IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 12

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1When solid iodine is warmed, it changes directly into a purple vapour without melting. This change of state is called

(A) sublimation
(B) evaporation
(C) condensation
(D) melting
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sublimation is the change of a solid directly into a gas (or a gas directly into a solid) without passing through the liquid state, as happens with iodine and solid carbon dioxide.

Q2Which statement about evaporation is correct?

(A) It occurs only at the boiling point of the liquid
(B) It occurs at any temperature, only from the surface of the liquid
(C) It occurs throughout the liquid
(D) It is a chemical change
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Evaporation happens at any temperature, when the faster-moving particles at the surface of the liquid escape. Boiling, in contrast, occurs at one temperature and throughout the liquid.

Q3Which statement describes the particles in a solid?

(A) They move freely throughout the solid
(B) They are widely separated
(C) They vibrate about fixed positions
(D) There are no forces between them
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a solid the particles are held in fixed positions in a regular arrangement by strong forces, so they can only vibrate about those positions. This gives a solid a fixed shape and volume.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom has a nucleon (mass) number of 24 and contains 12 neutrons. What is its proton number?

(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 6
(D) 12
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Proton number = nucleon number – number of neutrons = 24 – 12 = 12. The element is magnesium.

Q5Which element has the electronic configuration 2,8,1?

(A) sodium
(B) magnesium
(C) aluminium
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The configuration contains 2 + 8 + 1 = 11 electrons, so the atom has 11 protons, which is sodium. (Magnesium is 2,8,2; aluminium is 2,8,3; chlorine is 2,8,7.)

Q6Which compound contains only covalent bonds?

(A) sodium chloride
(B) water
(C) magnesium oxide
(D) calcium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Water is a simple molecule in which hydrogen and oxygen atoms are joined by shared pairs of electrons. Sodium chloride and magnesium oxide are ionic, and calcium carbonate contains both ionic and covalent bonds.

Q7Why does graphite conduct electricity?

(A) Ions are free to move through the layers
(B) It has a low melting point
(C) Some electrons are delocalised and free to move
(D) It contains metal atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In graphite each carbon atom forms only three bonds, leaving one electron per atom delocalised. These electrons can move along the layers and carry charge.

Q8A chlorine atom has 17 protons and 18 neutrons. How many electrons are there in a chloride ion, Cl-?

(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 18
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A chlorine atom has 17 electrons. A chloride ion is formed when the atom gains one electron, so the ion has 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.

Q9Fluorine has a proton number of 9. How many neutrons are there in an atom of fluorine-19?

(A) 10
(B) 9
(C) 19
(D) 28
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Number of neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 19 – 9 = 10.

Q10What is the charge and electronic configuration of a magnesium ion?

(A) 2- and 2,8,8
(B) 2+ and 2,8
(C) 1+ and 2,8,1
(D) 2+ and 2,8,2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A magnesium atom (2,8,2) loses its two outer electrons to form Mg^2+ with the stable configuration 2,8.

Q11Which substance is a poor conductor of electricity when molten?

(A) sodium chloride
(B) copper
(C) sulfur
(D) aluminium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur is a simple molecular substance with no ions and no delocalised electrons, so it cannot conduct in any state. Molten sodium chloride conducts because its ions are free to move, and the metals conduct using delocalised electrons.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the relative formula mass of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4? (Ar: Cu = 64, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 96
(B) 128
(C) 160
(D) 176
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr = 64 + 32 + (4 × 16) = 64 + 32 + 64 = 160.

Q13What mass of carbon is present in 0.50 mol of carbon dioxide? (Ar of C = 12)

(A) 22 g
(B) 12 g
(C) 44 g
(D) 6 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each mole of CO2 contains 1 mol of carbon atoms, so 0.50 mol of CO2 contains 0.50 mol of carbon. Mass = 0.50 × 12 = 6 g.

Q145.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.20 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(D) 2.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of NaCl = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.100 mol. Volume = 500 cm^3 = 0.500 dm^3. Concentration = 0.100 / 0.500 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.

