IGCSE Biology Practice Test 5 – 60 Questions with Answers (Cambridge 0610)

This final test revisits every topic once more, so treat it as a full revision check before the real exam.

Characteristics and classification of living organisms

Q1. Which life process removes waste products made by metabolism?

  • (A) Nutrition
  • (B) Growth
  • (C) Sensitivity
  • (D) Excretion
Show Answer

Answer: D – Excretion removes metabolic waste such as urea and carbon dioxide.

Q2. Which group of vertebrates lays eggs and has scales and a three-chambered heart?

  • (A) Fish
  • (B) Amphibians
  • (C) Reptiles
  • (D) Birds
Show Answer

Answer: C – Reptiles have dry scales and mostly three-chambered hearts.

Q3. Which fungus is used to make bread rise?

  • (A) Yeast
  • (B) Amoeba, a single-celled protoctist that moves by changing its shape
  • (C) Mould on bread
  • (D) Mushroom
Show Answer

Answer: A – Yeast ferments sugars in dough, releasing carbon dioxide that makes the bread rise.

Organisation of the organism

Q4. Which level of organisation is the stomach?

  • (A) Cell
  • (B) Organ
  • (C) Tissue
  • (D) System
Show Answer

Answer: B – The stomach is an organ made of several tissues working together.

Q5. Which structure is present in plant cells and gives support?

  • (A) Cell wall
  • (B) Nucleus
  • (C) Ribosome
  • (D) Mitochondrion
Show Answer

Answer: A – The cellulose cell wall supports the plant cell shape.

Q6. Which organelle makes proteins?

  • (A) Vacuole
  • (B) Chloroplast
  • (C) Cell membrane
  • (D) Ribosome
Show Answer

Answer: D – Ribosomes assemble amino acids into proteins.

Movement into and out of cells

Q7. Oxygen diffuses from air into a cell. Which condition speeds this up?

  • (A) A smaller surface area for diffusion
  • (B) A steeper oxygen gradient
  • (C) A thicker membrane
  • (D) A lower temperature
Show Answer

Answer: B – A larger concentration difference increases net diffusion rate.

Q8. Which process moves mineral ions from soil into root hair cells when the soil concentration is lower?

  • (A) Diffusion, which moves particles from a higher concentration to a lower concentration
  • (B) Osmosis
  • (C) Active transport
  • (D) Transpiration
Show Answer

Answer: C – Root hair cells use energy to take up mineral ions against a concentration gradient by active transport.

Q9. Why do plant cells not burst in pure water?

  • (A) They have no vacuole
  • (B) The cell wall resists turgor pressure
  • (C) They pump water out actively
  • (D) They stop osmosis completely
Show Answer

Answer: B – The rigid wall prevents further expansion once the cell is turgid.

Biological molecules

Q10. Which food molecule is tested with Benedict’s solution?

  • (A) Starch
  • (B) Protein
  • (C) Reducing sugar
  • (D) Fat
Show Answer

Answer: C – Benedict’s test detects reducing sugars such as glucose.

Q11. Which element is found in proteins but not in carbohydrates?

  • (A) Carbon
  • (B) Hydrogen
  • (C) Oxygen
  • (D) Nitrogen
Show Answer

Answer: D – Amino acids contain nitrogen, while carbohydrates contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Q12. Which carbohydrate is used for energy storage in animals?

  • (A) Glycogen
  • (B) Cellulose
  • (C) Sucrose
  • (D) Starch
Show Answer

Answer: A – Animals store glucose as glycogen in liver and muscle.

Enzymes

Q13. Which enzyme digests starch to maltose?

  • (A) Protease
  • (B) Amylase
  • (C) Lipase
  • (D) Maltase
Show Answer

Answer: B – Amylase breaks starch into maltose in the mouth and small intestine.

Q14. At very low temperatures, enzyme activity is low because:

  • (A) Enzymes are denatured by cold
  • (B) Substrates are destroyed
  • (C) Water freezes inside enzymes
  • (D) Collisions are too slow and infrequent
Show Answer

Answer: D – Low kinetic energy means fewer successful collisions with substrates.

