IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 10

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Solid iodine is heated and changes directly into a purple vapour without melting. What is this change called?

(A) evaporation
(B) condensation
(C) sublimation
(D) diffusion
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sublimation is the change of state in which a solid changes directly into a gas without becoming a liquid.

Q2A liquid is heated and its temperature is recorded. The temperature stops rising while the liquid is boiling. Why?

(A) The thermometer is faulty.
(B) All the energy supplied is used to separate the particles, not to raise the temperature.
(C) The particles stop moving.
(D) The liquid has all evaporated.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

During boiling, the energy supplied is used to break the forces holding the liquid particles together, so the temperature stays constant until all the liquid has changed to gas.

Q3A gas in a sealed container is compressed into a smaller volume at constant temperature. Why does the pressure increase?

(A) The particles collide with the container walls more frequently.
(B) The particles move faster.
(C) The particles get bigger.
(D) The number of particles increases.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Compressing the gas makes the particles closer together, so they hit the walls more often, increasing the pressure. At constant temperature their speed does not change.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An oxygen atom contains 8 protons and 8 neutrons. What are its proton number and mass (nucleon) number?

(A) proton number 8, mass number 8
(B) proton number 16, mass number 8
(C) proton number 8, mass number 16
(D) proton number 16, mass number 16
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The proton number is 8. The mass number = protons + neutrons = 8 + 8 = 16.

Q5A chlorine atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,7. To which group of the Periodic Table does chlorine belong?

(A) Group I
(B) Group II
(C) Group VII
(D) Group VIII
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell. Chlorine has 7 outer electrons, so it is in Group VII.

Q6A sodium atom (electronic configuration 2,8,1) forms a sodium ion. What is the electronic configuration of the Na^+ ion?

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,8,1
(C) 2,8,2
(D) 2,7
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The sodium atom loses its single outer electron to form Na^+, leaving the configuration 2,8.

Q7Sodium chloride has a very high melting point. Why?

(A) It contains weak intermolecular forces.
(B) It is made of small molecules.
(C) The ions are free to move in the solid.
(D) A large amount of energy is needed to break the strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions in the giant lattice.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In the giant ionic lattice every ion is strongly attracted to oppositely charged ions around it, so a lot of energy is needed to melt the solid.

Q8Simple molecular substances such as iodine have low melting points. Why?

(A) The covalent bonds inside the molecules are weak.
(B) Only the weak forces between the molecules need to be overcome to melt the solid; the covalent bonds stay intact.
(C) The molecules have no forces between them.
(D) They contain delocalised electrons.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Melting a simple molecular solid only overcomes the weak intermolecular forces; the strong covalent bonds within each molecule are not broken.

Q9Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. Why?

(A) Each carbon atom forms only three bonds, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can move through the structure.
(B) Its layers can slide over each other.
(C) It contains metal ions.
(D) It is soft and slippery.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In graphite each carbon atom bonds to three others, so one electron per atom is delocalised and free to carry charge along the layers.

Q10Magnesium forms ions with a charge of 2+ and chlorine forms ions with a charge of 1-. What is the formula of magnesium chloride?

(A) MgCl
(B) MgCl2
(C) Mg2Cl
(D) Mg2Cl2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Two chloride ions (total charge 2-) are needed to balance one Mg^2+ ion, giving the formula MgCl2.

Q11What is a covalent bond?

(A) The transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
(B) A sea of delocalised electrons.
(C) The attraction between oppositely charged ions.
(D) A shared pair of electrons between two atoms.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A covalent bond consists of a pair of electrons shared between two atoms, usually non-metals.

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12How many moles are there in 4.0 g of sodium hydroxide? (Mr of NaOH = 40)

(A) 0.1 mol
(B) 0.01 mol
(C) 1.0 mol
(D) 10 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 4.0 / 40 = 0.1 mol.

