IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 15

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1A drop of liquid bromine is placed at the bottom of a sealed gas jar. After some time, the whole jar is filled with brown vapour. Which statement explains this?

(A) Bromine particles expand until they fill the jar
(B) Bromine particles move randomly and spread out until they are evenly mixed with the air
(C) Bromine particles rise because they are pushed up by gravity
(D) Air particles dissolve in the bromine liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

This is diffusion. Particles move randomly from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration until they are evenly spread.

Q2Which change of state is condensation?

(A) liquid → solid
(B) solid → liquid
(C) liquid → gas
(D) gas → liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Condensation is the change from the gas state to the liquid state, when particles lose energy and come closer together.

Q3What happens to the particles of a solid when the solid melts?

(A) They gain energy and break away from their fixed positions
(B) They become larger
(C) They lose energy and stop moving
(D) They are destroyed and replaced by new particles
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

On melting, particles gain enough energy to overcome the forces holding them in a regular arrangement, so they can slide past each other in the liquid.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of sodium has a proton number of 11 and a nucleon number of 23. How many protons, neutrons and electrons does this atom contain?

(A) 11 protons, 11 neutrons, 12 electrons
(B) 12 protons, 11 neutrons, 11 electrons
(C) 11 protons, 12 neutrons, 11 electrons
(D) 23 protons, 11 neutrons, 12 electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Protons = proton number = 11. Neutrons = 23 – 11 = 12. A neutral atom has the same number of electrons as protons = 11.

Q5Isotopes of an element are atoms with

(A) the same number of protons and the same number of neutrons
(B) the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons
(C) a different number of protons but the same number of neutrons
(D) a different number of protons and a different number of neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Isotopes have the same proton number (so they are the same element) but different nucleon numbers because they contain different numbers of neutrons.

Q6An element has the electronic configuration 2,8,6. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?

(A) Group II
(B) Group IV
(C) Group VIII
(D) Group VI
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is 6, so the element (sulfur) is in Group VI.

Q7Magnesium oxide is formed when magnesium reacts with oxygen. Which statement about the electron transfer is correct?

(A) Each magnesium atom loses two electrons and each oxygen atom gains two electrons
(B) Each magnesium atom gains two electrons from an oxygen atom
(C) Magnesium and oxygen atoms share two pairs of electrons
(D) Each oxygen atom loses two electrons and each magnesium atom gains them
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Magnesium forms Mg^2+ ions by losing two electrons. Oxygen forms O^2- ions by gaining two electrons. The compound is held together by ionic bonding.

Q8How many single covalent bonds are there in one molecule of ammonia, NH3?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrogen forms three single covalent bonds, one with each hydrogen atom, and it also has one lone pair of electrons.

Q9Metals are good conductors of electricity when solid because

(A) positive ions are free to move through the lattice
(B) electrons are delocalised and free to move through the structure
(C) the atoms can slide over each other easily
(D) protons move from atom to atom
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a metal, the outer electrons are delocalised. These free electrons carry the charge through the solid lattice.

Q10Which statement about diamond is correct?

(A) It conducts electricity because it has free electrons
(B) It is soft because its layers can slide over each other
(C) It has a low melting point because it has weak forces between molecules
(D) Each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms in a giant structure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In diamond each carbon atom forms four covalent bonds in a rigid giant (macromolecular) structure, which makes diamond very hard with a very high melting point.

Q11Chlorine contains two isotopes: chlorine-35 with 75% abundance and chlorine-37 with 25% abundance. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?

(A) 35.5
(B) 36.0
(C) 36.5
(D) 35.0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ar = (75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 8.0 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.25 mol
(B) 2.0 mol
(C) 0.50 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8.0 / 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q13What volume is occupied by 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 3 dm^3
(B) 6 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Volume = moles × molar volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

Q14A solution contains 0.50 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(B) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.20 mol/dm^3
(D) 2.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3. Concentration = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q15A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)

(A) CH2O
(B) CHO2
(C) C2H4O
(D) CH4O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles: C = 40.0/12 = 3.33, H = 6.7/1 = 6.7, O = 53.3/16 = 3.33. Ratio = 1 : 2 : 1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.

Q16In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 40 g but only 32 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 20%
(B) 125%
(C) 80%
(D) 32%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) × 100 = (32 / 40) × 100 = 80%.

Q175.0 g of calcium carbonate reacts completely with excess dilute hydrochloric acid. What mass of carbon dioxide is formed? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100, Mr of CO2 = 44)

(A) 1.1 g
(B) 2.2 g
(C) 4.4 g
(D) 22 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of CaCO3 = 5.0 / 100 = 0.050 mol. The equation CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 shows 1 mol of CaCO3 gives 1 mol of CO2, so mass of CO2 = 0.050 × 44 = 2.2 g.

