IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 13

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1What happens to the particles when a solid melts?

(A) They lose energy and move closer together in a regular arrangement
(B) They gain energy and can slide past each other, breaking out of their fixed positions
(C) They stop vibrating completely
(D) They form a regular lattice with stronger forces between them
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

On melting, the particles gain energy and the lattice structure breaks down, so the particles can move around each other while staying close together.

Q2A solid turns directly into a gas without passing through the liquid state. What is this change called?

(A) Evaporation
(B) Condensation
(C) Sublimation
(D) Freezing
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sublimation is the direct change from a solid to a gas, as seen with dry ice and iodine.

Q3Smoke particles viewed under a microscope are seen to move with a constant, random, jerky motion. What causes this?

(A) The smoke particles are bombarded by fast-moving air molecules
(B) The smoke particles are alive and swimming
(C) Light from the microscope pushes the particles
(D) The smoke particles repel each other because they are charged
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The random motion (Brownian motion) is caused by collisions with invisible air molecules moving randomly at high speed.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom contains 11 protons, 12 neutrons and 11 electrons. Which statement about this atom is correct?

(A) The element is magnesium and its mass number is 23
(B) The element is sodium and its mass number is 11
(C) The atom is an ion with a charge of +1
(D) The element is sodium and its mass number is 23
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

11 protons means the element is sodium, and the mass number is protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23. It has equal protons and electrons, so it is a neutral atom.

Q5Isotopes of the same element are atoms that have

(A) the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons
(B) the same number of neutrons but a different number of protons
(C) the same mass number but a different number of protons
(D) a different number of protons and a different number of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Isotopes have the same atomic number (protons) but different mass numbers because they contain different numbers of neutrons.

Q6What is the electronic configuration of a sulfur atom? (Sulfur has proton number 16.)

(A) 2,8,4
(B) 2,8,8
(C) 2,6,8
(D) 2,8,6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur has 16 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second shell and 6 in the third shell, giving 2,8,6.

Q7A chlorine atom has 17 electrons. How many electrons are there in a chloride ion, Cl-?

(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 17
(D) 36
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The atom gains one electron to form Cl-, so the ion has 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.

Q8Which statement correctly describes ionic bonding?

(A) Pairs of electrons are shared between non-metal atoms
(B) Positive ions are held in a sea of delocalised electrons
(C) Electrons are transferred from metal atoms to non-metal atoms, forming oppositely charged ions that attract each other
(D) Weak forces exist between separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In ionic bonding, metal atoms lose electrons and non-metal atoms gain them; the resulting positive and negative ions are held together by electrostatic attraction.

Q9Graphite conducts electricity, but diamond does not. What is the reason for this?

(A) Graphite contains free ions that can move
(B) The bonds in graphite are weaker than the bonds in diamond
(C) Each carbon atom in graphite is bonded to only three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge
(D) Diamond contains no electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In graphite each carbon atom forms three covalent bonds, so the fourth outer electron is delocalised and free to move through the layers, carrying an electric current.

Q10Which molecule contains a double covalent bond?

(A) O2
(B) CH4
(C) NH3
(D) H2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An oxygen molecule contains a double bond (O=O); methane, ammonia and hydrogen contain only single bonds.

Q11Metals can be hammered into shape without breaking because

(A) the atoms in a metal are joined by weak forces
(B) the electrons in a metal are fixed in position
(C) the ions in a metal are small and widely spaced
(D) the layers of positive ions can slide over each other while the delocalised electrons still hold them together
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The regular layers of metal ions can slide into new positions without the structure breaking apart, which makes metals malleable.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 8.0 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.25 mol
(B) 0.50 mol
(C) 2.0 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8.0 / 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q13What is the volume of 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide gas at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)

(A) 24 dm^3
(B) 12 dm^3
(C) 96 dm^3
(D) 6.0 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.

Q14A compound contains 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH4
(B) CH3
(C) C2H4
(D) CH2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of C = 80 / 12 = 6.67; moles of H = 20 / 1 = 20. The ratio C : H = 6.67 : 20 = 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.

Q15A reaction has a theoretical yield of 40 g of product, but only 30 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 25%
(B) 33%
(C) 75%
(D) 133%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) × 100 = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.

Q160.50 mol of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in water to make 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(C) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 125 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3. Concentration = moles / volume = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q17Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of calcium oxide is made from 10 g of calcium carbonate? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)

(A) 5.6 g
(B) 4.4 g
(C) 10 g
(D) 0.56 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of CaCO3 = 10 / 100 = 0.10 mol, so 0.10 mol of CaO forms. Mass = 0.10 × 56 = 5.6 g.