Q15. Which pH is closest to the optimum for pepsin?

  • (A) pH 2
  • (B) pH 7
  • (C) pH 9
  • (D) pH 12
Show Answer

Answer: A – Pepsin works in the acidic stomach at around pH 2.

Plant nutrition

Q16. Which mineral is needed to make proteins in plants?

  • (A) Magnesium
  • (B) Iron
  • (C) Nitrate
  • (D) Potassium
Show Answer

Answer: C – Nitrates supply nitrogen for amino acids and proteins.

Q17. What is the main product of the light-independent stage of photosynthesis?

  • (A) Glucose
  • (B) Oxygen
  • (C) Water
  • (D) Carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Answer: A – Carbon dioxide is fixed into sugars such as glucose.

Q18. Which structure allows carbon dioxide to enter a leaf?

  • (A) Vein
  • (B) Cuticle
  • (C) Stoma
  • (D) Palisade cell
Show Answer

Answer: C – Stomata are pores that let gases diffuse in and out.

Human nutrition

Q19. Which part of the digestive system absorbs most nutrients?

  • (A) Mouth
  • (B) Stomach
  • (C) Oesophagus
  • (D) Ileum
Show Answer

Answer: D – The ileum is lined with villi for absorption into blood and lacteals.

Q20. What does bile do to fats?

  • (A) Digests them to glycerol
  • (B) Emulsifies them into small droplets
  • (C) Absorbs them into blood
  • (D) Stores them in the liver
Show Answer

Answer: B – Emulsification increases surface area for lipase action.

Q21. Which nutrient is the main source of energy in a balanced diet?

  • (A) Vitamins needed in small amounts
  • (B) Minerals
  • (C) Carbohydrates
  • (D) Water
Show Answer

Answer: C – Carbohydrates are broken down to glucose for respiration.

Transport in plants

Q22. Water moves up a plant mainly because of:

  • (A) Active transport in leaves using energy
  • (B) Transpiration pull and cohesion
  • (C) Root pressure alone
  • (D) Gravity pulling sap down
Show Answer

Answer: B – Evaporation from leaves pulls a continuous water column upwards.

Q23. Which cells transport sugars in a plant?

  • (A) Sieve tube elements in phloem
  • (B) Vessel elements in xylem carrying water
  • (C) Guard cells in epidermis
  • (D) Mesophyll cells only
Show Answer

Answer: A – Sieve tubes carry dissolved sugars from sources to sinks.

Q24. A plant wilts on a hot day even though soil is moist. Why?

  • (A) Roots stop absorbing water
  • (B) Photosynthesis stops completely
  • (C) Stomata open wider than ever
  • (D) Water loss exceeds water uptake
Show Answer

Answer: D – Rapid transpiration can outpace uptake, so cells lose turgor.

Transport in animals

Q25. Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

  • (A) Right atrium
  • (B) Right ventricle
  • (C) Left ventricle
  • (D) Left atrium
Show Answer

Answer: D – Pulmonary veins deliver oxygenated blood to the left atrium.

Q26. What is the function of haemoglobin?

  • (A) Transporting oxygen in red blood cells
  • (B) Clotting blood at wounds
  • (C) Fighting infection in plasma
  • (D) Carrying urea to kidneys
Show Answer

Answer: A – Haemoglobin binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in tissues.

Q27. Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

  • (A) Aorta
  • (B) Vena cava
  • (C) Pulmonary artery
  • (D) Pulmonary vein returning to the heart
Show Answer

Answer: C – The pulmonary artery is the exception: an artery carrying deoxygenated blood.

Diseases and immunity

Q28. Which statement about antibodies is correct?

  • (A) They are made by red blood cells
  • (B) They bind to specific antigens
  • (C) They kill all microbes on contact
  • (D) They are passed only by injection
Show Answer

Answer: B – Each antibody shape matches one antigen type.

Q29. Why does a second infection with the same pathogen cause milder illness?

  • (A) The pathogen becomes weaker over time
  • (B) The body temperature rises faster
  • (C) Memory cells give a rapid antibody response
  • (D) Skin becomes thicker after illness
Show Answer

Answer: C – Memory cells from the first infection speed up the second response.

