IGCSE Chemistry Practice Test 1

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 12 topics of the Cambridge IGCSE Chemistry (0620) syllabus, Core & Supplement.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IGCSE Paper 1 multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IGCSE Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 12 IGCSE topics: states of matter, atoms & bonding, stoichiometry, electrochemistry, energetics, reaction rates, acids & bases, the Periodic Table, metals, environment, organic chemistry, and experimental techniques.

🌀 Topic 1: States of Matter

Q1Which process describes particles escaping from the surface of a liquid to form a gas?

(A) condensation
(B) evaporation
(C) freezing
(D) melting
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Evaporation is the process in which particles with enough energy escape from the surface of a liquid to form a gas.

Q2Which statement about the particles in a solid is correct?

(A) They are arranged randomly and move freely.
(B) They are far apart and move at high speed.
(C) They slide over each other in layers.
(D) They vibrate about fixed positions.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In a solid the particles are held in fixed positions in a regular arrangement and can only vibrate about those positions.

Q3Diffusion happens most quickly in gases because the particles in a gas

(A) move randomly at high speed
(B) are held in fixed positions
(C) have strong forces between them
(D) are very close together
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Gas particles move randomly and quickly in all directions, so they spread out and mix rapidly.

⚛ Topic 2: Atoms, Elements & Compounds

Q4An atom of sodium has a proton number of 11 and a nucleon number of 23. How many neutrons are in this atom?

(A) 11
(B) 34
(C) 12
(D) 23
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Number of neutrons = nucleon number – proton number = 23 – 11 = 12.

Q5Which particle found in an atom has the smallest relative mass?

(A) electron
(B) neutron
(C) proton
(D) nucleus
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An electron has a relative mass of about 1/1840, much smaller than a proton or a neutron (relative mass 1).

Q6Isotopes of the same element have

(A) the same number of neutrons but different proton numbers
(B) the same nucleon number but different proton numbers
(C) the same proton number but different numbers of neutrons
(D) different proton numbers and different electron arrangements
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Isotopes have the same proton number (so they are the same element) but different nucleon numbers because they contain different numbers of neutrons.

Q7Magnesium has a proton number of 12. What is the electronic configuration of a magnesium atom?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,10
(C) 8,2,2
(D) 2,8,2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The first shell holds 2 electrons and the second shell holds 8, leaving 2 electrons in the third shell: 2,8,2.

Q8When a sodium atom forms a sodium ion, Na^+, the sodium atom

(A) gains one electron
(B) loses one electron
(C) gains one proton
(D) loses one neutron
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sodium loses its single outer electron to form a positive ion with a full outer shell.

Q9Which substance consists of a giant covalent structure?

(A) sodium chloride
(B) water
(C) iodine
(D) diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Diamond is a giant covalent structure in which every carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in a rigid network.

Q10Magnesium oxide is an ionic compound. The ions present in it are

(A) Mg^2+ and O^2-
(B) Mg^+ and O^-
(C) Mg^2+ and O^-
(D) Mg^+ and O^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Magnesium loses two electrons to form Mg^2+ and oxygen gains two electrons to form O^2-, so both ions have full outer shells.

Q11Which compound contains covalent bonds only?

(A) calcium oxide
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) magnesium chloride
(D) sodium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon dioxide is formed between two non-metals and contains only shared pairs of electrons (covalent bonds).

⚖ Topic 3: Stoichiometry

Q12What is the relative formula mass of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2? [Ar: Ca = 40, O = 16, H = 1]

(A) 58
(B) 66
(C) 74
(D) 114
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr = 40 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 40 + 34 = 74.

Q13How many moles are present in 8.0 g of methane, CH4? [Mr: CH4 = 16]

(A) 0.25 mol
(B) 2.0 mol
(C) 0.50 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8.0 / 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q14At room temperature and pressure, one mole of any gas occupies 24 dm^3. What volume is occupied by 0.25 mol of carbon dioxide at r.t.p.?

