IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 13
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1What happens to the particles when a solid melts?
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Correct: (B)
On melting, the particles gain energy and the lattice structure breaks down, so the particles can move around each other while staying close together.
Q2A solid turns directly into a gas without passing through the liquid state. What is this change called?
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Correct: (C)
Sublimation is the direct change from a solid to a gas, as seen with dry ice and iodine.
Q3Smoke particles viewed under a microscope are seen to move with a constant, random, jerky motion. What causes this?
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Correct: (A)
The random motion (Brownian motion) is caused by collisions with invisible air molecules moving randomly at high speed.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom contains 11 protons, 12 neutrons and 11 electrons. Which statement about this atom is correct?
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Correct: (D)
11 protons means the element is sodium, and the mass number is protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23. It has equal protons and electrons, so it is a neutral atom.
Q5Isotopes of the same element are atoms that have
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Correct: (A)
Isotopes have the same atomic number (protons) but different mass numbers because they contain different numbers of neutrons.
Q6What is the electronic configuration of a sulfur atom? (Sulfur has proton number 16.)
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Correct: (D)
Sulfur has 16 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second shell and 6 in the third shell, giving 2,8,6.
Q7A chlorine atom has 17 electrons. How many electrons are there in a chloride ion, Cl-?
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Correct: (B)
The atom gains one electron to form Cl-, so the ion has 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.
Q8Which statement correctly describes ionic bonding?
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Correct: (C)
In ionic bonding, metal atoms lose electrons and non-metal atoms gain them; the resulting positive and negative ions are held together by electrostatic attraction.
Q9Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. What is the reason for this?
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Correct: (C)
In graphite each carbon atom forms three covalent bonds, so the fourth outer electron is delocalised and free to move through the layers, carrying an electric current.
Q10Which molecule contains a double covalent bond?
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Correct: (A)
An oxygen molecule contains a double bond (O=O); methane, ammonia and hydrogen contain only single bonds.
Q11Metals can be hammered into shape without breaking because
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Correct: (D)
The regular layers of metal ions can slide into new positions without the structure breaking apart, which makes metals malleable.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12How many moles are there in 8.0 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (B)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8.0 / 16 = 0.50 mol.
Q13What is the volume of 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide gas at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.
Q14A compound contains 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
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Correct: (B)
Moles of C = 80 / 12 = 6.67; moles of H = 20 / 1 = 20. The ratio C : H = 6.67 : 20 = 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.
Q15A reaction has a theoretical yield of 40 g of product, but only 30 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (C)
Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) × 100 = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.
Q160.50 mol of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in water to make 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (A)
250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3. Concentration = moles / volume = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.
Q17Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of calcium oxide is made from 10 g of calcium carbonate? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)
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Correct: (A)
Moles of CaCO3 = 10 / 100 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of CaO forms. Mass = 0.10 × 56 = 5.6 g.
Q18A compound has empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 42. What is its molecular formula? (Mr of CH2 unit = 14)
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Correct: (C)
42 / 14 = 3, so the molecular formula is 3 × CH2 = C3H6.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is produced at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen ions are discharged in preference to sodium ions because sodium is high in the reactivity series, so hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode.
Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes. What is observed?
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Correct: (B)
With active copper electrodes, copper leaves the anode and is deposited on the cathode, so the cathode gains mass, the anode loses mass and the blue colour stays the same.
Q21During electrolysis, the negative ions in the electrolyte move towards
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Correct: (B)
Negative ions are attracted to the positive electrode, which is called the anode in electrolysis.
Q22Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite. Why is cryolite used?
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Correct: (D)
Aluminium oxide melts at over 2000°C; dissolving it in cryolite lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte, which reduces energy costs.
Q23A simple chemical cell is made using zinc and copper electrodes in dilute sulfuric acid. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it forms the negative terminal, loses electrons and dissolves; hydrogen is produced at the copper electrode.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which process is exothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Combustion releases energy to the surroundings, so it is exothermic; the other three processes take in energy.
Q25Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)
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Correct: (C)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q26On an energy level diagram for a reaction, the activation energy is
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Correct: (B)
The activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must have to react, shown as the height of the barrier above the reactants.
Q27Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (D)
Thermal decomposition takes in heat energy from the surroundings, so it is endothermic; the others release energy.
Q28Hydrogen is used in fuel cells to generate electricity. What is the main advantage of a hydrogen fuel cell compared with burning petrol?
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Correct: (A)
In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water only (2H2 + O2 → 2H2O), so no carbon dioxide is emitted.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Powdered marble reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid much faster than the same mass of marble lumps. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Powder exposes a much larger surface area, giving more frequent collisions between the acid and the marble, so the reaction is faster.
Q30How does a catalyst speed up a chemical reaction?
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst offers a different route for the reaction with a lower activation energy, so more collisions are successful; it is not used up.
Q31In the Haber process, nitrogen and hydrogen react to form ammonia: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. The reaction is exothermic. A temperature of about 450°C is used. Why is this temperature chosen?
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Correct: (C)
Because the forward reaction is exothermic, lower temperatures favour ammonia formation but make the reaction very slow; 450°C balances a reasonable yield with a reasonable rate.
Q32Which change is reversible?
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Correct: (B)
Heating hydrated copper(II) sulfate drives off the water to give white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate, and adding water turns it blue again, so the change can be reversed.
