IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 14

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Water vapour in the air touches a cold mirror and forms tiny droplets of liquid water. Which process has taken place?

(A) A liquid changing to a gas
(B) A solid changing to a gas
(C) A gas changing to a liquid
(D) A solid changing to a liquid
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Condensation is the change from a gas to a liquid, which happens when the vapour loses energy on the cold surface.

Q2When a liquid evaporates, the liquid cools down. Why?

(A) All the particles in the liquid lose energy to the surroundings
(B) The coldest particles are the first to escape from the surface
(C) Chemical bonds inside the molecules are broken
(D) The particles with the highest energy leave the surface, so the average energy of the remaining particles falls
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Only the fastest-moving particles have enough energy to escape; their loss lowers the average kinetic energy, and therefore the temperature, of the liquid left behind.

Q3A gas is heated in a sealed container of fixed volume. Why does its pressure increase?

(A) The particles move faster and hit the walls more often and with greater force
(B) Each particle expands and takes up more room
(C) New gas particles are formed by the heating
(D) The particles become heavier as they get hotter
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Heating gives the particles more kinetic energy, so they collide with the container walls more frequently and more forcefully, increasing the pressure.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of carbon-14 has 6 protons. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 14
(D) 20
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Neutrons = mass number – proton number = 14 – 6 = 8.

Q5Which element has the electronic configuration 2,8,1?

(A) Magnesium
(B) Sodium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

2 + 8 + 1 = 11 electrons, so the proton number is 11, which is sodium.

Q6A magnesium atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,2. What is the electronic configuration of the magnesium ion, Mg^2+?

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,8,2
(C) 2,8,4
(D) 2,6
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The atom loses its two outer electrons when forming Mg^2+, leaving 2,8, the stable configuration of neon.

Q7Covalent bonds are formed between

(A) atoms of metals only
(B) a metal and a non-metal
(C) oppositely charged ions
(D) non-metal atoms that share pairs of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In covalent bonding, non-metal atoms share pairs of electrons so that each atom achieves a stable outer shell.

Q8Diamond is one of the hardest substances known. This is because

(A) weak forces hold the carbon atoms together
(B) layers of carbon atoms slide over each other
(C) each carbon atom is bonded to four others in a giant covalent structure with strong bonds in all directions
(D) diamond contains ions that attract each other strongly
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Diamond has a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure in which every carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds, making it extremely hard.

Q9Which substance has a giant ionic structure?

(A) Water
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Diamond
(D) Sodium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sodium chloride consists of a regular lattice of Na^+ and Cl^- ions held together by strong electrostatic forces; water and carbon dioxide are simple molecular, and diamond is giant covalent.

Q10Silicon dioxide (sand) has a very high melting point. Why?

(A) It has weak forces between its molecules
(B) Its ions are free to move at room temperature
(C) A large amount of energy is needed to break the strong covalent bonds throughout its giant structure
(D) Its molecules are extremely large and heavy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silicon dioxide is a giant covalent structure; melting it requires breaking many strong Si-O covalent bonds, which takes a lot of energy.

Q11In a metal, the positive ions are held together in the structure by

(A) pairs of electrons shared between pairs of atoms
(B) their attraction to a sea of delocalised electrons
(C) weak intermolecular forces
(D) ionic bonds to non-metal atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metallic bonding is the attraction between the lattice of positive ions and the delocalised electrons that move throughout the structure.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 44 g of carbon dioxide? (Mr of CO2 = 44)

(A) 1.0 mol
(B) 0.50 mol
(C) 2.0 mol
(D) 44 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 44 / 44 = 1.0 mol.

Q13What volume does 2.0 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)

(A) 48 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 36 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q14A compound contains 2.4 g of carbon and 0.40 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH
(B) CH2
(C) CH4
(D) C2H2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of C = 2.4 / 12 = 0.20; moles of H = 0.40 / 1 = 0.40. The ratio C : H = 0.20 : 0.40 = 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CH2.

Q15Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium oxide: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium is needed to make 4.0 g of magnesium oxide? (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr of MgO = 40)

(A) 1.6 g
(B) 6.7 g
(C) 2.4 g
(D) 4.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of MgO = 4.0 / 40 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of Mg is needed. Mass = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 g.

Q165.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(B) 11.7 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.050 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.20 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol. Volume = 0.500 dm^3. Concentration = 0.10 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.