Q18A compound has empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 42. What is its molecular formula? (Mr of CH2 unit = 14)

(A) C2H4
(B) C3H8
(C) C3H6
(D) C6H12
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

42 / 14 = 3, so the molecular formula is 3 × CH2 = C3H6.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is produced at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Sodium
(B) Chlorine
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen ions are discharged in preference to sodium ions because sodium is high in the reactivity series, so hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode.

Q20Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes. What is observed?

(A) The blue colour of the solution quickly fades away
(B) Copper is deposited on the cathode while the copper anode gradually dissolves and gets smaller
(C) Oxygen gas is produced at the anode
(D) Copper is deposited on the anode
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With active copper electrodes, copper leaves the anode and is deposited on the cathode, so the cathode gains mass, the anode loses mass and the blue colour stays the same.

Q21During electrolysis, the negative ions in the electrolyte move towards

(A) the cathode, which is the negative electrode
(B) the anode, which is the positive electrode
(C) both electrodes at the same time
(D) the bottom of the cell only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Negative ions are attracted to the positive electrode, which is called the anode in electrolysis.

Q22Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite. Why is cryolite used?

(A) It acts as a catalyst for the reaction
(B) It removes impurities from the ore
(C) It increases the melting point of aluminium oxide
(D) It lowers the melting point of the mixture, saving energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium oxide melts at over 2000°C; dissolving it in cryolite lowers the working temperature of the electrolyte, which reduces energy costs.

Q23A simple chemical cell is made using zinc and copper electrodes in dilute sulfuric acid. Which statement is correct?

(A) Zinc forms the negative terminal of the cell and is gradually used up
(B) Copper forms the negative terminal of the cell
(C) Hydrogen gas is produced at the zinc electrode
(D) No voltage is produced because both electrodes are metals
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it forms the negative terminal, loses electrons and dissolves; hydrogen is produced at the copper electrode.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which process is exothermic?

(A) Photosynthesis
(B) The thermal decomposition of limestone
(C) The combustion of methane
(D) The evaporation of water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Combustion releases energy to the surroundings, so it is exothermic; the other three processes take in energy.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. (Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -92 kJ/mol
(C) -184 kJ/mol
(D) +92 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q26On an energy level diagram for a reaction, the activation energy is

(A) the difference in energy between the products and the reactants
(B) the energy gap between the reactants and the top of the energy barrier
(C) the total energy released by the reaction
(D) the energy content of the products
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must have to react, shown as the height of the barrier above the reactants.

Q27Which process is endothermic?

(A) Respiration
(B) Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(C) Burning a fuel
(D) The thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Thermal decomposition takes in heat energy from the surroundings, so it is endothermic; the others release energy.

Q28Hydrogen is used in fuel cells to generate electricity. What is the main advantage of a hydrogen fuel cell compared with burning petrol?

(A) The only product is water, so no carbon dioxide is produced
(B) It produces carbon dioxide which plants can use
(C) Hydrogen is very easy to store as a liquid
(D) It works without needing any oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water only (2H2 + O2 → 2H2O), so no carbon dioxide is emitted.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Powdered marble reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid much faster than the same mass of marble lumps. Why?

(A) The powder has a lower activation energy for its particles
(B) The particles in the powder move faster
(C) The powder increases the concentration of the acid
(D) The powder has a larger surface area, so acid particles collide with it more frequently
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Powder exposes a much larger surface area, giving more frequent collisions between the acid and the marble, so the reaction is faster.

Q30How does a catalyst speed up a chemical reaction?

(A) It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(B) It increases the energy of all the reactant particles
(C) It increases the yield of product at equilibrium
(D) It is used up and takes part as a reactant
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst offers a different route for the reaction with a lower activation energy, so more collisions are successful; it is not used up.

Q31In the Haber process, nitrogen and hydrogen react to form ammonia: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. The reaction is exothermic. A temperature of about 450°C is used. Why is this temperature chosen?

(A) The catalyst stops working below 450°C
(B) The yield of ammonia is highest at exactly 450°C
(C) Lower temperatures give a higher yield but the rate is too slow, so 450°C is a compromise
(D) Higher temperatures increase both the rate and the yield
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Because the forward reaction is exothermic, lower temperatures favour ammonia formation but make the reaction very slow; 450°C balances a reasonable yield with a reasonable rate.

