IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 1
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.
🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter
Q1Which process describes particles escaping from the surface of a liquid to form a gas?
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Correct: (B)
Evaporation is the process in which particles with enough energy escape from the surface of a liquid to form a gas.
Q2Which statement about the particles in a solid is correct?
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Correct: (D)
In a solid the particles are held in fixed positions in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about those positions.
Q3Diffusion happens most quickly in gases because the particles in a gas
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Correct: (A)
Gas particles move randomly and quickly in all directions, so they spread out and mix rapidly.
⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds
Q4An atom of sodium has a proton number of 11 and a nucleon number of 23. How many neutrons are in this atom?
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Correct: (C)
Number of neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 23 – 11 = 12.
Q5Which particle found in an atom has the smallest relative mass?
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Correct: (A)
An electron has a relative mass of about 1/1840, much smaller than a proton or a neutron (relative mass 1).
Q6Isotopes of the same element have
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Correct: (C)
Isotopes have the same proton number (so they are the same element) but different nucleon numbers because they contain different numbers of neutrons.
Q7Magnesium has a proton number of 12. What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium atom?
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Correct: (D)
The first shell holds 2 electrons and the second shell holds 8, leaving 2 electrons in the third shell: 2,8,2.
Q8When a sodium atom forms a sodium ion, Na^+, the sodium atom
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Correct: (B)
Sodium loses its single outer electron to form a positive ion with a full outer shell.
Q9Which substance consists of a giant covalent structure?
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Correct: (D)
Diamond is a giant covalent structure in which every carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in a rigid network.
Q10Magnesium oxide is an ionic compound. The ions present in it are
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Correct: (A)
Magnesium loses two electrons to form Mg^2+ and oxygen gains two electrons to form O^2-, so both ions have full outer shells.
Q11Which compound contains covalent bonds only?
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Correct: (B)
Carbon dioxide is formed between two non-metals and contains only shared pairs of electrons (covalent bonds).
⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry
Q12What is the relative formula mass of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2? [Ar: Ca = 40, O = 16, H = 1]
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Correct: (C)
Mr = 40 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 40 + 34 = 74.
Q13How many moles are present in 8.0 g of methane, CH4? [Mr: CH4 = 16]
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Correct: (C)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8.0 / 16 = 0.50 mol.
Q14At room temperature and pressure, one mole of any gas occupies 24 dm^3. What volume is occupied by 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide at r.t.p.?
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Correct: (B)
Volume = moles × molar volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.
Q155.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (D)
Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol; concentration = 0.10 mol / 0.500 dm^3 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.
Q16A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? [Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16]
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Correct: (A)
Moles in 100 g: C = 40.0 / 12 = 3.33, H = 6.7 / 1 = 6.7, O = 53.3 / 16 = 3.33. The ratio is 1 : 2 : 1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.
Q17In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 20 g, but only 15 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (A)
Percentage yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100 = (15 / 20) × 100 = 75%.
Q18Carbon burns completely in oxygen: C + O2 → CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide is formed when 0.10 mol of carbon is burned? [Mr: CO2 = 44]
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Correct: (D)
0.10 mol of carbon forms 0.10 mol of CO2, so mass = 0.10 × 44 = 4.4 g.
🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry
Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which gas is formed at the cathode?
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Correct: (C)
Hydrogen ions are discharged at the negative cathode in preference to sodium ions, forming hydrogen gas.
Q20During electrolysis, cations (positive ions) move towards the
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Correct: (B)
Cations are positively charged, so they are attracted to the negatively charged cathode.
Q21Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the anode?
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Correct: (B)
Bromide ions lose electrons at the anode to form bromine; lead is formed at the cathode.
Q22Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which ion is discharged at the cathode?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the cathode to form hydrogen gas.
Q23An iron key is to be electroplated with copper. Which arrangement is correct?
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Correct: (D)
The object to be plated is made the cathode, and the electrolyte must contain ions of the plating metal, Cu^2+.
🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics
Q24Which process is exothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Combustion releases energy to the surroundings as heat, so it is an exothermic process.
Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. [Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431]
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Correct: (C)
Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q26When solid ammonium nitrate is dissolved in water, the temperature of the solution falls. This shows that the dissolving process is
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Correct: (D)
The temperature falls because the process takes in energy from the surroundings, so it is endothermic.
Q27A reaction mixture warms 100 g of water by 10 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/g°C. How much energy is transferred to the water?
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Correct: (A)
Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 100 × 4.2 × 10 = 4200 J.
Q28In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, the overall reaction is
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Correct: (B)
In a fuel cell, hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, and the energy released is converted directly into electricity.
⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions
Q29Marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid. Which change increases the rate of this reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Powdered marble has a much larger surface area, so collisions between particles happen more frequently and the rate increases.
Q30A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction because it
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst provides a different pathway with a lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of collisions are successful.