Q17In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of sodium hydroxide solution is neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of 0.10 mol/dm^3 hydrochloric acid. What is the concentration of the sodium hydroxide?

(A) 0.040 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.125 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.080 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.80 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of HCl = 0.0200 dm^3 × 0.10 = 0.0020 mol, so 0.0020 mol of NaOH reacted. Concentration = 0.0020 / 0.0250 = 0.080 mol/dm^3.

Q18A student carries out a reaction and obtains 6.0 g of a product. The maximum possible mass of product is 8.0 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 75%
(B) 133%
(C) 25%
(D) 60%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage yield = (6.0 / 8.0) × 100 = 75%.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What gas is produced at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Sulfur dioxide
(D) Steam
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen gas; oxygen is formed at the anode.

Q20Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is produced at the positive electrode (anode)?

(A) Lead
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Bromine
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The bromide ions lose electrons at the anode to form bromine; lead is deposited at the cathode.

Q21An ionic compound conducts electricity when molten or in aqueous solution, but not when solid. Why?

(A) The ions are destroyed when the compound is solid
(B) There are no charged particles in the solid
(C) Electrons are created when the compound melts
(D) In the solid the ions are held in fixed positions and cannot move to the electrodes
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ions must be free to move and carry charge to the electrodes; in the solid lattice they are locked in place.

Q22A steel spoon is to be electroplated with silver. To coat the spoon, it must be used as

(A) the anode (positive electrode)
(B) the cathode (negative electrode)
(C) the electrolyte
(D) neither electrode
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The object to be plated is made the cathode, so that positive silver ions are attracted to it and form a layer of silver metal on its surface.

Q23Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert carbon electrodes. What is produced at the anode?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Copper
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The hydroxide ions from water are discharged at the anode to give oxygen; copper is deposited at the cathode.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24A student mixes two solutions and the temperature of the mixture falls. The reaction is

(A) exothermic
(B) a combustion
(C) endothermic
(D) a neutralisation that releases energy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A fall in temperature shows the reaction has taken energy in from the surroundings, so it is endothermic.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol)

(A) -103 kJ/mol
(B) +103 kJ/mol
(C) -629 kJ/mol
(D) -51.5 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. ΔH = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.

Q26The energy level diagram of a reaction shows the products at a higher energy level than the reactants. Which statement about the reaction is correct?

(A) It is exothermic and ΔH is negative
(B) It is exothermic and ΔH is positive
(C) It is endothermic and ΔH is negative
(D) It is endothermic and ΔH is positive
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The products have more energy than the reactants, so energy has been taken in: the reaction is endothermic and ΔH is positive.

Q27Which statement about fuels is correct?

(A) Burning a fuel is an endothermic process
(B) Hydrogen produces carbon dioxide when it burns in a fuel cell
(C) Fossil fuels are non-renewable and will eventually run out
(D) Ethanol cannot be used as a fuel
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas are used up far faster than they form, so they are non-renewable.

Q28What energy conversion takes place in a simple chemical cell?

(A) Electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) Heat energy is converted into chemical energy
(D) Light energy is converted into electrical energy
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A chemical cell (such as two different metals in an electrolyte) converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29The rate of reaction between marble chips and hydrochloric acid can be increased by

(A) using larger pieces of marble
(B) using more concentrated hydrochloric acid
(C) cooling the acid before use
(D) adding extra water to the acid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A more concentrated acid has more acid particles in the same volume, so collisions with the marble are more frequent and the reaction is faster.

Q30According to collision theory, raising the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because

(A) the particles become smaller and can move more freely
(B) the activation energy of the reaction increases
(C) the particles collide more often and more of the collisions have energy greater than the activation energy
(D) the particles are further apart so they react more easily
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At higher temperatures particles move faster, colliding more frequently, and a greater proportion of collisions are energetic enough to react.

Q31Sulfur dioxide and oxygen react in a reversible reaction: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g). The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of SO3 if the temperature is lowered?

(A) It decreases because the equilibrium shifts to the left
(B) It stays the same because temperature does not affect equilibrium
(C) It increases because the rate of reaction increases
(D) It increases because the equilibrium shifts to the right
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Lowering the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the exothermic direction (to the right), so more SO3 is formed, although the reaction is slower.

