IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 10
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Solid iodine is heated and changes directly into a purple vapour without melting. What is this change called?
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Correct: (C)
Sublimation is the change of state in which a solid changes directly into a gas without becoming a liquid.
Q2A liquid is heated and its temperature is recorded. The temperature stops rising while the liquid is boiling. Why?
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Correct: (B)
During boiling, the energy supplied is used to break the forces holding the liquid particles together, so the temperature stays constant until all the liquid has changed to gas.
Q3A gas in a sealed container is compressed into a smaller volume at constant temperature. Why does the pressure increase?
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Correct: (A)
Compressing the gas makes the particles closer together, so they hit the walls more often, increasing the pressure. At constant temperature their speed does not change.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An oxygen atom contains 8 protons and 8 neutrons. What are its proton number and mass (nucleon) number?
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Correct: (C)
The proton number is 8. The mass number = protons + neutrons = 8 + 8 = 16.
Q5A chlorine atom has the electronic configuration 2,8,7. To which group of the Periodic Table does chlorine belong?
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Correct: (C)
The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell. Chlorine has 7 outer electrons, so it is in Group VII.
Q6A sodium atom (electronic configuration 2,8,1) forms a sodium ion. What is the electronic configuration of the Na^+ ion?
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Correct: (A)
The sodium atom loses its single outer electron to form Na^+, leaving the configuration 2,8.
Q7Sodium chloride has a very high melting point. Why?
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Correct: (D)
In the giant ionic lattice every ion is strongly attracted to oppositely charged ions around it, so a lot of energy is needed to melt the solid.
Q8Simple molecular substances such as iodine have low melting points. Why?
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Correct: (B)
Melting a simple molecular solid only overcomes the weak intermolecular forces; the strong covalent bonds within each molecule are not broken.
Q9Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. Why?
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Correct: (A)
In graphite each carbon atom bonds to three others, so one electron per atom is delocalised and free to carry charge along the layers.
Q10Magnesium forms ions with a charge of 2+ and chlorine forms ions with a charge of 1-. What is the formula of magnesium chloride?
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Correct: (B)
Two chloride ions (total charge 2-) are needed to balance one Mg^2+ ion, giving the formula MgCl2.
Q11What is a covalent bond?
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Correct: (D)
A covalent bond consists of a pair of electrons shared between two atoms, usually non-metals.
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12How many moles are there in 4.0 g of sodium hydroxide? (Mr of NaOH = 40)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 4.0 / 40 = 0.1 mol.
Q13What is the volume of 2.0 mol of oxygen gas at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (C)
Volume = moles × 24 dm^3 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.
Q14A solution contains 0.50 mol of hydrochloric acid in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?
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Correct: (C)
Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.
Q15Methane burns completely: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. What volume of oxygen is needed to burn 10 cm^3 of methane completely?
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Correct: (D)
The equation shows 1 volume of methane reacts with 2 volumes of oxygen, so 10 cm^3 of methane needs 20 cm^3 of oxygen.
Q16A compound has the empirical formula CH2 and a relative molecular mass of 42. What is its molecular formula? (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
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Correct: (C)
The empirical formula mass is 12 + 2 = 14. 42 / 14 = 3, so the molecular formula is 3 × CH2 = C3H6.
Q17A 10.0 g sample of limestone is found to contain 9.0 g of pure calcium carbonate. What is the percentage purity of the sample?
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Correct: (C)
Percentage purity = (mass of pure substance / mass of sample) × 100 = (9.0 / 10.0) × 100 = 90%.
Q18What is the mass of 0.25 mol of calcium carbonate? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)
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Correct: (A)
Mass = moles × Mr = 0.25 × 100 = 25 g.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Aluminium is extracted from molten aluminium oxide by electrolysis. What is formed at the cathode (negative electrode)?
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Correct: (D)
Aluminium ions, Al^3+, are positive and move to the negative cathode, where they gain electrons and form aluminium metal.
Q20Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed with inert electrodes. Which gas is formed at the cathode?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to form hydrogen gas; oxygen is formed at the anode.