Q13What is the volume of 2.0 mol of oxygen gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 48 dm^3
(D) 44.8 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q14A solution contains 0.50 mol of hydrochloric acid in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?

(A) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(B) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.20 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q15Methane burns completely: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. What volume of oxygen is needed to burn 10 cm^3 of methane completely?

(A) 5 cm^3
(B) 10 cm^3
(C) 40 cm^3
(D) 20 cm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The equation shows 1 volume of methane reacts with 2 volumes of oxygen, so 10 cm^3 of methane needs 20 cm^3 of oxygen.

Q16A compound has the empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 42. What is its molecular formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)

(A) CH2
(B) C2H4
(C) C3H6
(D) C6H12
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The empirical formula mass is 12 + 2 = 14. 42 / 14 = 3, so the molecular formula is 3 × CH2 = C3H6.

Q17A 10.0 g sample of limestone is found to contain 9.0 g of pure calcium carbonate. What is the percentage purity of the sample?

(A) 9%
(B) 81%
(C) 90%
(D) 111%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage purity = (mass of pure substance / mass of sample) × 100 = (9.0 / 10.0) × 100 = 90%.

Q18What is the mass of 0.25 mol of calcium carbonate? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 25 g
(B) 40 g
(C) 100 g
(D) 400 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mass = moles × Mr = 0.25 × 100 = 25 g.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Aluminium is extracted from molten aluminium oxide by electrolysis. What is formed at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) oxygen
(B) hydrogen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) aluminium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium ions, Al^3+, are positive and move to the negative cathode, where they gain electrons and form aluminium metal.

Q20Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed with inert electrodes. Which gas is formed at the cathode?

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) sulfur dioxide
(D) steam
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to form hydrogen gas; oxygen is formed at the anode.

Q21During electrolysis, negative ions (anions) move towards

(A) the anode, because it is positive.
(B) the cathode, because it is negative.
(C) the cathode, because it is positive.
(D) neither electrode.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Opposite charges attract: negative anions move to the positive electrode, which is called the anode.

Q22A steel key is to be electroplated with copper. At which electrode must the key be placed, and what must the electrolyte contain?

(A) anode; copper ions
(B) cathode; copper ions
(C) anode; steel ions
(D) cathode; sulfate ions only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The object to be plated is connected as the cathode (negative), and the electrolyte must contain ions of the plating metal, here Cu^2+ ions.

Q23Why is aluminium extracted by electrolysis rather than by heating its ore with carbon?

(A) Aluminium oxide has a low melting point.
(B) Aluminium is too reactive; it is above carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon cannot reduce its oxide.
(C) Aluminium does not react with oxygen.
(D) Electrolysis is cheaper than using carbon for all metals.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metals more reactive than carbon, such as aluminium, cannot be extracted by reduction with carbon, so electrolysis of the molten ore is used.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24When ammonium nitrate dissolves in water, the temperature of the water decreases. What does this show about the process?

(A) It is exothermic.
(B) Energy is created by the solid.
(C) No energy change occurs.
(D) It is endothermic, because energy is taken in from the water.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A fall in temperature means energy has been absorbed from the surroundings (the water), so the process is endothermic.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr. (Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366)

(A) +103 kJ/mol
(B) -103 kJ/mol
(C) -629 kJ/mol
(D) -366 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. ΔH = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.

Q26Which reaction is exothermic?

(A) thermal decomposition of limestone
(B) photosynthesis
(C) combustion of petrol
(D) dissolving ammonium nitrate in water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Combustion releases energy to the surroundings and is exothermic. Decomposition of limestone, photosynthesis and dissolving ammonium nitrate are endothermic.

Q27In an energy level diagram for an exothermic reaction, which statement is correct?

(A) The products have less energy than the reactants, and ΔH is negative.
(B) The products have more energy than the reactants.
(C) The products and reactants have the same energy.
(D) ΔH is positive.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In an exothermic reaction energy is released, so the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants and ΔH is negative.

