IGCSE Biology Topic 16: Reproduction MCQs – 30 Practice Questions with Answers (Cambridge 0610)

Q1. Which statement best describes asexual reproduction?

• (A) Two parents each contribute a gamete to form a zygote.
• (B) One parent produces offspring that are genetically identical to itself.
• (C) Two parents produce offspring that differ genetically from each other and from both parents.
• (D) A parent produces gametes that fuse with gametes from another parent.

Q2. In a stable environment, what is a likely advantage of asexual reproduction for a wild population?

• (A) It creates new combinations of alleles in every generation.
• (B) It allows offspring to survive in a wide range of new habitats and climates.
• (C) It reduces the number of offspring produced by each parent.
• (D) It lets a successful population increase in numbers very quickly.

Q3. Why can asexual reproduction be a disadvantage when the environment changes suddenly?

• (A) The offspring show very little genetic variation, so few may survive the change.
• (B) The offspring are produced too slowly to replace the parent population before the season ends.
• (C) The offspring cannot grow because they lack a full set of chromosomes.
• (D) The offspring always need two parents before they can reproduce again.

Q4. Which process defines sexual reproduction?

• (A) One parent divides to form two identical daughter cells.
• (B) A single gamete develops into a new organism without fertilisation.
• (C) The nuclei of two gametes fuse to form a zygote.
• (D) A plant grows a new shoot from a stem cutting.

Q5. What is the chromosome number of a gamete nucleus compared with a zygote nucleus?

• (A) Both nuclei are diploid.
• (B) The gamete nucleus is haploid and the zygote nucleus is diploid.
• (C) The gamete nucleus is diploid and the zygote nucleus is haploid after fertilisation.
• (D) Both nuclei are haploid.

Q6. For crop production, what is a drawback of relying only on sexual reproduction?

• (A) The crop plants cannot produce seeds at all.
• (B) The crop plants all become genetically identical within one season, reducing yield.
• (C) The crop plants stop carrying out photosynthesis.
• (D) The offspring vary, so a crop may be less uniform in yield and quality.

Q7. In a flower, which part produces pollen grains?

• (A) The anther
• (B) The stigma, which receives pollen grains
• (C) The ovary
• (D) The sepal

Q8. What is the function of the stigma in a flower?

• (A) To protect the flower bud before it opens
• (B) To produce the female gamete
• (C) To receive pollen grains during pollination
• (D) To develop into the fruit after fertilisation

Q9. Which description matches the pollen of a wind-pollinated flower?

• (A) Large, heavy grains produced in small numbers
• (B) Small, light grains produced in large numbers
• (C) Large, sticky grains carried on insect bodies
• (D) Heavy grains that fall straight into the ovary

Q10. Which combination of features is typical of an insect-pollinated flower?

• (A) Small, dull petals and feathery stigmas hanging outside the flower
• (B) No nectar and anthers that hang outside the flower
• (C) Green petals and pollen released before the flower opens
• (D) Bright, scented petals and a sticky stigma inside the flower

Q11. What is self-pollination?

• (A) Transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma of the same flower or another flower on the same plant
• (B) Transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma on a different plant of the same species in the same habitat
• (C) Transfer of pollen from a stigma to an anther within the same flower
• (D) Transfer of pollen between flowers of two different species

Q12. Why does cross-pollination help a plant population cope with a changing environment?

• (A) It makes every seed genetically identical to the parent plant and to each other.
• (B) It removes the need for pollinators altogether.
• (C) It increases variation, so some offspring may suit the new conditions.
• (D) It stops seeds from being dispersed away from the parent.

Q13. After pollination, what happens as the pollen tube grows?

• (A) The pollen tube carries the ovule up through the style to the stigma for fertilisation to occur.
• (B) The pollen tube grows through the style into the ovule, where fertilisation takes place.
• (C) The pollen tube splits the anther open to release more pollen.
• (D) The pollen tube turns into a seed before fertilisation occurs.

Q14. Which three conditions does a seed need in order to germinate?

• (A) Light, carbon dioxide and a suitable temperature
• (B) Water, light and mineral salts from the soil
• (C) Oxygen, carbon dioxide and darkness
• (D) Water, oxygen and a suitable temperature

Q15. What is the main benefit of seed dispersal for a plant species?

• (A) Seeds land away from the parent, reducing competition for light, water and nutrients.
• (B) Seeds stay close to the parent so they share the same root system and water supply throughout the growing season.
• (C) Seeds avoid germination until the parent plant has died.
• (D) Seeds gain a second set of chromosomes during dispersal.

