IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 14
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Water vapour in the air touches a cold mirror and forms tiny droplets of liquid water. Which process has taken place?
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Correct: (C)
Condensation is the change from a gas to a liquid, which happens when the vapour loses energy on the cold surface.
Q2When a liquid evaporates, the liquid cools down. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Only the fastest-moving particles have enough energy to escape; their loss lowers the average kinetic energy, and therefore the temperature, of the liquid left behind.
Q3A gas is heated in a sealed container of fixed volume. Why does its pressure increase?
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Correct: (A)
Heating gives the particles more kinetic energy, so they collide with the container walls more frequently and more forcefully, increasing the pressure.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom of carbon-14 has 6 protons. How many neutrons does it contain?
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Correct: (B)
Neutrons = mass number – proton number = 14 – 6 = 8.
Q5Which element has the electronic configuration 2,8,1?
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Correct: (B)
2 + 8 + 1 = 11 electrons, so the proton number is 11, which is sodium.
Q6A magnesium atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,2. What is the electronic configuration of the magnesium ion, Mg^2+?
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Correct: (A)
The atom loses its two outer electrons when forming Mg^2+, leaving 2,8, the stable configuration of neon.
Q7Covalent bonds are formed between
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Correct: (D)
In covalent bonding, non-metal atoms share pairs of electrons so that each atom achieves a stable outer shell.
Q8Diamond is one of the hardest substances known. This is because
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Correct: (C)
Diamond has a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure in which every carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds, making it extremely hard.
Q9Which substance has a giant ionic structure?
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Correct: (D)
Sodium chloride consists of a regular lattice of Na^+ and Cl^- ions held together by strong electrostatic forces; water and carbon dioxide are simple molecular, and diamond is giant covalent.
Q10Silicon dioxide (sand) has a very high melting point. Why?
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Correct: (C)
Silicon dioxide is a giant covalent structure; melting it requires breaking many strong Si-O covalent bonds, which takes a lot of energy.
Q11In a metal, the positive ions are held together in the structure by
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Correct: (B)
Metallic bonding is the attraction between the lattice of positive ions and the delocalised electrons that move throughout the structure.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12How many moles are there in 44 g of carbon dioxide? (Mr of CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 44 / 44 = 1.0 mol.
Q13What volume does 2.0 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)
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Correct: (A)
Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.
Q14A compound contains 2.4 g of carbon and 0.40 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
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Correct: (B)
Moles of C = 2.4 / 12 = 0.20; moles of H = 0.40 / 1 = 0.40. The ratio C : H = 0.20 : 0.40 = 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CH2.
Q15Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium oxide: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium is needed to make 4.0 g of magnesium oxide? (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr of MgO = 40)
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Correct: (C)
Moles of MgO = 4.0 / 40 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of Mg is needed. Mass = 0.10 × 24 = 2.4 g.
Q165.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (D)
Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol. Volume = 0.500 dm^3. Concentration = 0.10 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.
Q17In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of sodium hydroxide solution is neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of 0.10 mol/dm^3 hydrochloric acid. What is the concentration of the sodium hydroxide?
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Correct: (C)
Moles of HCl = 0.0200 dm^3 × 0.10 = 0.0020 mol, so 0.0020 mol of NaOH reacted. Concentration = 0.0020 / 0.0250 = 0.080 mol/dm^3.
Q18A student carries out a reaction and obtains 6.0 g of a product. The maximum possible mass of product is 8.0 g. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (A)
Percentage yield = (6.0 / 8.0) × 100 = 75%.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What gas is produced at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (B)
Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen gas; oxygen is formed at the anode.
Q20Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is produced at the positive electrode (anode)?
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Correct: (D)
The bromide ions lose electrons at the anode to form bromine; lead is deposited at the cathode.
Q21An ionic compound conducts electricity when molten or in aqueous solution, but not when solid. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Ions must be free to move and carry charge to the electrodes; in the solid lattice they are locked in place.
Q22A steel spoon is to be electroplated with silver. To coat the spoon, it must be used as
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Correct: (B)
The object to be plated is made the cathode, so that positive silver ions are attracted to it and form a layer of silver metal on its surface.
Q23Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert carbon electrodes. What is produced at the anode?
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Correct: (A)
The hydroxide ions from water are discharged at the anode to give oxygen; copper is deposited at the cathode.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24A student mixes two solutions and the temperature of the mixture falls. The reaction is
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Correct: (C)
A fall in temperature shows the reaction has taken energy in from the surroundings, so it is endothermic.
Q25Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol)
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Correct: (A)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. ΔH = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.
Q26The energy level diagram of a reaction shows the products at a higher energy level than the reactants. Which statement about the reaction is correct?
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Correct: (D)
The products have more energy than the reactants, so energy has been taken in: the reaction is endothermic and ΔH is positive.
Q27Which statement about fuels is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas are used up far faster than they form, so they are non-renewable.
Q28What energy conversion takes place in a simple chemical cell?
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Correct: (B)
A chemical cell (such as two different metals in an electrolyte) converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29The rate of reaction between marble chips and hydrochloric acid can be increased by
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Correct: (B)
A more concentrated acid has more acid particles in the same volume, so collisions with the marble are more frequent and the reaction is faster.
Q30According to collision theory, raising the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because
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Correct: (C)
At higher temperatures particles move faster, colliding more frequently, and a greater proportion of collisions are energetic enough to react.
Q31Sulfur dioxide and oxygen react in a reversible reaction: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g). The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of SO3 if the temperature is lowered?
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Correct: (D)
Lowering the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the exothermic direction (to the right), so more SO3 is formed, although the reaction is slower.