(A) 3.0 dm^3
(B) 6.0 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Volume = moles × molar volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.

Q155.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.05 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.20 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.10 mol; concentration = 0.10 mol / 0.500 dm^3 = 0.20 mol/dm^3.

Q16A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula? [Ar: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16]

(A) CH2O
(B) CHO
(C) C2H4O2
(D) CH4O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles in 100 g: C = 40.0 / 12 = 3.33, H = 6.7 / 1 = 6.7, O = 53.3 / 16 = 3.33. The ratio is 1 : 2 : 1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.

Q17In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 20 g, but only 15 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 75%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 133%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100 = (15 / 20) × 100 = 75%.

Q18Carbon burns completely in oxygen: C + O2 → CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide is formed when 0.10 mol of carbon is burned? [Mr: CO2 = 44]

(A) 0.44 g
(B) 44 g
(C) 1.2 g
(D) 4.4 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

0.10 mol of carbon forms 0.10 mol of CO2, so mass = 0.10 × 44 = 4.4 g.

🔋 Topic 4: Electrochemistry

Q19Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which gas is formed at the cathode?

(A) chlorine
(B) oxygen
(C) hydrogen
(D) nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen ions are discharged at the negative cathode in preference to sodium ions, forming hydrogen gas.

Q20During electrolysis, cations (positive ions) move towards the

(A) anode, which is the positive electrode
(B) cathode, which is the negative electrode
(C) anode, which is the negative electrode
(D) positive terminal of the power supply
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cations are positively charged, so they are attracted to the negatively charged cathode.

Q21Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the anode?

(A) lead
(B) bromine
(C) hydrogen
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bromide ions lose electrons at the anode to form bromine; lead is formed at the cathode.

Q22Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which ion is discharged at the cathode?

(A) H^+
(B) OH^-
(C) SO4^2-
(D) O^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the cathode to form hydrogen gas.

Q23An iron key is to be electroplated with copper. Which arrangement is correct?

(A) key = anode; electrolyte = iron(II) sulfate solution
(B) key = cathode; electrolyte = iron(II) sulfate solution
(C) key = anode; electrolyte = copper(II) sulfate solution
(D) key = cathode; electrolyte = copper(II) sulfate solution
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The object to be plated is made the cathode, and the electrolyte must contain ions of the plating metal, Cu^2+.

🔥 Topic 5: Chemical Energetics

Q24Which process is exothermic?

(A) photosynthesis
(B) thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) combustion of methane
(D) melting of ice
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Combustion releases energy to the surroundings as heat, so it is an exothermic process.

Q25Using bond energies, calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. [Bond energies in kJ/mol: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431]

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -862 kJ/mol
(C) -184 kJ/mol
(D) +92 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q26When solid ammonium nitrate is dissolved in water, the temperature of the solution falls. This shows that the dissolving process is

(A) exothermic
(B) a neutralisation
(C) a combustion
(D) endothermic
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The temperature falls because the process takes in energy from the surroundings, so it is endothermic.

Q27A reaction mixture warms 100 g of water by 10 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/g°C. How much energy is transferred to the water?

(A) 4200 J
(B) 420 J
(C) 42 J
(D) 42000 J
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 100 × 4.2 × 10 = 4200 J.

Q28In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, the overall reaction is

(A) water → hydrogen + oxygen
(B) hydrogen + oxygen → water
(C) hydrogen + carbon dioxide → water
(D) methane + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a fuel cell, hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water, and the energy released is converted directly into electricity.

⏱ Topic 6: Chemical Reactions

Q29Marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid. Which change increases the rate of this reaction?

(A) using larger marble chips
(B) cooling the acid
(C) diluting the acid
(D) using powdered marble
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Powdered marble has a much larger surface area, so collisions between particles happen more frequently and the rate increases.

Q30A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction because it

(A) increases the energy of the reactant particles
(B) provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) increases the concentration of the reactants
(D) raises the temperature of the reaction mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst provides a different pathway with a lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of collisions are successful.