Q28Which statement about hydrogen fuel cells is correct?

(A) They produce carbon dioxide as the only waste product.
(B) They convert chemical energy directly into electrical energy, forming water.
(C) They need to be recharged with electricity after use.
(D) They burn hydrogen in an engine to turn a turbine.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A fuel cell reacts hydrogen with oxygen to form water and converts the chemical energy directly into electricity; it is not a combustion engine and is not recharged.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Powdered marble reacts faster with dilute hydrochloric acid than the same mass of marble chips. Why?

(A) The powder has a smaller surface area.
(B) The powder lowers the activation energy.
(C) The powder is more concentrated.
(D) The powder has a larger surface area, so there are more collisions between the acid particles and the marble per second.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Powder exposes a much larger surface area than chips, so collisions occur more frequently and the rate increases.

Q30The reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid produces hydrogen gas. Which method is suitable for measuring the rate of this reaction?

(A) Timing how long the magnesium ribbon appears to be.
(B) Collecting the gas in a gas syringe and recording its volume at regular time intervals.
(C) Weighing the magnesium before the reaction only.
(D) Observing the colour change of the acid.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Recording the volume of hydrogen produced at regular intervals allows the rate to be calculated; the reaction has no colour change to observe.

Q31Which statement describes a system that has reached equilibrium in a reversible reaction in a closed container?

(A) The forward and reverse reactions continue at the same rate, so the concentrations stay constant.
(B) The concentrations of reactants and products are always equal.
(C) The forward reaction has stopped.
(D) All the reactants have been used up.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At equilibrium both reactions still occur but at equal rates, so the amounts of reactants and products no longer change.

Q32In the Haber process, an iron catalyst is used and the temperature is about 450°C. Why is a temperature of 450°C chosen?

(A) It gives the highest possible yield of ammonia.
(B) It is a compromise: low temperatures give a better yield but a very slow rate, so 450°C gives an acceptable yield at a reasonable rate.
(C) The catalyst only works at exactly 450°C.
(D) Ammonia decomposes completely below 450°C.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The forward reaction is exothermic, so lower temperatures favour yield but slow the rate too much; 450°C is a compromise between rate and yield.

Q33Copper(II) oxide reacts with hydrogen: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O. Which substance is reduced, and why?

(A) Hydrogen, because it gains oxygen.
(B) Copper, because it loses electrons.
(C) Water, because it gains hydrogen.
(D) Copper(II) oxide, because it loses oxygen.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Reduction is the loss of oxygen (or gain of electrons). CuO loses oxygen to form copper, while hydrogen is oxidised.

Q34A catalyst is added to a reversible reaction that has reached equilibrium. What happens to the position of equilibrium and the rates of the reactions?

(A) The equilibrium shifts to the right.
(B) The equilibrium shifts to the left.
(C) The position of equilibrium does not change, but both the forward and reverse reactions speed up equally.
(D) Both reactions stop.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position is unchanged.

Q35The pressure on a gas reaction mixture is increased (at constant temperature). Why does the rate of reaction increase?

(A) The particles have more energy.
(B) The particles are closer together and collide more frequently.
(C) The activation energy decreases.
(D) More particles are produced.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Increasing the pressure squashes the gas particles into a smaller volume, increasing their concentration and the frequency of collisions.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36An acid reacts with an alkali in a neutralisation reaction. Which products are always formed?

(A) a salt and water
(B) a salt and hydrogen
(C) a salt, water and carbon dioxide
(D) a salt and oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Acid + alkali → salt + water. This is the defining neutralisation reaction.

Q37Barium sulfate is an insoluble salt. How can a pure sample of barium sulfate be prepared?

(A) React barium metal with sulfuric acid and evaporate.
(B) Titrate barium hydroxide solution with sulfuric acid.
(C) Add excess barium carbonate to sulfuric acid and crystallise the solution.
(D) Mix aqueous barium chloride with aqueous sodium sulfate, filter the precipitate, wash it with distilled water and dry it.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Insoluble salts are made by precipitation: mix two solutions containing the required ions, then filter, wash and dry the precipitate.