Q15What volume is occupied by 2.0 mol of any gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 24 dm^3
(B) 48 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Volume = moles × molar gas volume = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q16A compound contains 2.4 g of carbon combined with 0.4 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH
(B) CH4
(C) CH2
(D) C2H4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles: C = 2.4/12 = 0.20; H = 0.4/1 = 0.40. The ratio is 0.20 : 0.40 = 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CH2. (C2H4 has the same ratio but is not the simplest whole-number formula.)

Q17Calcium carbonate reacts with excess hydrochloric acid to form carbon dioxide. What mass of calcium carbonate is needed to produce 0.050 mol of carbon dioxide? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 2.5 g
(B) 10 g
(C) 50 g
(D) 5.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

From the equation CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2, 1 mol of CaCO3 produces 1 mol of CO2, so 0.050 mol of CaCO3 is needed. Mass = 0.050 × 100 = 5.0 g.

Q18A 10.0 g sample of a chemical contains 9.0 g of the pure substance. What is the percentage purity of the sample?

(A) 90%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 99%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage purity = (mass of pure substance / mass of sample) × 100 = (9.0 / 10.0) × 100 = 90%.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the anode (positive electrode)?

(A) lead
(B) bromine
(C) hydrogen
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bromide ions, Br-, move to the anode where they lose electrons and form bromine. Lead is formed at the cathode, where Pb^2+ ions gain electrons.

Q20During electrolysis, negative ions lose electrons at the anode (positive electrode). This loss of electrons is

(A) reduction
(B) neutralisation
(C) oxidation
(D) displacement
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Oxidation is the loss of electrons (OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss). At the anode, negative ions such as Br- lose electrons, for example 2Br- → Br2 + 2e-, so they are oxidised.

Q21Four simple cells are made using the pairs of metals below, each with the same electrolyte. Which pair of metals gives the largest voltage?

(A) zinc and copper
(B) iron and copper
(C) copper and silver
(D) magnesium and copper
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The voltage of a simple cell is larger when the two metals are further apart in the reactivity series. Magnesium and copper are the furthest apart of these pairs, so they give the largest voltage.

Q22Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using carbon electrodes. What is observed at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) A pink-brown coating forms
(B) Bubbles of oxygen form
(C) The blue colour of the solution becomes darker
(D) Bubbles of hydrogen form
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper ions are discharged at the cathode and coat it with a pink-brown layer of copper metal. Oxygen is formed at the anode, and the blue colour slowly fades as copper ions are removed.

Q23Which electrolyte gives hydrogen at the cathode when it is electrolysed using inert electrodes?

(A) concentrated aqueous copper(II) sulfate
(B) aqueous sodium hydroxide
(C) molten sodium chloride
(D) aqueous copper(II) chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sodium is above hydrogen in the reactivity series, so in aqueous sodium hydroxide the hydrogen ions (from water) are discharged at the cathode instead, forming hydrogen. Copper is discharged from both copper electrolytes, and molten sodium chloride gives sodium.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which reaction is endothermic?

(A) neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(B) combustion of hydrogen
(C) thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(D) burning of magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2) needs continuous heating and takes in energy, so it is endothermic. Combustion and neutralisation are exothermic.

Q25Use bond energies to calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3. Bond energies: N≡N = 945, H-H = 436, N-H = 391 kJ/mol.

(A) +93 kJ/mol
(B) +46 kJ/mol
(C) -46 kJ/mol
(D) -93 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy needed to break bonds = 945 + (3 × 436) = 2253 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ (each NH3 has 3 N-H bonds). ΔH = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol.

Q26Which statement explains why a reaction is exothermic?