Q18What is the percentage by mass of calcium in calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar of Ca = 40, Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 12%
(B) 48%
(C) 60%
(D) 40%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage of calcium = (40 / 100) × 100 = 40%.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What are the products?

(A) Lead at the cathode and bromine at the anode
(B) Lead at the anode and bromine at the cathode
(C) Hydrogen at the cathode and bromine at the anode
(D) Lead at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Pb^2+ ions move to the negative cathode and are discharged as lead metal. Br^- ions move to the positive anode and are discharged as bromine.

Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. Which gas is given off at the anode?

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Sulfur dioxide
(C) Oxygen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the anode, hydroxide ions from the water are discharged to form oxygen gas. Copper is deposited at the cathode.

Q21During electrolysis, what happens at the cathode?

(A) Oxidation takes place
(B) Reduction takes place, as positive ions gain electrons
(C) Negative ions give up their electrons
(D) The electrode dissolves into the electrolyte
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The cathode is the negative electrode. Positive ions (cations) move to it and gain electrons, so reduction occurs at the cathode.

Q22Why is a steel spoon electroplated with silver?

(A) To make the spoon heavier
(B) To make the spoon magnetic
(C) To increase the melting point of the spoon
(D) To improve its appearance and protect it from corrosion
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Electroplating coats an object with a thin layer of metal to improve appearance and to protect the object underneath from corrosion.

Q23Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite. Why is cryolite used?

(A) It increases the amount of aluminium produced
(B) It is used to make the positive electrodes
(C) It lowers the melting temperature of the mixture, saving energy
(D) It removes all the impurities from the bauxite
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium oxide has a very high melting point. Dissolving it in cryolite lowers the temperature needed to keep the mixture molten, which saves energy and cost.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which statement about an exothermic reaction is correct?

(A) Energy is transferred to the surroundings and the temperature of the surroundings rises
(B) Energy is taken in from the surroundings
(C) The products have more energy than the reactants
(D) More energy is released when bonds are broken than when bonds are formed
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In an exothermic reaction energy is given out to the surroundings, so the temperature rises and the enthalpy change, ΔH, is negative.

Q25Using the bond energies shown, what is the energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl? (Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431)

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -184 kJ/mol
(C) -862 kJ/mol
(D) +678 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy taken in to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released when bonds form = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q26In an energy level diagram for a reaction, the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants. Which statement is correct?

(A) The reaction is endothermic and ΔH is positive
(B) The reaction is endothermic and ΔH is negative
(C) The reaction must be a neutralisation
(D) The reaction is exothermic and ΔH is negative
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The products have less energy than the reactants, so energy has been released to the surroundings. The reaction is exothermic and ΔH is negative.

Q27What is the overall product formed in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?

(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Hydrogen peroxide
(C) Water
(D) Hydrazine
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In the fuel cell hydrogen and oxygen react together: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. Water is the only product, and chemical energy is converted directly to electrical energy.

Q28Which process is endothermic?

(A) The thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(B) The combustion of methane
(C) Respiration in living cells
(D) The reaction between an acid and an alkali
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Thermal decomposition needs a continuous supply of heat energy to break down the compound, so it is endothermic. Combustion, respiration and neutralisation are all exothermic.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction mainly because

(A) the particles move more slowly and collide more gently
(B) the activation energy of the reaction increases
(C) the concentration of the reactants increases
(D) the particles collide more often and a greater proportion of the collisions have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At a higher temperature particles move faster, so collisions are more frequent, and more of the collisions have enough energy to react.

Q30How does a catalyst increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

(A) It increases the energy of all the reacting particles
(B) It provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) It increases the final yield of product at equilibrium
(D) It is used up so that more product can form
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing a different reaction pathway. It is chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction and does not change the yield.

Q31Equal masses of lumpy marble and powdered marble are reacted separately with excess dilute hydrochloric acid. The curve for the powdered marble rises more steeply but reaches the same final volume of gas as the lumpy marble. Why is the final volume the same?

(A) The powdered marble has a larger mass than the lumps
(B) The acid used with the powder is more concentrated
(C) The same total amount of calcium carbonate reacts in both experiments
(D) The powdered marble contains a catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Both experiments start with the same mass (amount) of calcium carbonate reacting with excess acid, so the same total amount of carbon dioxide is produced. The powder only reacts faster because of its larger surface area.

Q32Which change is an example of a reversible reaction?

(A) Heating hydrated copper(II) sulfate to form anhydrous copper(II) sulfate and water
(B) Burning magnesium in air to form magnesium oxide
(C) Reacting zinc with dilute hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen
(D) Neutralising sodium hydroxide solution with dilute hydrochloric acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Blue hydrated copper(II) sulfate loses water on heating to give white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate, and adding water reverses the change. CuSO4.5H2O ⇌ CuSO4 + 5H2O.

