) Titration of barium hydroxide solution with sulfuric acid
(B) Reacting barium metal with excess dilute sulfuric acid
(C) Evaporating a solution of barium sulfate to dryness
(D) Mixing barium chloride solution with sodium sulfate solution, then filtering, washing with distilled water and drying the solid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An insoluble salt is made by precipitation. Mixing the two solutions forms barium sulfate as a precipitate, which is filtered off, washed to remove soluble impurities and dried.

Q40A student adds excess zinc oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid and stirs until no more dissolves. The mixture is filtered and the filtrate is heated until crystals just begin to form, then left to cool. Which substance is made by this method?

(A) Zinc hydroxide
(B) Zinc sulfate crystals
(C) Zinc chloride crystals
(D) Hydrogen gas
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc oxide is an insoluble base. Reacting it with sulfuric acid, filtering off the excess and crystallising the filtrate gives zinc sulfate crystals: ZnO + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2O.

Q41Ammonium sulfate, a fertiliser, is made by neutralising ammonia solution with which acid?

(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Nitric acid
(C) Sulfuric acid
(D) Ethanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The sulfate salt is formed from sulfuric acid: 2NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4.

Q42What is the approximate pH of a solution of sodium hydroxide, a strong alkali?

(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 13
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sodium hydroxide is a strong alkali, so its solution has a high pH, around 13-14, and turns Universal Indicator purple.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43Which statement about the Group I metals is correct?

(A) They become more reactive down the group
(B) They have very high melting points
(C) They form ions with a negative charge
(D) They must be stored in air to keep them shiny
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Reactivity increases down Group I because the single outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost. They are soft metals with low melting points and are stored under oil.

Q44Bromine water is added to a solution of potassium chloride. What is observed?

(A) Chlorine gas is displaced and bubbles are seen
(B) No reaction, because bromine is less reactive than chlorine
(C) The solution turns colourless as bromine reacts away
(D) A cream precipitate of potassium bromide forms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A more reactive halogen displaces a less reactive one, but bromine is below chlorine in Group VII, so it cannot displace chlorine from its compounds and no reaction occurs.

Q45Which is a typical property of transition metals (transition elements)?

(A) They are soft and have low densities
(B) All their compounds are white
(C) They have very low melting points
(D) They have high densities and form ions with different (variable) charges
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition metals are hard, dense, strong metals with high melting points. They form coloured compounds and ions with variable oxidation states, e.g. Fe^2+ and Fe^3+.

Q46An atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,3. In which period of the Periodic Table is this element?

(A) Period 2
(B) Period 1
(C) Group 3 only, so it has no period
(D) Period 3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The atom has electrons in three shells (2 + 8 + 3), so it is in Period 3. It has 3 outer electrons, so it is also in Group III (aluminium).

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal reacts steadily with cold water, forming a solution that turns Universal Indicator purple?

(A) Calcium
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide, an alkali that turns Universal Indicator purple, and hydrogen: Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2. Copper and zinc do not react with cold water, and iron reacts only very slowly (rusting).

Q48In the blast furnace, limestone is added during the extraction of iron. What is the purpose of the limestone?

(A) To reduce the iron(III) oxide to iron
(B) To increase the temperature inside the furnace
(C) To remove impurities such as sand (silicon dioxide) by forming molten slag
(D) To provide the carbon needed for reduction
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The limestone (calcium carbonate) decomposes and the calcium oxide formed reacts with sandy impurities to form molten slag, which is tapped off separately from the molten iron. Carbon (coke) is the fuel and source of the reducing agent.

Q49Stainless steel is used to make cutlery (knives and forks). Which property makes it suitable for this use?

(A) It is a pure metal
(B) It resists corrosion and does not rust
(C) It is the cheapest of all metals
(D) It is very soft and easy to shape when cold
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with chromium (and other metals). It does not rust, so it stays clean and shiny, making it ideal for cutlery.

Q50Which method protects iron from rusting by sacrificial protection?

(A) Painting the iron surface
(B) Covering the iron with oil or grease
(C) Coating the iron with plastic
(D) Attaching blocks of magnesium to the iron hull of a ship
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Magnesium is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes (loses electrons) instead of the iron. Painting, oiling and plastic coating are barrier methods that simply keep out air and water.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51In the treatment of water for drinking, filtration is used to remove

(A) dissolved bacteria from the water
(B) dissolved salts from the water
(C) insoluble solid particles from the water
(D) the chlorine added at the plant
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The water is passed through filter beds (often sand), which trap insoluble solid particles. Chlorination afterwards kills bacteria.

Q52Approximately what percentage of clean, dry air is nitrogen?

(A) 78%
(B) 21%
(C) 1%
(D) 0.04%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Clean dry air contains about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with about 1% argon and noble gases and 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53Why is ammonium nitrate used as a fertiliser?

(A) It supplies potassium to the soil
(B) It supplies nitrogen, which plants need to make proteins and to grow
(C) It kills insects that damage crops
(D) It neutralises all acids in the soil
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ammonium nitrate contains a high percentage of nitrogen in a form plants can absorb. Fertilisers supply elements such as nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (NPK) needed for healthy plant growth.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54Which formula represents an alkene?

(A) C2H6
(B) CH4
(C) C3H8
(D) C3H6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n and contain a C=C double bond. C3H6 fits CnH2n. C2H6, CH4 and C3H8 are alkanes with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q55Ethene reacts with hydrogen in the presence of a nickel catalyst. What is the product?

(A) Ethane
(B) Ethanol
(C) Poly(ethene)
(D) Carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

This is an addition reaction: hydrogen adds across the C=C double bond, converting ethene into the saturated alkane ethane: C2H4 + H2 → C2H6.

Q56Long-chain hydrocarbons from crude oil are cracked. What does cracking produce?

(A) Only the elements carbon and hydrogen
(B) Longer-chain alkanes only
(C) Shorter-chain alkanes and alkenes
(D) Polymers directly
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cracking breaks large hydrocarbon molecules into smaller, more useful ones, typically a shorter-chain alkane and an alkene. The alkenes are used to make polymers and the short alkanes as fuels.

Q57Which statement about poly(ethene) is correct?

(A) It is easily broken down by bacteria in the soil
(B) It is an addition polymer made from many ethene monomer molecules
(C) A small molecule such as water is lost when each monomer joins
(D) Its monomer is ethane
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene molecules join together by addition polymerisation, opening their double bonds, to form poly(ethene). No other product is formed, and the polymer is non-biodegradable.

Q58Ethanol in alcoholic drinks left open to the air slowly turns sour. This is because the ethanol is oxidised to

(A) ethane
(B) ethene
(C) methane
(D) ethanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ethanol is oxidised (by bacteria in the air, or by acidified potassium dichromate in the laboratory) to ethanoic acid, which is the acid in vinegar and gives the sour taste.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which test identifies the chloride ion, Cl^-, in a solution?

(A) Add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(B) Bubble the gas given off through limewater; it turns milky
(C) Add dilute nitric acid, then silver nitrate solution; a white precipitate forms
(D) Add sodium hydroxide solution and warm; a gas turns damp red litmus blue
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silver nitrate gives a white precipitate of silver chloride with chloride ions. The solution is acidified with dilute nitric acid first. Test (A) is for sulfate ions and test (D) is for ammonium ions.

Q60A solid sample is heated in a melting-point apparatus. It melts gradually over a range of temperatures instead of at one sharp temperature. What does this show about the sample?

(A) It is impure
(B) It is completely pure
(C) It must be an element
(D) It is a giant covalent compound
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A pure substance melts sharply at one fixed temperature. Impurities lower the melting point and make the substance melt over a range of temperatures.