(A) Less energy is needed to break the bonds in the reactants than is released when the bonds in the products form
(B) More energy is needed to break the bonds in the reactants than is released when the bonds in the products form
(C) The energy needed to break bonds is exactly equal to the energy released when bonds form
(D) No bonds are broken during the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Breaking bonds takes in energy and forming bonds releases energy. If less energy is absorbed in breaking bonds than is released in forming them, the extra energy is transferred to the surroundings and the reaction is exothermic.

Q27Which is an advantage of using hydrogen in a fuel cell rather than burning petrol in a car engine?

(A) Hydrogen is easy to store
(B) Water is the only product
(C) Hydrogen is obtained from the air
(D) Hydrogen does not need oxygen to react
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form only water, so no carbon dioxide or other pollutants are produced. Hydrogen is actually difficult to store.

Q28An acid reacts with an alkali in a polystyrene cup. The temperature of 50 g of the solution rises by 15°C. How much energy is released? (c = 4.2 J/g/°C)

(A) 1.05 kJ
(B) 6.30 kJ
(C) 3.15 kJ
(D) 31.5 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy = mass × c × temperature rise = 50 × 4.2 × 15 = 3150 J = 3.15 kJ.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Which change does NOT increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

(A) increasing the temperature
(B) increasing the concentration of a reactant
(C) adding a catalyst
(D) changing the colour of a reactant
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rate depends on temperature, concentration (or pressure for gases), surface area and catalysts. The colour of a reactant has no effect on the frequency or energy of collisions.

Q30Manganese(IV) oxide is added to hydrogen peroxide and the rate at which oxygen is produced increases. The manganese(IV) oxide is acting as a

(A) catalyst
(B) reactant
(C) product
(D) solvent
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Manganese(IV) oxide speeds up the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide (2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2) and is unchanged at the end, so it is a catalyst.

Q31Which conditions are used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia?

(A) 25°C, 1 atm, no catalyst
(B) 450°C, 200 atm, iron catalyst
(C) 850°C, 200 atm, vanadium(V) oxide catalyst
(D) 100°C, 1000 atm, nickel catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The Haber process uses a temperature of about 450°C, a pressure of about 200 atm and an iron catalyst. These are compromise conditions giving an acceptable yield at an acceptable rate.

Q32In the reaction CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O, which substance is the reducing agent?

(A) CuO
(B) Cu
(C) H2
(D) H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen removes oxygen from copper(II) oxide, so hydrogen is the reducing agent. The hydrogen itself is oxidised to water, and the copper(II) oxide is the oxidising agent.

Q33A reversible reaction in a closed system reaches dynamic equilibrium. Which statement is correct?

(A) The concentrations of reactants and products are equal
(B) The reaction has stopped
(C) Only the forward reaction takes place
(D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At equilibrium both reactions continue at the same rate, so there is no overall change. The concentrations stay constant but are not necessarily equal.

Q34A reaction produces 100 cm^3 of gas in 40 s. What is the average rate of the reaction?

(A) 2.5 cm^3/s
(B) 0.4 cm^3/s
(C) 25 cm^3/s
(D) 4.0 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Average rate = volume of gas / time = 100 / 40 = 2.5 cm^3/s.

Q35Why does increasing the concentration of a reactant increase the rate of reaction?

(A) The particles move faster
(B) There are more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent
(C) The activation energy is lowered
(D) The particles become larger
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A higher concentration means more particles packed into the same volume, so they collide more frequently and the reaction is faster. Concentration does not change particle speed or activation energy.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which oxide is amphoteric?

(A) sodium oxide
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) zinc oxide
(D) sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc oxide is amphoteric: it reacts with both acids and alkalis to form salts. Sodium oxide is basic, and carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide are acidic oxides.

Q37A solution has a pH of 9. Which description is correct?

(A) strongly acidic
(B) neutral
(C) strongly alkaline
(D) weakly alkaline
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

pH 9 is just above the neutral value of 7, so the solution is a weak alkali (a weak alkaline solution). Strong alkalis have a pH of about 13-14.

Q38Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt. Which method is used to prepare a pure sample of lead(II) sulfate?