Q33Ammonia is made by the Haber process: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). Increasing the pressure increases the yield of ammonia because

(A) a higher pressure increases the rate of the backward reaction only
(B) a higher pressure lowers the activation energy of the reaction
(C) a higher pressure makes the iron catalyst more effective
(D) the forward reaction produces fewer gas molecules, so the equilibrium shifts to the right
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

There are 4 moles of gas on the left and only 2 moles of gas on the right. Increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules, giving more ammonia.

Q34Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. Which particle is oxidised in this reaction?

(A) Cu^2+
(B) Zn
(C) SO4^2-
(D) Cu
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc atoms lose electrons to form Zn^2+ ions (Zn → Zn^2+ + 2e^-). Loss of electrons is oxidation, so zinc is oxidised and copper(II) ions are reduced.

Q35Which change would increase the rate of reaction between marble chips and dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Using larger lumps of marble
(B) Using a less concentrated acid
(C) Crushing the marble chips into smaller pieces
(D) Cooling the reaction mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Crushing the chips increases the surface area of the marble exposed to the acid, so collisions happen more frequently and the rate increases.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36A solution has a pH of 1. What colour is the solution with Universal Indicator?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Purple
(D) Blue
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A pH of 1 means the solution is a strong acid, and Universal Indicator turns red in a strong acid.

Q37What are the products when a metal carbonate reacts with a dilute acid?

(A) A salt and water only
(B) A salt and hydrogen only
(C) A salt, water and oxygen
(D) A salt, water and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbonates react with acids to form a salt, water and carbon dioxide gas, which turns limewater milky.

Q38Which oxide is amphoteric?

(A) Calcium oxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Aluminium oxide
(D) Sodium oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium oxide is amphoteric: it reacts with both acids and alkalis. Calcium oxide and sodium oxide are basic oxides, and carbon dioxide is an acidic oxide.

Q39Lead(II) sulfate is insoluble in water. Which method is used to prepare a pure sample of lead(II) sulfate?

(A) Titration of lead(II) hydroxide with sulfuric acid
(B) Mixing solutions of lead(II) nitrate and sodium sulfate, then filtering, washing and drying the precipitate
(C) Adding excess lead metal to dilute sulfuric acid and filtering
(D) Crystallising lead(II) sulfate from its saturated solution
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Insoluble salts are prepared by precipitation: two soluble salts are mixed so the insoluble salt forms as a precipitate, which is then filtered off, washed with distilled water and dried.

Q40Which method gives a pure sample of sodium chloride crystals from sodium hydroxide solution and dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Titration, using an indicator to find the volumes that just react, then repeating with those volumes without indicator and crystallising the solution
(B) Adding excess hydrochloric acid, filtering off the solid and drying it
(C) Adding excess sodium hydroxide and evaporating the mixture to dryness
(D) Mixing equal volumes of the two solutions, whatever their concentrations, and evaporating to dryness
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The indicator shows the exact end-point of the titration. Repeating with the same volumes but no indicator gives a pure salt solution, which is then crystallised.

Q41A mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide is warmed. Which gas is produced?

(A) Chlorine
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Ammonia
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkalis react with ammonium salts on warming to release ammonia gas: NH4Cl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O + NH3.

Q42Which oxide is an acidic oxide?

(A) Magnesium oxide
(B) Calcium oxide
(C) Sulfur dioxide
(D) Potassium oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic; it reacts with alkalis and forms sulfurous acid with water. The others are basic metal oxides.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43How do the Group I metals change down the group?

(A) Their reactivity decreases down the group
(B) Their reactivity increases down the group
(C) Their melting points increase down the group
(D) They become harder down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Group I metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.

Q44Chlorine water is added to a solution of potassium iodide. What is observed?

(A) Iodine is formed and the solution turns brown
(B) No reaction occurs because chlorine is less reactive than iodine
(C) A white precipitate of potassium chloride forms
(D) Chlorine is displaced by the iodine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine is more reactive than iodine, so it displaces iodine from potassium iodide: Cl2 + 2KI → 2KCl + I2. The iodine colours the solution brown.

Q45Which statement is a typical property of transition elements?

(A) They have low melting points
(B) They form only colourless compounds
(C) They have only one oxidation state
(D) They form coloured compounds and many act as catalysts
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition elements are hard, dense metals with high melting points. They form coloured compounds, have variable oxidation states and often act as catalysts, for example iron in the Haber process.

Q46An atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,7. In which group of the Periodic Table is the element?

(A) Group I
(B) Group II
(C) Group VII
(D) Group VIII
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The element has 7 electrons in its outer shell, so it is in Group VII. It is chlorine.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which list shows the metals in order of decreasing reactivity?