Q21During electrolysis, negative ions (anions) move towards
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Correct: (A)
Opposite charges attract: negative anions move to the positive electrode, which is called the anode.
Q22A steel key is to be electroplated with copper. At which electrode must the key be placed, and what must the electrolyte contain?
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Correct: (B)
The object to be plated is connected as the cathode (negative), and the electrolyte must contain ions of the plating metal, here Cu^2+ ions.
Q23Why is aluminium extracted by electrolysis rather than by heating its ore with carbon?
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Correct: (B)
Metals more reactive than carbon, such as aluminium, cannot be extracted by reduction with carbon, so electrolysis of the molten ore is used.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24When ammonium nitrate dissolves in water, the temperature of the water decreases. What does this show about the process?
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Correct: (D)
A fall in temperature means energy has been absorbed from the surroundings (the water), so the process is endothermic.
Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr. (Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366)
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Correct: (B)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. ΔH = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.
Q26Which reaction is exothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Combustion releases energy to the surroundings and is exothermic. Decomposition of limestone, photosynthesis and dissolving ammonium nitrate are endothermic.
Q27In an energy level diagram for an exothermic reaction, which statement is correct?
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Correct: (A)
In an exothermic reaction energy is released, so the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants and ΔH is negative.
Q28Which statement about hydrogen fuel cells is correct?
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Correct: (B)
A fuel cell reacts hydrogen with oxygen to form water and converts the chemical energy directly into electricity; it is not a combustion engine and is not recharged.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Powdered marble reacts faster with dilute hydrochloric acid than the same mass of marble chips. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Powder exposes a much larger surface area than chips, so collisions occur more frequently and the rate increases.
Q30The reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid produces hydrogen gas. Which method is suitable for measuring the rate of this reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Recording the volume of hydrogen produced at regular intervals allows the rate to be calculated; the reaction has no colour change to observe.
Q31Which statement describes a system that has reached equilibrium in a reversible reaction in a closed container?
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Correct: (A)
At equilibrium both reactions still occur but at equal rates, so the amounts of reactants and products no longer change.
Q32In the Haber process, an iron catalyst is used and the temperature is about 450°C. Why is a temperature of 450°C chosen?
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Correct: (B)
The forward reaction is exothermic, so lower temperatures favour yield but slow the rate too much; 450°C is a compromise between rate and yield.
Q33Copper(II) oxide reacts with hydrogen: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O. Which substance is reduced, and why?
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Correct: (D)
Reduction is the loss of oxygen (or gain of electrons). CuO loses oxygen to form copper, while hydrogen is oxidised.
Q34A catalyst is added to a reversible reaction that has reached equilibrium. What happens to the position of equilibrium and the rates of the reactions?
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Correct: (C)
A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position is unchanged.
Q35The pressure on a gas reaction mixture is increased (at constant temperature). Why does the rate of reaction increase?
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Correct: (B)
Increasing the pressure squashes the gas particles into a smaller volume, increasing their concentration and the frequency of collisions.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36An acid reacts with an alkali in a neutralisation reaction. Which products are always formed?
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Correct: (A)
Acid + alkali → salt + water. This is the defining neutralisation reaction.
Q37Barium sulfate is an insoluble salt. How can a pure sample of barium sulfate be prepared?
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Correct: (D)
Insoluble salts are made by precipitation: mix two solutions containing the required ions, then filter, wash and dry the precipitate.
Q38Which test identifies nitrate ions in a solution?
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Correct: (A)
Nitrate ions are reduced by aluminium in alkaline solution to ammonia, which is an alkaline gas and turns damp red litmus blue.
Q39Which oxide is acidic?
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Correct: (C)
Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic; it reacts with alkalis. The other three are basic metal oxides.
Q40A solution is tested with Universal Indicator and turns purple. What does this show?
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Correct: (D)
Universal Indicator turns purple only in strongly alkaline solutions (about pH 14); strong acids turn it red and neutral solutions turn it green.
Q41The fertiliser ammonium sulfate is made by reacting ammonia with which acid?