(A) Mix lead(II) nitrate solution with sodium sulfate solution, then filter, wash and dry the precipitate
(B) Titrate lead(II) oxide with sulfuric acid using an indicator
(C) Add excess lead metal to dilute sulfuric acid and filter off the solid formed
(D) Electrolyse a solution of lead(II) sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Insoluble salts are made by precipitation: two soluble salts are mixed, the insoluble salt forms as a precipitate, and it is filtered off, washed with distilled water and dried. (Method C fails because the insoluble lead(II) sulfate coats the lead and stops the reaction.)

Q39Excess aqueous ammonia is added to aqueous copper(II) sulfate. What is observed?

(A) A white precipitate forms
(B) A deep blue solution forms
(C) A green precipitate forms and remains
(D) Effervescence occurs
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A pale blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide forms first, but it dissolves in excess aqueous ammonia to give a deep blue solution. This is a test for copper(II) ions.

Q40Which ion is present in all acid solutions and is responsible for their acidic properties?

(A) OH-
(B) Cl-
(C) H+
(D) Na+
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acids produce hydrogen ions, H+(aq), when dissolved in water. It is these ions that make the solution acidic, whatever the particular acid is.

Q41Which test identifies chloride ions in a solution?

(A) Add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(B) Add limewater; it turns milky
(C) Warm with sodium hydroxide solution; ammonia gas is given off
(D) Add dilute nitric acid followed by silver nitrate solution; a white precipitate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Silver ions react with chloride ions to form a white precipitate of silver chloride; the nitric acid removes ions such as carbonate that could interfere. (Test A identifies sulfate ions instead.)

Q42Which salt is prepared by the titration method, using an indicator?

(A) sodium sulfate
(B) barium sulfate
(C) lead(II) chloride
(D) calcium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sodium sulfate is a soluble salt of a reactive metal, so it is made by titrating aqueous sodium hydroxide with dilute sulfuric acid using an indicator. Barium sulfate and lead(II) chloride are insoluble (made by precipitation), and calcium carbonate is not made in solution.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43Which statement about the Group VII elements (the halogens) is correct?

(A) Their reactivity increases down the group
(B) Their reactivity decreases down the group
(C) They are all gases at room temperature
(D) They form ions with a 2- charge
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Halogen reactivity decreases down the group: fluorine is the most reactive and iodine the least, because the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and an extra electron is gained less easily. They form 1- ions, and bromine is a liquid at room temperature.

Q44Bromine water is added to aqueous potassium iodide. A reaction occurs because

(A) iodine is more reactive than bromine
(B) potassium is more reactive than bromine
(C) bromine is more reactive than iodine and displaces it from its compound
(D) bromine is less reactive than iodine
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A more reactive halogen displaces a less reactive halogen from a solution of its halide: Br2 + 2KI → 2KBr + I2. The solution turns brown as iodine is formed.

Q45An element in Period 3 has the electronic configuration 2,8,2. What is the element?

(A) sodium
(B) silicon
(C) aluminium
(D) magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The atom has 12 electrons, so 12 protons: magnesium. (Sodium is 2,8,1; aluminium is 2,8,3; silicon is 2,8,4.)

Q46Which property is typical of transition elements but NOT of the Group I metals?

(A) They act as catalysts
(B) They conduct electricity
(C) They are soft and can be cut with a knife
(D) They have low densities
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Transition elements and their compounds are often used as catalysts (for example iron in the Haber process), which Group I metals are not. Both groups conduct electricity, but Group I metals are the soft, low-density ones.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which metal is extracted from the ore bauxite?

(A) iron
(B) aluminium
(C) zinc
(D) copper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bauxite is purified aluminium oxide, the ore from which aluminium is extracted by electrolysis. Iron is extracted from haematite.

Q48Why is aluminium used to make aircraft bodies?

(A) It is the most reactive metal
(B) It is cheaper than iron
(C) It has a low density and does not corrode easily
(D) It is magnetic
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium (usually as an alloy) is light because of its low density, and its surface forms a protective oxide layer so it resists corrosion. Both properties are essential for aircraft.