Q31According to collision theory, increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction mainly because the particles
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Correct: (C)
At a higher temperature the particles move faster, collide more frequently, and more of the collisions have enough energy for a reaction to occur.
Q32Ammonia is made in the Haber process: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). Increasing the pressure on this equilibrium
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Correct: (A)
There are 4 moles of gas on the left and only 2 moles on the right, so a higher pressure shifts the equilibrium towards ammonia.
Q33Which reaction is a redox reaction?
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Correct: (A)
Zinc is oxidised and copper(II) ions are reduced, so oxidation and reduction take place together.
Q34Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. In this reaction, magnesium is
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Correct: (C)
Magnesium gains oxygen and loses electrons, so it is oxidised.
Q35In a rate experiment, 50 cm^3 of gas is collected in 25 seconds. What is the average rate of the reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Average rate = volume of gas / time = 50 / 25 = 2 cm^3/s.
🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts
Q36Which oxide is acidic?
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Correct: (D)
Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic; the others are metal oxides and are basic.
Q37A solution has a pH of 2. This solution is
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Correct: (B)
A pH of 2 is well below 7 and indicates a strongly acidic solution containing a high concentration of H^+ ions.
Q38Which salt is best prepared by the titration method, using an indicator?
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Correct: (D)
Potassium nitrate is a soluble salt of a Group I metal, so it is prepared by titrating potassium hydroxide with nitric acid; the other salts listed are insoluble.
Q39Dilute hydrochloric acid and then barium chloride solution are added to a solution. A white precipitate forms. Which ion is present in the solution?
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Correct: (A)
Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions, which would also form a precipitate.
Q40Aqueous sodium hydroxide is warmed with solid ammonium chloride. The gas given off is
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Correct: (C)
Alkalis release ammonia gas when warmed with ammonium salts; this is the test for ammonium ions.
Q41Lead(II) sulfate is insoluble in water. It is best prepared by
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Correct: (C)
Mixing a solution containing Pb^2+ ions with one containing SO4^2- ions forms insoluble lead(II) sulfate as a precipitate, which is filtered off, washed and dried.
Q42Which statement about alkalis is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Alkalis are soluble bases that release hydroxide ions, OH^-, when dissolved in water.
📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table
Q43Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have the same number of
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Correct: (D)
The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is why elements in a group have similar chemical properties.
Q44Which is a property of transition elements?
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Correct: (B)
Transition elements form coloured compounds, often have variable oxidation states, and are mostly good conductors with high melting points.
Q45In Group I of the Periodic Table, the reactivity of the metals
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Correct: (D)
Down Group I the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily, so reactivity increases.
Q46Which statement about the Group VII elements (the halogens) is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Chlorine is a green gas, bromine is a red-brown liquid and iodine is a grey-black solid; reactivity decreases down the group.
🔧 Topic 9: Metals
Q47Which of these metals is the most reactive?
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Correct: (B)
In the reactivity series, potassium is near the top, well above zinc, iron and copper.
Q48Aluminium appears to be unreactive even though it is a fairly reactive metal. This is because aluminium
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Correct: (A)
Aluminium quickly forms a tough oxide layer on its surface, which protects the metal underneath from further attack.
Q49In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is converted into iron. The main reducing agent is
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Correct: (A)
Carbon monoxide reduces the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.
Q50Which pair of substances must both be present for iron to rust?
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Correct: (B)
Experiments show that iron rusts only when both oxygen (from the air) and water are present.
🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment
Q51Which gas, produced when sulfur-containing fossil fuels burn, is a major cause of acid rain?
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Correct: (C)
Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form an acidic solution; it is released when fossil fuels containing sulfur impurities are burned.
Q52NPK fertilisers are used to supply plants with the essential elements
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Correct: (D)
NPK fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium, the three elements most needed for healthy plant growth.
Q53Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies mainly to
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Correct: (C)
Chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful bacteria and other microorganisms; insoluble solids are removed earlier by filtration.
🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry
Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (D)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q55Which hydrocarbon decolourises aqueous bromine?
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Correct: (B)
Ethene is unsaturated and contains a C=C double bond, so it reacts with bromine in an addition reaction and decolourises it.
Q56Ethanol is manufactured by the fermentation of glucose. Which conditions are needed?
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Correct: (A)
Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast, works best when warm, and must take place without air (anaerobic conditions).
Q57The functional group in carboxylic acids is
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Correct: (B)
Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH group; for example, ethanoic acid is CH3COOH.
Q58Poly(ethene) is formed from ethene monomers by
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Correct: (A)
Many ethene molecules join together by addition polymerisation, and no other product is formed.
🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis
Q59Which test identifies hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen burns rapidly with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is put into the gas.
Q60In a chromatography experiment, the solvent front moved 10.0 cm and a dye moved 5.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?
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Correct: (C)
Rf = distance moved by the dye / distance moved by the solvent = 5.0 / 10.0 = 0.50.
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