Q38Which test identifies nitrate ions in a solution?

(A) Add sodium hydroxide solution and aluminium foil, warm; the ammonia gas given off turns damp red litmus paper blue.
(B) Add barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms.
(C) Add silver nitrate solution; a cream precipitate forms.
(D) Add limewater; it turns milky.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nitrate ions are reduced by aluminium in alkaline solution to ammonia, which is an alkaline gas and turns damp red litmus blue.

Q39Which oxide is acidic?

(A) calcium oxide
(B) copper(II) oxide
(C) sulfur dioxide
(D) sodium oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic; it reacts with alkalis. The other three are basic metal oxides.

Q40A solution is tested with Universal Indicator and turns purple. What does this show?

(A) The solution is a strong acid.
(B) The solution is weakly acidic.
(C) The solution is neutral.
(D) The solution is a strong alkali.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Universal Indicator turns purple only in strongly alkaline solutions (about pH 14); strong acids turn it red and neutral solutions turn it green.

Q41The fertiliser ammonium sulfate is made by reacting ammonia with which acid?

(A) hydrochloric acid
(B) nitric acid
(C) sulfuric acid
(D) ethanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ammonia + sulfuric acid → ammonium sulfate. (Ammonia with nitric acid gives ammonium nitrate; with hydrochloric acid it gives ammonium chloride.)

Q42Magnesium ribbon is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. What is observed, and how is the gas tested?

(A) No reaction occurs.
(B) The gas turns limewater milky.
(C) A blue solution forms.
(D) Effervescence; the gas pops with a lighted splint, showing it is hydrogen.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Magnesium reacts with the acid to form magnesium chloride and hydrogen. Hydrogen is identified by the squeaky pop with a lighted splint.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43Chlorine, bromine and iodine are Group VII elements. How do their states at room temperature change down the group?

(A) gas, gas, gas
(B) liquid, gas, solid
(C) gas, liquid, solid
(D) solid, liquid, gas
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Down Group VII the melting and boiling points increase: chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid and iodine is a solid at room temperature.

Q44Which reaction will occur?

(A) Bromine added to aqueous potassium iodide gives iodine.
(B) Iodine added to aqueous potassium chloride gives chlorine.
(C) Chlorine added to aqueous potassium fluoride gives fluorine.
(D) Iodine added to aqueous potassium bromide gives bromine.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A more reactive halogen displaces a less reactive one. Bromine is more reactive than iodine, so bromine displaces iodine from potassium iodide. Iodine cannot displace chlorine or bromine, and chlorine cannot displace fluorine.

Q45Iron is used as a catalyst in the Haber process and vanadium(V) oxide in the Contact process. Metals used as industrial catalysts in this way are usually

(A) Group I metals.
(B) transition elements.
(C) noble gases.
(D) Group II metals.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Transition elements and their compounds commonly act as catalysts; iron and vanadium(V) oxide are both from the transition block.

Q46Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have similar chemical properties. Why?

(A) They have the same number of electron shells.
(B) They are all metals.
(C) They have the same mass number.
(D) They have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chemical properties are controlled by the outer-shell electrons; elements in a group have the same number of these, so they react in similar ways.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Four metals are listed. Which is the most reactive?

(A) copper
(B) zinc
(C) iron
(D) magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In the reactivity series magnesium is above zinc, iron and copper, so it is the most reactive of the four.

Q48Zinc is added to aqueous copper(II) sulfate. What is observed?

(A) No change.
(B) The blue colour of the solution fades and a brown/pink deposit of copper forms.
(C) Hydrogen gas is given off.
(D) The solution turns green.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. The blue colour fades as Cu^2+ ions leave the solution.