Q49A metal does not react with cold water but reacts with steam. Its oxide can be reduced by heating it with carbon. What is the metal?

(A) sodium
(B) copper
(C) magnesium
(D) iron
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Iron reacts with steam but not with cold water, and iron(III) oxide is reduced by carbon in the blast furnace. Sodium reacts violently with cold water, copper does not react with steam, and magnesium oxide cannot be reduced by carbon.

Q50Stainless steel is used to make cutlery because it

(A) resists corrosion
(B) is softer than pure iron
(C) does not contain iron
(D) is cheaper than iron
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with chromium (and often nickel). It is hard and, unlike iron, does not rust, so it stays clean and shiny for cutlery.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Which gas makes up approximately 21% of clean, dry air?

(A) nitrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Clean, dry air contains about 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen, with about 1% argon and only about 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q52Which gas is the main cause of acid rain?

(A) carbon monoxide
(B) methane
(C) sulfur dioxide
(D) carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide, released when fossil fuels containing sulfur are burned, dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain. (Oxides of nitrogen also contribute; carbon dioxide makes rainwater only very weakly acidic naturally.)

Q53NPK fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and one other element needed for healthy plant growth. Which element?

(A) calcium
(B) sulfur
(C) magnesium
(D) potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The K in NPK stands for potassium. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are the three elements that fertilisers must replace in the soil for healthy plant growth.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the molecular formula of butane?

(A) C4H10
(B) C4H8
(C) C3H8
(D) C5H12
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Butane is the alkane with 4 carbon atoms. Using CnH2n+2 with n = 4 gives C4H10. C3H8 is propane and C5H12 is pentane.

Q55Which statement about alkenes is correct?

(A) Their general formula is CnH2n+2
(B) They contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond
(C) They are saturated hydrocarbons
(D) They do not react with bromine water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a C=C double bond, with general formula CnH2n. The double bond makes them reactive; they decolourise bromine water by addition.

Q56Ethanol is manufactured by the fermentation of glucose. Which conditions are needed?

(A) yeast, 300°C and high pressure
(B) phosphoric acid catalyst, 300°C
(C) yeast, about 35°C, in the absence of air
(D) yeast, 100°C, in the presence of air
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast at about 30-35°C under anaerobic conditions (no air): C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2. Conditions B describe the hydration of ethene instead.

Q57Chloroethene is polymerised to make a plastic used for window frames and pipes. What is the name of this polymer?

(A) poly(ethene)
(B) nylon
(C) Terylene
(D) poly(chloroethene)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Addition polymerisation of chloroethene monomers gives poly(chloroethene), commonly called PVC, a hard, waterproof plastic used for pipes and window frames.

Q58What is the name of the compound with the formula CH3COOH?

(A) ethanoic acid
(B) ethanol
(C) ethyl ethanoate
(D) methanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

CH3COOH is ethanoic acid, the carboxylic acid found in vinegar. (Methanoic acid is HCOOH; ethyl ethanoate is an ester, CH3COOCH2CH3.)

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which piece of apparatus is used to deliver exactly 25.0 cm^3 of a solution in a titration?

(A) measuring cylinder
(B) pipette
(C) beaker
(D) conical flask
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A pipette delivers one fixed, accurate volume of a solution (for example 25.0 cm^3). A measuring cylinder is much less accurate, and the conical flask is the vessel the solution is delivered into.

Q60Which test identifies carbon dioxide gas?

(A) It relights a glowing splint
(B) It gives a 'pop' sound with a lighted splint
(C) It bleaches damp litmus paper
(D) It turns limewater milky
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon dioxide turns limewater (calcium hydroxide solution) milky or cloudy, which is the standard test for the gas. Relighting a glowing splint tests for oxygen, the 'pop' tests for hydrogen, and bleaching is a test for chlorine.