Q32In terms of electrons, oxidation is
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Correct: (A)
Oxidation is the loss of electrons (OIL: Oxidation Is Loss); reduction is the gain of electrons.
Q33Copper(II) oxide reacts with hydrogen: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O. Which substance is oxidised?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen gains oxygen to form water, so hydrogen is oxidised; copper(II) oxide loses oxygen, so it is reduced.
Q34A reaction produces 120 cm^3 of gas in 2 minutes. What is the average rate of reaction in cm^3/s?
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Correct: (A)
2 minutes = 120 s. Rate = 120 cm^3 / 120 s = 1.0 cm^3/s.
Q35A catalyst is added to a reversible reaction that has reached equilibrium. What happens?
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position and the yield are unchanged.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Dilute sodium hydroxide solution is added gradually to dilute hydrochloric acid. What happens to the pH of the mixture?
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Correct: (C)
The alkali neutralises the acid, using up hydrogen ions, so the pH rises from a low value towards 7.
Q37Which oxide is basic?
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Correct: (A)
Magnesium oxide is a metal oxide and reacts with acids to form a salt and water, so it is basic; the others are non-metal oxides and are acidic.
Q38Lead(II) sulfate is insoluble in water. Which reagents give lead(II) sulfate by precipitation?
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Correct: (C)
Mixing solutions containing Pb^2+ and SO4^2- ions gives an immediate white precipitate of insoluble lead(II) sulfate.
Q39A farmer suspects a fertiliser contains ammonium ions. Which test confirms this?
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Correct: (D)
Ammonium compounds release ammonia gas when warmed with an alkali; ammonia is alkaline and turns damp red litmus paper blue.
Q40When a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate, the products are
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Correct: (B)
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide; effervescence is seen as the gas is released.
Q41A solution of copper(II) sulfate has been prepared. Which method gives pure crystals of hydrated copper(II) sulfate from this solution?
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Correct: (C)
Evaporating to the crystallisation point and cooling produces crystals; filtering and drying them between filter papers gives a pure sample. Boiling to dryness would drive the water of crystallisation from the hydrated salt.
Q42What is the colour of universal indicator in a neutral solution?
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Correct: (B)
Universal indicator is green at pH 7; it is red in strong acids and blue/purple in alkalis.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43How does the reactivity of the halogens (Group 7) change down the group?
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Correct: (A)
Halogens become less reactive down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so the atom attracts an extra electron less strongly.
Q44Astatine is below iodine in Group 7. Using the trends in the group, what is astatine most likely to be like?
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Correct: (D)
Down Group 7 the halogens become darker, change from gases to solids (F2 and Cl2 gases, Br2 liquid, I2 solid), and become less reactive, so astatine is predicted to be a dark solid and the least reactive.
Q45Which transition element is used as the catalyst in the Haber process for making ammonia?
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Correct: (B)
Finely divided iron is the catalyst used in the Haber process.
Q46Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have similar chemical properties because they have the same number of
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Correct: (D)
Chemical behaviour depends on the outer-shell electrons, and elements in a group all have the same number of these.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Iron is extracted from its ore in a blast furnace. By what process is the iron(III) oxide converted into iron?
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Correct: (C)
In the blast furnace, coke burns to form carbon dioxide and then carbon monoxide, which reduces iron(III) oxide to iron.
Q48A metal X displaces zinc from zinc sulfate solution, but does not displace magnesium from magnesium sulfate solution. Where is X in the reactivity series?
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Correct: (A)
X is more reactive than zinc (it displaces it) but less reactive than magnesium (it cannot displace it), so X lies between them in the series.
Q49Which conditions are needed for iron to rust?
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Correct: (A)
Rusting requires both oxygen and water; iron kept in dry air or in oxygen-free water does not rust.
Q50Stainless steel, used for cutlery, is an alloy of iron with
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Correct: (B)
Stainless steel contains chromium (and often nickel), which forms a protective oxide layer that prevents rusting.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51In the treatment of water for drinking, filtration is used to remove
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Correct: (D)
Water passes through filter beds that trap suspended insoluble solids; chlorine is added afterwards to sterilise the water.
Q52What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in clean, dry air?
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Correct: (C)
Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 1% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.
Q53Which gas is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (D)
Methane absorbs infrared radiation and contributes to the greenhouse effect, along with carbon dioxide and water vapour; nitrogen, oxygen and argon do not.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54Which formula represents an alkene?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n. For n = 3 this gives C3H6 (propene). The others are alkanes.
Q55Ethene reacts with hydrogen to form ethane: C2H4 + H2 → C2H6. What type of reaction is this?
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Correct: (A)
The hydrogen adds across the C=C double bond, so this is an addition reaction, producing a single product.
Q56Ethanol can be manufactured by reacting ethene with steam. Which conditions are used?
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Correct: (B)
The industrial hydration of ethene uses steam with a phosphoric acid catalyst at around 300°C and 60-70 atm pressure.
Q57Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol to form ethyl ethanoate and water. Ethyl ethanoate belongs to which family of compounds?
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Correct: (B)
The reaction between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol produces an ester (plus water); esters are used in perfumes and flavourings.
Q58Nylon is a condensation polymer. What happens when its monomers join together?
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Correct: (A)
In condensation polymerisation, two different monomers join with the loss of a small molecule such as water at each linkage.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59In paper chromatography, a substance that is more soluble in the solvent used will
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Correct: (C)
A more soluble substance spends more time dissolved in the moving solvent, so it is carried further up the paper and has a higher Rf value.
Q60Which test identifies chloride ions in a solution?
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Correct: (D)
Chloride ions give a white precipitate of silver chloride with acidified silver nitrate solution. (A cream precipitate would indicate bromide ions and a yellow one iodide ions.)
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