Q49Aluminium is used to make aircraft bodies. Which properties make it suitable?

(A) It is very dense and strong.
(B) It has a low density and resists corrosion because of its protective oxide layer.
(C) It is a good conductor of heat only.
(D) It is unreactive and has a high density.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Aluminium is light (low density) for its strength and its surface forms a protective oxide layer that prevents further corrosion, ideal for aircraft.

Q50Stainless steel does not rust easily. What is stainless steel?

(A) An alloy of iron with chromium (and often nickel).
(B) Pure iron coated with paint.
(C) Iron coated with zinc.
(D) An alloy of iron and copper.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with chromium (and nickel); the chromium forms a protective layer so the steel resists rusting. Iron coated with zinc is galvanised steel.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Chlorine is used in water treatment. What is the purpose of the filtration stage that comes before chlorination?

(A) To kill bacteria.
(B) To remove the chlorine afterwards.
(C) To add minerals to the water.
(D) To remove insoluble solid particles from the water.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Filtration (through sand and gravel beds) removes insoluble solids; chlorine is then added to kill microorganisms.

Q52What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in clean, dry air?

(A) 1%
(B) 21%
(C) 78%
(D) 0.04%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Clean dry air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and about 1% other gases including argon and carbon dioxide (about 0.04%).

Q53Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

(A) combustion of fossil fuels
(B) respiration
(C) photosynthesis in green plants
(D) thermal decomposition of limestone
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide from the air to make glucose. Combustion, respiration and limestone decomposition all release carbon dioxide.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn+2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing one C=C bond, with the general formula CnH2n.

Q55Large hydrocarbon molecules from crude oil are cracked. Which statement about cracking is correct?

(A) It breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter alkanes and alkenes, using a high temperature and a catalyst.
(B) It joins small molecules together to make polymers.
(C) It is carried out at room temperature without a catalyst.
(D) It separates hydrocarbons by their boiling points.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cracking breaks down long-chain alkanes into more useful short-chain alkanes and alkenes; it needs a high temperature and a catalyst such as aluminium oxide. Separation by boiling point is fractional distillation.

Q56Ethanol left in contact with air turns sour because it is oxidised to

(A) ethene.
(B) ethanoic acid.
(C) ethyl ethanoate.
(D) carbon dioxide and water only.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Microorganisms in the air oxidise ethanol to ethanoic acid (the acid in vinegar), which tastes sour.

Q57Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol to form an ester. What are the products?

(A) ethyl ethanoate and water
(B) ethane and carbon dioxide
(C) ethyl ethanoate and hydrogen
(D) ethanol and ethanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carboxylic acid + alcohol → ester + water. Ethanoic acid + ethanol → ethyl ethanoate + water.

Q58Terylene (PET) is a polyester made by condensation polymerisation. In condensation polymerisation, the monomers join together with the elimination of

(A) hydrogen molecules.
(B) oxygen molecules.
(C) a small molecule such as water.
(D) carbon dioxide only.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In condensation polymerisation each new bond formed eliminates a small molecule, usually water; this is how polyesters such as Terylene are made.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59A student adds dilute hydrochloric acid to a solid and the gas given off turns limewater milky. Which ion is present in the solid?

(A) sulfate
(B) nitrate
(C) chloride
(D) carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbonates react with acids to give carbon dioxide, which turns limewater milky. This is the standard test for a carbonate.

Q60A coloured spot is separated by paper chromatography. The solvent front moves 8.0 cm and the spot moves 6.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot, and what does a pure substance give in this experiment?

(A) Rf = 1.33; a pure substance gives several spots.
(B) Rf = 6.0; a pure substance gives two spots.
(C) Rf = 0.75; a pure substance gives no spot.
(D) Rf = 0.75; a pure substance gives only one spot.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rf = 6.0 / 8.0 = 0.75. A pure substance produces a single spot in any given solvent, while a mixture gives two or more spots.