Q31According to collision theory, increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction mainly because the particles

(A) become larger
(B) collide less often but with more energy
(C) collide more often, and a greater proportion have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy
(D) move more slowly
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At a higher temperature the particles move faster, collide more frequently, and more of the collisions have enough energy for a reaction to occur.

Q32Ammonia is made in the Haber process: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). Increasing the pressure on this equilibrium

(A) increases the yield of ammonia, because there are fewer moles of gas on the right-hand side
(B) decreases the yield of ammonia
(C) has no effect on the position of equilibrium
(D) stops the reverse reaction completely
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

There are 4 moles of gas on the left and only 2 moles on the right, so a higher pressure shifts the equilibrium towards ammonia.

Q33Which reaction is a redox reaction?

(A) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(B) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(C) CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
(D) NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is oxidised and copper(II) ions are reduced, so oxidation and reduction take place together.

Q34Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. In this reaction, magnesium is

(A) reduced
(B) neither oxidised nor reduced
(C) oxidised
(D) the catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Magnesium gains oxygen and loses electrons, so it is oxidised.

Q35In a rate experiment, 50 cm^3 of gas is collected in 25 seconds. What is the average rate of the reaction?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 2 cm^3/s
(C) 25 cm^3/s
(D) 1250 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Average rate = volume of gas / time = 50 / 25 = 2 cm^3/s.




🧫 Topic 7: Acids, Bases & Salts

Q36Which oxide is acidic?

(A) calcium oxide
(B) sodium oxide
(C) magnesium oxide
(D) sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur dioxide is a non-metal oxide and is acidic; the others are metal oxides and are basic.

Q37A solution has a pH of 2. This solution is

(A) a weak alkali
(B) a strong acid
(C) a weak acid
(D) neutral
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A pH of 2 is well below 7 and indicates a strongly acidic solution containing a high concentration of H^+ ions.

Q38Which salt is best prepared by the titration method, using an indicator?

(A) lead(II) sulfate
(B) barium sulfate
(C) copper(II) carbonate
(D) potassium nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Potassium nitrate is a soluble salt of a Group I metal, so it is prepared by titrating potassium hydroxide with nitric acid; the other salts listed are insoluble.

Q39Dilute hydrochloric acid and then barium chloride solution are added to a solution. A white precipitate forms. Which ion is present in the solution?

(A) sulfate
(B) chloride
(C) nitrate
(D) carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions, which would also form a precipitate.

Q40Aqueous sodium hydroxide is warmed with solid ammonium chloride. The gas given off is

(A) chlorine
(B) hydrogen
(C) ammonia
(D) carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkalis release ammonia gas when warmed with ammonium salts; this is the test for ammonium ions.

Q41Lead(II) sulfate is insoluble in water. It is best prepared by

(A) titration using an indicator
(B) reacting excess lead metal with dilute sulfuric acid
(C) precipitation, by mixing solutions containing Pb^2+ ions and SO4^2- ions
(D) crystallisation from lead nitrate solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mixing a solution containing Pb^2+ ions with one containing SO4^2- ions forms insoluble lead(II) sulfate as a precipitate, which is filtered off, washed and dried.

Q42Which statement about alkalis is correct?

(A) Aqueous alkalis contain hydroxide ions, OH^-.
(B) They have a pH less than 7.
(C) They react with acids to form water only.
(D) All alkalis are insoluble in water.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alkalis are soluble bases that release hydroxide ions, OH^-, when dissolved in water.

📊 Topic 8: The Periodic Table

Q43Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have the same number of

(A) electron shells
(B) protons
(C) neutrons
(D) electrons in the outer shell
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is why elements in a group have similar chemical properties.

Q44Which is a property of transition elements?

(A) They have low melting points.
(B) They form coloured compounds.
(C) They have only one oxidation state.
(D) They are poor conductors of electricity.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Transition elements form coloured compounds, often have variable oxidation states, and are mostly good conductors with high melting points.