(A) Copper, zinc, potassium
(B) Potassium, zinc, copper
(C) Zinc, potassium, copper
(D) Potassium, copper, zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In the reactivity series potassium is near the top, zinc is in the middle and copper is near the bottom, so the order is potassium > zinc > copper.

Q48Iron is extracted from iron(III) oxide in a blast furnace. Which substance reduces the iron(III) oxide to iron?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Limestone
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Coke burns in the hot air to form carbon dioxide, which then reacts with more coke to form carbon monoxide. The carbon monoxide reduces the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.

Q49Alloys are usually harder than the pure metals they are made from because

(A) atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other easily
(B) alloy atoms are always heavier than the atoms of the pure metal
(C) alloys contain strong ionic bonds between the atoms
(D) pure metals have no delocalised electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a pure metal the layers of similar atoms slide over each other easily. In an alloy, atoms of a different size distort the layers and stop them sliding, making the alloy harder and stronger.

Q50A steel ship is protected from rusting by attaching blocks of zinc to its hull. Zinc protects the steel because

(A) zinc is harder than iron
(B) zinc has a lower melting point than iron
(C) zinc is more reactive than iron, so the zinc corrodes instead of the iron (sacrificial protection)
(D) zinc stops oxygen from dissolving in seawater
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc is higher in the reactivity series than iron, so it loses electrons and corrodes preferentially. This is called sacrificial protection; galvanising works the same way.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies in water treatment plants. Why is chlorine added?

(A) To improve the taste of the water
(B) To kill bacteria and other microorganisms
(C) To remove insoluble solid particles
(D) To remove dissolved calcium salts
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine is a disinfectant that kills harmful microorganisms, making the water safe to drink. Filtration, not chlorination, removes solid particles.

Q52Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas found in car exhaust fumes. It is formed when

(A) fuels burn in a limited supply of air (incomplete combustion)
(B) methane reacts with chlorine in sunlight
(C) limestone is heated strongly in a lime kiln
(D) plants carry out photosynthesis
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

When a fuel burns in a limited supply of oxygen, incomplete combustion occurs and carbon monoxide (and sometimes carbon) forms instead of carbon dioxide.

Q53Which gas is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Argon
(D) Methane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Methane is a greenhouse gas, along with carbon dioxide and water vapour. Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation and contribute to global warming.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What are the products of the complete combustion of methane?

(A) Carbon and water
(B) Carbon monoxide and water
(C) Carbon dioxide and water
(D) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

With a plentiful supply of air, methane burns completely: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.

Q55Aqueous bromine is used to distinguish between ethane and ethene. What is observed?

(A) Both gases decolourise the aqueous bromine
(B) Ethene decolourises the aqueous bromine, but ethane does not react
(C) Ethane decolourises the aqueous bromine, but ethene does not react
(D) Both gases turn the aqueous bromine green
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene is an alkene with a C=C double bond, so it reacts with bromine in an addition reaction and the orange solution goes colourless. Ethane is saturated and does not react.

Q56Crude oil is separated by fractional distillation. Which fraction is collected nearest the top of the fractionating column?

(A) Petrol (gasoline)
(B) Bitumen
(C) Diesel oil
(D) Lubricating oil
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Fractions with the smallest molecules and lowest boiling points, such as petroleum gases and petrol, rise highest and are collected near the top of the column. Bitumen has the largest molecules and is collected at the bottom.

Q57Which polymer is made by condensation polymerisation?

(A) Poly(ethene)
(B) Poly(propene)
(C) Poly(chloroethene)
(D) Polyester
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Polyesters (and nylon) are condensation polymers: the monomers join together with the loss of a small molecule such as water. Poly(ethene), poly(propene) and poly(chloroethene) are addition polymers.

Q58Ethanol can be made by the fermentation of glucose solution. Which conditions are needed for fermentation?

(A) A concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst and a temperature of 170°C
(B) A temperature of about 300°C and a catalyst
(C) Yeast, a temperature of about 30°C and the absence of air
(D) High pressure and a phosphoric acid catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast, works best at about 30°C, and must be done without air (anaerobic conditions) so the ethanol is not oxidised.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which test identifies the sulfate ion, SO4^2-, in a solution?

(A) Add dilute hydrochloric acid, then barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(B) Add dilute nitric acid, then silver nitrate solution; a white precipitate forms
(C) Add sodium hydroxide solution and warm; ammonia gas is given off
(D) Bubble the gas through limewater; the limewater turns milky
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions. The mixture is acidified first to remove carbonate ions, which would also give a white precipitate.

Q60In a chromatography experiment, the solvent front moves 8.0 cm and a dye moves 4.0 cm from the baseline. What is the Rf value of the dye?

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.50
(C) 4.0
(D) 0.25
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by the substance / distance moved by the solvent front = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.50.