Q16. In the male reproductive system, what is the function of the testes?

• (A) To store urine before it leaves the body
• (B) To produce fluid that neutralises stomach acid
• (C) To produce sperm and the male sex hormone
• (D) To carry sperm from the bladder to the penis

Q17. What is the role of the sperm ducts in the male reproductive system?

• (A) They produce the fluid in which sperm swim.
• (B) They carry sperm from the testes towards the urethra.
• (C) They store eggs until fertilisation takes place in the ovary.
• (D) They supply the testes with oxygenated blood.

Q18. Which adaptive feature of a sperm cell supplies the energy needed for swimming?

• (A) The flagellum, which beats to move the cell
• (B) The acrosome, which releases digestive enzymes
• (C) The haploid nucleus, which carries genetic information to the egg
• (D) The many mitochondria, which release energy by respiration

Q19. Which adaptive feature helps an egg cell support the early embryo?

• (A) A large store of nutrients to feed the dividing cells
• (B) A flagellum that moves it towards the sperm
• (C) Many mitochondria packed into a long tail
• (D) A hard shell that prevents any sperm from entering the egg cell

Q20. Which comparison of human male and female gametes is correct?

• (A) Sperm are larger, fewer and non-motile, while egg cells are smaller, numerous and motile, with food stores.
• (B) Sperm and egg cells are the same size and produced in equal numbers.
• (C) Sperm are smaller, produced in large numbers and motile; egg cells are larger, fewer and non-motile.
• (D) Sperm are larger and motile; egg cells are smaller and produced in large numbers.

Q21. Where in the female reproductive system does fertilisation normally take place?

• (A) In the uterus, where the embryo implants
• (B) In the oviduct
• (C) In the cervix
• (D) In the ovary

Q22. What happens shortly after the early embryo reaches the uterus?

• (A) The embryo begins to produce its own egg cells.
• (B) The embryo splits into two genetically different embryos that implant separately.
• (C) The embryo leaves the uterus through the cervix.
• (D) The embryo, a ball of cells, implants into the lining of the uterus.

Q23. What is the main function of the placenta during pregnancy?

• (A) To exchange nutrients, gases and waste between mother and fetus without blood mixing
• (B) To pump the mother’s blood directly into the fetus
• (C) To produce egg cells for the fetus
• (D) To cushion the fetus against changes in temperature only, without exchanging substances

Q24. What does the umbilical cord do during pregnancy?

• (A) It produces amniotic fluid around the fetus.
• (B) It carries nerve impulses from the fetus to the mother during development.
• (C) It connects the fetus to the placenta, carrying blood to and from it.
• (D) It forms the wall of the uterus.

Q25. What is the function of the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus?

• (A) To digest food for the fetus
• (B) To protect the fetus from mechanical shock and drying out
• (C) To carry hormones from the fetus to the ovaries
• (D) To filter pathogens out of the mother’s blood before they reach the fetus

Q26. Why are pregnant people advised to avoid certain drugs and alcohol?

• (A) They stop the placenta from forming at all.
• (B) They prevent the fetus from producing its own blood cells during pregnancy.
• (C) They cause the umbilical cord to break before birth.
• (D) Some toxins can pass across the placenta and harm the fetus.

Q27. Which change in males at puberty is driven by testosterone?

• (A) The start of the menstrual cycle
• (B) The widening of the hips
• (C) The deepening of the voice and growth of facial hair
• (D) The production of egg cells in the ovaries during the menstrual cycle

Q28. What is the role of oestrogen during puberty in females?

• (A) It drives the development of female secondary sexual characteristics.
• (B) It stops the ovaries from releasing any egg cells.
• (C) It causes the voice to deepen and facial hair to grow, as in male puberty.
• (D) It prevents the uterus lining from thickening.

Q29. During the menstrual cycle, which hormone triggers the release of an egg from the ovary?

• (A) Progesterone, which maintains the uterus lining
• (B) Luteinising hormone (LH), which causes ovulation
• (C) Testosterone, which stimulates sperm production
• (D) Insulin, which controls blood glucose concentration

Q30. Which statement about HIV is correct?

• (A) HIV spreads through coughing and sneezing.
• (B) HIV is cured by a short course of antibiotics.
• (C) HIV spreads by sharing food and drinking water with an infected person at home.
• (D) HIV is transmitted through sexual contact and through infected blood.