Q32Which change is reversible?

(A) Burning magnesium in air
(B) Heating blue hydrated copper(II) sulfate crystals, then adding water to the white solid formed
(C) Mixing an acid with an alkali
(D) Iron rusting in damp air
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Heating hydrated copper(II) sulfate drives off the water to give white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate, and adding water turns it blue again, so the change can be reversed.

Q33Zinc reacts with copper(II) sulfate solution: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. Which species is the oxidising agent?

(A) Cu^2+ ions
(B) Zn atoms
(C) SO4^2- ions
(D) Cu atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The copper(II) ions gain electrons from the zinc (they are reduced), so Cu^2+ is the oxidising agent; zinc is the reducing agent.

Q34A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the average rate of the reaction?

(A) 0.33 cm^3/s
(B) 3.0 cm^3/s
(C) 30 cm^3/s
(D) 2700 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Average rate = volume of gas / time = 90 / 30 = 3.0 cm^3/s.

Q35Ammonia is made in the equilibrium reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). What happens when the pressure is increased?

(A) The equilibrium shifts to the left, making less ammonia
(B) The equilibrium position does not change
(C) More hydrogen is formed
(D) The equilibrium shifts to the right because there are fewer moles of gas on the right-hand side
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

There are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 moles on the right, so higher pressure shifts the position of equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules, producing more ammonia.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which statement about a weak acid is correct?

(A) It is fully ionised in aqueous solution
(B) It has a pH value greater than 7
(C) It is only partially ionised in aqueous solution
(D) It does not react with carbonates
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A weak acid such as ethanoic acid only partially splits into ions in solution, unlike a strong acid which is fully ionised.

Q37Which oxide is amphoteric?

(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Magnesium oxide
(C) Aluminium oxide
(D) Sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is amphoteric. Magnesium oxide is basic, and carbon and sulfur dioxide are acidic.

Q38Barium sulfate is an insoluble salt. Which pair of solutions, when mixed, gives a precipitate of barium sulfate?

(A) Barium oxide and water
(B) Barium carbonate and hydrochloric acid
(C) Barium nitrate solution and distilled water
(D) Barium chloride solution and sodium sulfate solution
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ba^2+ ions from the barium chloride meet SO4^2- ions from the sodium sulfate and form insoluble barium sulfate as a white precipitate.

Q39A solid reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give a gas that turns limewater milky. Which ion is present in the solid?

(A) Carbonate
(B) Chloride
(C) Sulfate
(D) Nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbonates react with dilute acids to release carbon dioxide, which turns limewater milky.

Q40Which oxide is acidic?

(A) Calcium oxide
(B) Sulfur dioxide
(C) Sodium oxide
(D) Copper(II) oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic (it forms sulfurous acid with water); the metal oxides listed are basic.

Q41Zinc sulfate is a soluble salt. Which method gives a pure sample of zinc sulfate from zinc carbonate and dilute sulfuric acid?

(A) Add excess acid to the carbonate, filter, and crystallise the filtrate
(B) Add excess zinc carbonate to the warm acid, filter off the excess solid, then crystallise the filtrate
(C) Mix solutions of two soluble salts and filter off the precipitate
(D) Evaporate the acid to dryness and then add the carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Adding excess insoluble carbonate ensures all the acid is used up; filtering removes the unreacted carbonate, and the filtrate is crystallised to obtain pure zinc sulfate.

Q42What colour is phenolphthalein indicator in sodium hydroxide solution?

(A) Pink
(B) Colourless
(C) Blue
(D) Orange
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Phenolphthalein is pink in alkaline solutions and colourless in acids.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group because

(A) the atoms become smaller down the group
(B) the melting point increases down the group
(C) the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost down the group
(D) the number of protons decreases down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Down the group the outer electron is in a shell further from the nucleus and is held less strongly, so it is lost more easily and the metal reacts more vigorously.

Q44Chlorine solution is added to aqueous potassium bromide. What is observed?

(A) No reaction takes place
(B) Chlorine is displaced by bromine
(C) A white precipitate forms
(D) The solution turns orange-brown as bromine is formed
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces it: Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2, and the bromine colours the solution orange-brown.

Q45Which property is typical of transition elements but not of Group 1 metals?