Q45In Group I of the Periodic Table, the reactivity of the metals

(A) decreases down the group
(B) stays the same down the group
(C) increases then decreases down the group
(D) increases down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Down Group I the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily, so reactivity increases.

Q46Which statement about the Group VII elements (the halogens) is correct?

(A) Iodine is a green gas at room temperature.
(B) Bromine is a grey-black solid at room temperature.
(C) Chlorine is a green gas and iodine is a grey-black solid at room temperature.
(D) Their reactivity increases down the group.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chlorine is a green gas, bromine is a red-brown liquid and iodine is a grey-black solid; reactivity decreases down the group.

🔧 Topic 9: Metals

Q47Which of these metals is the most reactive?

(A) copper
(B) potassium
(C) iron
(D) zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In the reactivity series, potassium is near the top, well above zinc, iron and copper.

Q48Aluminium appears to be unreactive even though it is a fairly reactive metal. This is because aluminium

(A) is covered by a strong, protective layer of aluminium oxide
(B) is below iron in the reactivity series
(C) does not react with oxygen at all
(D) is an alloy rather than a pure metal
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Aluminium quickly forms a tough oxide layer on its surface, which protects the metal underneath from further attack.

Q49In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is converted into iron. The main reducing agent is

(A) carbon monoxide
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen
(D) calcium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon monoxide reduces the iron(III) oxide: Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2.

Q50Which pair of substances must both be present for iron to rust?

(A) oxygen only
(B) oxygen and water
(C) water and carbon dioxide only
(D) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Experiments show that iron rusts only when both oxygen (from the air) and water are present.

🌱 Topic 10: Chemistry of the Environment

Q51Which gas, produced when sulfur-containing fossil fuels burn, is a major cause of acid rain?

(A) carbon monoxide
(B) oxygen
(C) sulfur dioxide
(D) nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form an acidic solution; it is released when fossil fuels containing sulfur impurities are burned.

Q52NPK fertilisers are used to supply plants with the essential elements

(A) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
(B) iron, zinc and copper
(C) sodium, calcium and magnesium
(D) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

NPK fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium, the three elements most needed for healthy plant growth.

Q53Chlorine is added to drinking water supplies mainly to

(A) remove insoluble solids
(B) improve the taste
(C) kill microorganisms
(D) remove dissolved salts
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful bacteria and other microorganisms; insoluble solids are removed earlier by filtration.

🧪 Topic 11: Organic Chemistry

Q54What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnHn
(D) CnH2n+2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q55Which hydrocarbon decolourises aqueous bromine?

(A) ethane
(B) ethene
(C) methane
(D) propane
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene is unsaturated and contains a C=C double bond, so it reacts with bromine in an addition reaction and decolourises it.

Q56Ethanol is manufactured by the fermentation of glucose. Which conditions are needed?

(A) yeast, a warm temperature and the absence of air
(B) a nickel catalyst and high pressure
(C) concentrated sulfuric acid and strong heating
(D) yeast and a plentiful supply of oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Fermentation uses enzymes in yeast, works best when warm, and must take place without air (anaerobic conditions).

Q57The functional group in carboxylic acids is

(A) -OH
(B) -COOH
(C) -NH2
(D) C=C
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH group; for example, ethanoic acid is CH3COOH.

Q58Poly(ethene) is formed from ethene monomers by

(A) addition polymerisation
(B) condensation polymerisation
(C) cracking
(D) fermentation
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Many ethene molecules join together by addition polymerisation, and no other product is formed.

🔬 Topic 12: Experimental Techniques & Analysis

Q59Which test identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) It turns limewater milky.
(B) It relights a glowing splint.
(C) It bleaches damp litmus paper.
(D) A lighted splint gives a 'pop'.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen burns rapidly with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is put into the gas.

Q60In a chromatography experiment, the solvent front moved 10.0 cm and a dye moved 5.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.50
(D) 5.0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rf = distance moved by the dye / distance moved by the solvent = 5.0 / 10.0 = 0.50.