Q33Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. Which species is the oxidising agent?
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Correct: (A)
The copper(II) ions gain electrons from the zinc (they are reduced), so Cu^2+ is the oxidising agent; zinc is the reducing agent.
Q34A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the average rate of the reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Average rate = volume of gas / time = 90 / 30 = 3.0 cm^3/s.
Q35Ammonia is made in the equilibrium reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). What happens when the pressure is increased?
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Correct: (D)
There are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 moles on the right, so higher pressure shifts the position of equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules, producing more ammonia.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Which statement about a weak acid is correct?
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Correct: (C)
A weak acid such as ethanoic acid only partially splits into ions in solution, unlike a strong acid which is fully ionised.
Q37Which oxide is amphoteric?
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Correct: (C)
Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is amphoteric. Magnesium oxide is basic, and carbon and sulfur dioxide are acidic.
Q38Barium sulfate is an insoluble salt. Which pair of solutions, when mixed, gives a precipitate of barium sulfate?
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Correct: (D)
Ba^2+ ions from the barium chloride meet SO4^2- ions from the sodium sulfate and form insoluble barium sulfate as a white precipitate.
Q39A solid reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give a gas that turns limewater milky. Which ion is present in the solid?
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Correct: (A)
Carbonates react with dilute acids to release carbon dioxide, which turns limewater milky.
Q40Which oxide is acidic?
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Correct: (B)
Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic (it forms sulfurous acid with water); the metal oxides listed are basic.
Q41Zinc sulfate is a soluble salt. Which method gives a pure sample of zinc sulfate from zinc carbonate and dilute sulfuric acid?
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Correct: (B)
Adding excess insoluble carbonate ensures all the acid is used up; filtering removes the unreacted carbonate, and the filtrate is crystallised to obtain pure zinc sulfate.
Q42What colour is phenolphthalein indicator in sodium hydroxide solution?
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Correct: (A)
Phenolphthalein is pink in alkaline solutions and colourless in acids.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group because
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Correct: (C)
Down the group the outer electron is in a shell further from the nucleus and is held less strongly, so it is lost more easily and the metal reacts more vigorously.
Q44Chlorine solution is added to aqueous potassium bromide. What is observed?
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Correct: (D)
Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces it: Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2, and the bromine colours the solution orange-brown.
Q45Which property is typical of transition elements but not of Group 1 metals?
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Correct: (D)
Transition elements form coloured compounds (e.g. blue copper(II) sulfate), have high melting points and densities, and are much less reactive than Group 1 metals.
Q46The noble gases are very unreactive because
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Correct: (C)
Noble gas atoms already have a full outer electron shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which metal is the most reactive?
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Correct: (B)
In the reactivity series magnesium is above zinc, iron and copper, so it is the most reactive of the four.
Q48Which metal does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Q49Galvanising protects iron from rusting because
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Correct: (A)
Zinc is higher in the reactivity series, so it acts as a sacrificial metal and corrodes in place of the iron, even if the coating is scratched.
Q50Alloys are harder than the pure metals they are made from because
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Correct: (D)
In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular arrangement, preventing the layers from sliding and making the alloy harder and stronger.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies in order to
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Correct: (C)
Chlorination sterilises the water by killing bacteria and other microorganisms that could cause disease.
Q52Acid rain is caused mainly by which gas dissolving in rainwater?
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Correct: (B)
Sulfur dioxide, released when fossil fuels containing sulfur are burned, dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain.
Q53Which fertiliser contains the highest percentage of nitrogen by mass? (Mr values: NH4NO3 = 80, CO(NH2)2 = 60, (NH4)2SO4 = 132, KNO3 = 101; Ar of N = 14)
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Correct: (B)
Each fertiliser contains 28 g of nitrogen per formula mass. Urea: 28 / 60 × 100 = 47%; ammonium nitrate: 28 / 80 = 35%; ammonium sulfate: 28 / 132 = 21%; potassium nitrate contains only 14 g of N, 14 / 101 = 14%. Urea has the highest percentage.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54Which formula represents an alkane?
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Correct: (C)
Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2. For n = 4 this gives C4H10. The others fit CnH2n and are alkenes.
Q55A few drops of bromine water are shaken with ethene. What is observed?
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Correct: (D)
Ethene has a C=C double bond and undergoes an addition reaction with bromine, so the orange colour disappears; this is the test for an unsaturated compound.
Q56Long-chain hydrocarbons from crude oil are cracked. What are the products of cracking?
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Correct: (A)
Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes, which are used for fuels and for making polymers.
Q57Ethanol is made by fermenting glucose solution. Which conditions are needed?
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Correct: (C)
Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast at around 30°C in the absence of air, converting glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Q58Poly(ethene) is made from ethene molecules. How is it formed?
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Correct: (A)
The C=C double bonds in ethene monomers open up so the molecules can join into long chains; this is addition polymerisation.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59In a chromatography experiment, a dye moves 4.0 cm up the paper while the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?
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Correct: (B)
Rf = distance moved by the dye / distance moved by the solvent front = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.50.
Q60Which test identifies sulfate ions in a solution?
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Correct: (D)
Barium chloride solution gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; acidifying first removes carbonate ions which would also give a white precipitate.
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