Q32In terms of electrons, oxidation is

(A) the loss of electrons
(B) the gain of electrons
(C) the loss of oxygen from a compound
(D) the gain of hydrogen by a compound
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Oxidation is the loss of electrons (OIL: Oxidation Is Loss); reduction is the gain of electrons.

Q33Copper(II) oxide reacts with hydrogen: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O. Which substance is oxidised?

(A) CuO
(B) Cu
(C) H2O
(D) H2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen gains oxygen to form water, so hydrogen is oxidised; copper(II) oxide loses oxygen, so it is reduced.

Q34A reaction produces 120 cm^3 of gas in 2 minutes. What is the average rate of reaction in cm^3/s?

(A) 1.0 cm^3/s
(B) 60 cm^3/s
(C) 240 cm^3/s
(D) 0.017 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

2 minutes = 120 s. Rate = 120 cm^3 / 120 s = 1.0 cm^3/s.

Q35A catalyst is added to a reversible reaction that has reached equilibrium. What happens?

(A) The yield of product at equilibrium increases
(B) Both the forward and reverse reactions speed up equally, so the position of equilibrium does not change
(C) The equilibrium shifts to the right
(D) Only the forward reaction speeds up
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position and the yield are unchanged.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Dilute sodium hydroxide solution is added gradually to dilute hydrochloric acid. What happens to the pH of the mixture?

(A) It decreases steadily
(B) It stays at 7 throughout
(C) It increases towards 7
(D) It falls quickly to 0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The alkali neutralises the acid, using up hydrogen ions, so the pH rises from a low value towards 7.

Q37Which oxide is basic?

(A) Magnesium oxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulfur trioxide
(D) Silicon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Magnesium oxide is a metal oxide and reacts with acids to form a salt and water, so it is basic; the others are non-metal oxides and are acidic.

Q38Lead(II) sulfate is insoluble in water. Which reagents give lead(II) sulfate by precipitation?

(A) Lead metal and dilute sulfuric acid
(B) Lead(II) oxide and dilute sulfuric acid
(C) Lead(II) nitrate solution and sodium sulfate solution
(D) Lead(II) carbonate and water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mixing solutions containing Pb^2+ and SO4^2- ions gives an immediate white precipitate of insoluble lead(II) sulfate.

Q39A farmer suspects a fertiliser contains ammonium ions. Which test confirms this?

(A) Add dilute acid; a gas turns limewater milky
(B) Carry out a flame test; a lilac flame is seen
(C) Add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(D) Warm the fertiliser with sodium hydroxide solution; the gas given off turns damp red litmus paper blue
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ammonium compounds release ammonia gas when warmed with an alkali; ammonia is alkaline and turns damp red litmus paper blue.

Q40When a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate, the products are

(A) a salt and hydrogen only
(B) a salt, water and carbon dioxide
(C) a salt and oxygen only
(D) a salt and water only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide; effervescence is seen as the gas is released.

Q41A solution of copper(II) sulfate has been prepared. Which method gives pure crystals of hydrated copper(II) sulfate from this solution?

(A) Boil the solution until every drop of water has evaporated
(B) Add more water and leave the solution in sunlight
(C) Evaporate the solution to the crystallisation point, then cool it, filter off the crystals and dry them
(D) Neutralise the solution with an alkali and filter
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Evaporating to the crystallisation point and cooling produces crystals; filtering and drying them between filter papers gives a pure sample. Boiling to dryness would drive the water of crystallisation from the hydrated salt.

Q42What is the colour of universal indicator in a neutral solution?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Purple
(D) Orange
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Universal indicator is green at pH 7; it is red in strong acids and blue/purple in alkalis.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43How does the reactivity of the halogens (Group 7) change down the group?

(A) It decreases down the group
(B) It increases down the group
(C) It stays the same down the group
(D) It increases then decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Halogens become less reactive down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so the atom attracts an extra electron less strongly.

Q44Astatine is below iodine in Group 7. Using the trends in the group, what is astatine most likely to be like?

(A) A pale yellow gas
(B) A very reactive gas
(C) A purple liquid that evaporates easily
(D) A dark solid and the least reactive of the halogens listed
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Down Group 7 the halogens become darker, change from gases to solids (F2 and Cl2 gases, Br2 liquid, I2 solid), and become less reactive, so astatine is predicted to be a dark solid and the least reactive.

Q45Which transition element is used as the catalyst in the Haber process for making ammonia?

(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Nickel
(D) Zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Finely divided iron is the catalyst used in the Haber process.