(A) They have low densities
(B) They are soft and can be cut with a knife
(C) They react very quickly with cold water
(D) They form coloured compounds
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition elements form coloured compounds (e.g. blue copper(II) sulfate), have high melting points and densities, and are much less reactive than Group 1 metals.

Q46The noble gases are very unreactive because

(A) they have very low densities
(B) they exist as single atoms
(C) they have a complete outer shell of electrons
(D) they have very low boiling points
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Noble gas atoms already have a full outer electron shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal is the most reactive?

(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In the reactivity series magnesium is above zinc, iron and copper, so it is the most reactive of the four.

Q48Which metal does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Copper
(B) Zinc
(C) Iron
(D) Magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids.

Q49Galvanising protects iron from rusting because

(A) zinc is more reactive than iron, so the zinc corrodes instead of the iron
(B) zinc is an unreactive metal that never corrodes
(C) zinc melts and paints the surface of the iron
(D) zinc is harder than iron
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is higher in the reactivity series, so it acts as a sacrificial metal and corrodes in place of the iron, even if the coating is scratched.

Q50Alloys are harder than the pure metals they are made from because

(A) all the atoms in an alloy are the same size
(B) the layers in an alloy slide over each other more easily
(C) the bonds between atoms in an alloy are weaker
(D) atoms of different sizes distort the layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other easily
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular arrangement, preventing the layers from sliding and making the alloy harder and stronger.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies in order to

(A) remove dissolved solids
(B) improve the taste
(C) kill harmful microorganisms
(D) soften the water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chlorination sterilises the water by killing bacteria and other microorganisms that could cause disease.

Q52Acid rain is caused mainly by which gas dissolving in rainwater?

(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Sulfur dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur dioxide, released when fossil fuels containing sulfur are burned, dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain.

Q53Which fertiliser contains the highest percentage of nitrogen by mass? (Mr values: NH4NO3 = 80, CO(NH2)2 = 60, (NH4)2SO4 = 132, KNO3 = 101; Ar of N = 14)

(A) Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3
(B) Urea, CO(NH2)2
(C) Ammonium sulfate, (NH4)2SO4
(D) Potassium nitrate, KNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each fertiliser contains 28 g of nitrogen per formula mass. Urea: 28 / 60 × 100 = 47%; ammonium nitrate: 28 / 80 = 35%; ammonium sulfate: 28 / 132 = 21%; potassium nitrate contains only 14 g of N, 14 / 101 = 14%. Urea has the highest percentage.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54Which formula represents an alkane?

(A) C2H4
(B) C3H6
(C) C4H10
(D) C5H10
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2. For n = 4 this gives C4H10. The others fit CnH2n and are alkenes.

Q55A few drops of bromine water are shaken with ethene. What is observed?

(A) The bromine water stays orange
(B) The mixture turns blue
(C) A white precipitate forms
(D) The orange bromine water is decolourised
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ethene has a C=C double bond and undergoes an addition reaction with bromine, so the orange colour disappears; this is the test for an unsaturated compound.

Q56Long-chain hydrocarbons from crude oil are cracked. What are the products of cracking?

(A) Shorter-chain alkanes and alkenes
(B) Only alkanes
(C) Polymers
(D) Alcohols and water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes, which are used for fuels and for making polymers.

Q57Ethanol is made by fermenting glucose solution. Which conditions are needed?

(A) A temperature of about 300°C and a catalyst
(B) Yeast kept at 100°C
(C) Yeast enzymes, a temperature of about 30°C and no air (anaerobic conditions)
(D) Concentrated sulfuric acid and strong heating
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast at around 30°C in the absence of air, converting glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q58Poly(ethene) is made from ethene molecules. How is it formed?

(A) By addition polymerisation, in which many ethene monomers join together
(B) By condensation polymerisation, in which water is eliminated
(C) By cracking long-chain alkanes
(D) By burning ethene in a limited supply of air
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The C=C double bonds in ethene monomers open up so the molecules can join into long chains; this is addition polymerisation.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59In a chromatography experiment, a dye moves 4.0 cm up the paper while the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?

(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by the dye / distance moved by the solvent front = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.50.

Q60Which test identifies sulfate ions in a solution?

(A) Add dilute nitric acid and silver nitrate solution; a white precipitate forms
(B) Add sodium hydroxide solution and warm; a gas turns damp litmus blue
(C) Add limewater; a white precipitate forms
(D) Acidify with dilute hydrochloric acid, then add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Barium chloride solution gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; acidifying first removes carbonate ions which would also give a white precipitate.