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Correct: (C)
Ammonia + sulfuric acid → ammonium sulfate. (Ammonia with nitric acid gives ammonium nitrate; with hydrochloric acid it gives ammonium chloride.)
Q42Magnesium ribbon is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. What is observed, and how is the gas tested?
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Correct: (D)
Magnesium reacts with the acid to form magnesium chloride and hydrogen. Hydrogen is identified by the squeaky pop with a lighted splint.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43Chlorine, bromine and iodine are Group VII elements. How do their states at room temperature change down the group?
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Correct: (C)
Down Group VII the melting and boiling points increase: chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid and iodine is a solid at room temperature.
Q44Which reaction will occur?
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Correct: (A)
A more reactive halogen displaces a less reactive one. Bromine is more reactive than iodine, so bromine displaces iodine from potassium iodide. Iodine cannot displace chlorine or bromine, and chlorine cannot displace fluorine.
Q45Iron is used as a catalyst in the Haber process and vanadium(V) oxide in the Contact process. Metals used as industrial catalysts in this way are usually
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Correct: (B)
Transition elements and their compounds commonly act as catalysts; iron and vanadium(V) oxide are both from the transition block.
Q46Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have similar chemical properties. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Chemical properties are controlled by the outer-shell electrons; elements in a group have the same number of these, so they react in similar ways.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Four metals are listed. Which is the most reactive?
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Correct: (D)
In the reactivity series magnesium is above zinc, iron and copper, so it is the most reactive of the four.
Q48Zinc is added to aqueous copper(II) sulfate. What is observed?
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Correct: (B)
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu. The blue colour fades as Cu^2+ ions leave the solution.
Q49Aluminium is used to make aircraft bodies. Which properties make it suitable?
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Correct: (B)
Aluminium is light (low density) for its strength and its surface forms a protective oxide layer that prevents further corrosion, ideal for aircraft.
Q50Stainless steel does not rust easily. What is stainless steel?
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Correct: (A)
Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with chromium (and nickel); the chromium forms a protective layer so the steel resists rusting. Iron coated with zinc is galvanised steel.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Chlorine is used in water treatment. What is the purpose of the filtration stage that comes before chlorination?
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Correct: (D)
Filtration (through sand and gravel beds) removes insoluble solids; chlorine is then added to kill microorganisms.
Q52What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in clean, dry air?
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Correct: (C)
Clean dry air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and about 1% other gases including argon and carbon dioxide (about 0.04%).
Q53Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
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Correct: (C)
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide from the air to make glucose. Combustion, respiration and limestone decomposition all release carbon dioxide.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the general formula of the alkenes?
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Correct: (B)
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing one C=C bond, with the general formula CnH2n.
Q55Large hydrocarbon molecules from crude oil are cracked. Which statement about cracking is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Cracking breaks down long-chain alkanes into more useful short-chain alkanes and alkenes; it needs a high temperature and a catalyst such as aluminium oxide. Separation by boiling point is fractional distillation.
Q56Ethanol left in contact with air turns sour because it is oxidised to
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Correct: (B)
Microorganisms in the air oxidise ethanol to ethanoic acid (the acid in vinegar), which tastes sour.
Q57Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol to form an ester. What are the products?
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Correct: (A)
Carboxylic acid + alcohol → ester + water. Ethanoic acid + ethanol → ethyl ethanoate + water.
Q58Terylene (PET) is a polyester made by condensation polymerisation. In condensation polymerisation, the monomers join together with the elimination of
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Correct: (C)
In condensation polymerisation each new bond formed eliminates a small molecule, usually water; this is how polyesters such as Terylene are made.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59A student adds dilute hydrochloric acid to a solid and the gas given off turns limewater milky. Which ion is present in the solid?
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Correct: (D)
Carbonates react with acids to give carbon dioxide, which turns limewater milky. This is the standard test for a carbonate.
Q60A coloured spot is separated by paper chromatography. The solvent front moves 8.0 cm and the spot moves 6.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot, and what does a pure substance give in this experiment?
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Correct: (D)
Rf = 6.0 / 8.0 = 0.75. A pure substance produces a single spot in any given solvent, while a mixture gives two or more spots.
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