Q46Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have similar chemical properties because they have the same number of

(A) electron shells
(B) neutrons in the nucleus
(C) electrons in total
(D) electrons in the outer shell
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chemical behaviour depends on the outer-shell electrons, and elements in a group all have the same number of these.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Iron is extracted from its ore in a blast furnace. By what process is the iron(III) oxide converted into iron?

(A) Electrolysis of the molten ore
(B) Displacement by a more reactive metal
(C) Reduction by carbon (coke) and carbon monoxide
(D) Fractional distillation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In the blast furnace, coke burns to form carbon dioxide and then carbon monoxide, which reduces iron(III) oxide to iron.

Q48A metal X displaces zinc from zinc sulfate solution, but does not displace magnesium from magnesium sulfate solution. Where is X in the reactivity series?

(A) Between magnesium and zinc
(B) Below zinc
(C) Above magnesium
(D) Below copper
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

X is more reactive than zinc (it displaces it) but less reactive than magnesium (it cannot displace it), so X lies between them in the series.

Q49Which conditions are needed for iron to rust?

(A) Oxygen (air) and water together
(B) Water only, with no air
(C) Oxygen only, kept completely dry
(D) Carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rusting requires both oxygen and water; iron kept in dry air or in oxygen-free water does not rust.

Q50Stainless steel, used for cutlery, is an alloy of iron with

(A) tin
(B) chromium
(C) zinc
(D) lead
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Stainless steel contains chromium (and often nickel), which forms a protective oxide layer that prevents rusting.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51In the treatment of water for drinking, filtration is used to remove

(A) dissolved salts
(B) chlorine
(C) the colour of the water
(D) insoluble solid particles
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Water passes through filter beds that trap suspended insoluble solids; chlorine is added afterwards to sterilise the water.

Q52What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in clean, dry air?

(A) 21%
(B) 1%
(C) 78%
(D) 50%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 1% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53Which gas is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Argon
(D) Methane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Methane absorbs infrared radiation and contributes to the greenhouse effect, along with carbon dioxide and water vapour; nitrogen, oxygen and argon do not.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54Which formula represents an alkene?

(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C) C3H6
(D) C4H10
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n. For n = 3 this gives C3H6 (propene). The others are alkanes.

Q55Ethene reacts with hydrogen to form ethane: C2H4 + H2 → C2H6. What type of reaction is this?

(A) Addition
(B) Substitution
(C) Cracking
(D) Combustion
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The hydrogen adds across the C=C double bond, so this is an addition reaction, producing a single product.

Q56Ethanol can be manufactured by reacting ethene with steam. Which conditions are used?

(A) Yeast at about 30°C
(B) A phosphoric acid catalyst, about 300°C and a high pressure
(C) Concentrated hydrochloric acid at room temperature
(D) A nickel catalyst and a temperature of 850°C
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The industrial hydration of ethene uses steam with a phosphoric acid catalyst at around 300°C and 60-70 atm pressure.

Q57Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol to form ethyl ethanoate and water. Ethyl ethanoate belongs to which family of compounds?

(A) Alkanes
(B) Esters
(C) Alkenes
(D) Polymers
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The reaction between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol produces an ester (plus water); esters are used in perfumes and flavourings.

Q58Nylon is a condensation polymer. What happens when its monomers join together?

(A) A small molecule, such as water, is eliminated as each link forms
(B) A double bond in each monomer opens up
(C) Oxygen from the air is absorbed
(D) Hydrogen gas is released
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In condensation polymerisation, two different monomers join with the loss of a small molecule such as water at each linkage.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59In paper chromatography, a substance that is more soluble in the solvent used will

(A) remain on the baseline
(B) move more slowly than an insoluble substance
(C) travel further up the paper
(D) change colour on the paper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A more soluble substance spends more time dissolved in the moving solvent, so it is carried further up the paper and has a higher Rf value.

Q60Which test identifies chloride ions in a solution?

(A) Add dilute nitric acid then silver nitrate solution; a cream precipitate forms
(B) Add dilute nitric acid then silver nitrate solution; a yellow precipitate forms
(C) Add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(D) Add dilute nitric acid then silver nitrate solution; a white precipitate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chloride ions give a white precipitate of silver chloride with acidified silver nitrate solution. (A cream precipitate would indicate bromide ions and a yellow one iodide ions.)