Q30. Which disease is caused by a bacterium spread in droplets from coughs?

  • (A) Malaria
  • (B) Tuberculosis
  • (C) AIDS
  • (D) Athlete’s foot
Show Answer

Answer: B – Tuberculosis bacteria spread through airborne droplets.


Gas exchange in humans

Q31. Which gas diffuses from blood into alveoli?

  • (A) Oxygen
  • (B) Nitrogen from the blood plasma
  • (C) Argon
  • (D) Carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Answer: D – Blood arriving at the lungs is high in carbon dioxide, which diffuses out.

Q32. What causes air to enter the lungs?

  • (A) Pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure
  • (B) Pressure in the lungs rises above atmospheric pressure
  • (C) The trachea actively sucks air in
  • (D) The alveoli contract strongly
Show Answer

Answer: A – Air flows down the pressure gradient into the lungs.

Q33. Which muscles are used in forced exhalation?

  • (A) Internal intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles
  • (B) Diaphragm only
  • (C) External intercostals only
  • (D) Heart muscle
Show Answer

Answer: A – These muscles actively reduce chest volume during forced breathing out.

Respiration

Q34. Which process releases energy for active transport?

  • (A) Photosynthesis
  • (B) Digestion
  • (C) Diffusion
  • (D) Respiration
Show Answer

Answer: D – Respiration supplies the energy all active cell processes need.

Q35. What is produced by anaerobic respiration in yeast?

  • (A) Lactic acid and water from muscle cells
  • (B) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
  • (C) Oxygen and glucose
  • (D) Urea and water
Show Answer

Answer: B – Yeast fermentation yields ethanol plus carbon dioxide.

Q36. Which word describes respiration without oxygen?

  • (A) Aerobic
  • (B) Photosynthetic
  • (C) Anaerobic
  • (D) Excretory
Show Answer

Answer: C – Anaerobic means in the absence of oxygen.

Excretion in humans

Q37. Which part of the nephron filters the blood?

  • (A) Glomerulus
  • (B) Loop of Henle
  • (C) Collecting duct
  • (D) Bladder wall
Show Answer

Answer: A – The glomerulus is a knot of capillaries where filtration begins.

Q38. Which substance is excreted in sweat?

  • (A) Glucose
  • (B) Protein
  • (C) Urea and salts
  • (D) Bile
Show Answer

Answer: C – Sweat contains water, salts and small amounts of urea.

Coordination and response

Q39. Which neurone connects sensory and motor neurones in the CNS?

  • (A) Motor neurone
  • (B) Relay neurone
  • (C) Sensory neurone
  • (D) Effector cell
Show Answer

Answer: B – Relay neurones in the CNS link sensory and motor neurones.

Q40. Which hormone controls blood sugar by promoting storage as glycogen?

  • (A) Adrenaline
  • (B) Thyroxine
  • (C) Testosterone
  • (D) Insulin
Show Answer

Answer: D – Insulin from the pancreas lowers blood glucose after meals.

Drugs

Q41. Which effect is linked to long-term alcohol misuse?

  • (A) Stronger immune response
  • (B) Improved liver function
  • (C) Sharper coordination
  • (D) Liver damage
Show Answer

Answer: D – Excess alcohol over time damages liver cells and function.

Q42. What is drug addiction?

  • (A) Occasional use with no harm
  • (B) A strong dependence that is hard to stop despite harm
  • (C) Taking medicines as prescribed
  • (D) Avoiding all drugs completely
Show Answer

Answer: B – Addiction involves craving and continued use despite negative effects.

Reproduction

Q43. Where does fertilisation occur in humans?

  • (A) Oviduct
  • (B) Uterus where the embryo implants
  • (C) Ovary
  • (D) Cervix
Show Answer

Answer: A – Sperm meets the egg in the oviduct, then the zygote travels to the uterus.

Q44. Which process produces haploid cells in flowering plants?

  • (A) Mitosis in roots
  • (B) Growth of pollen tubes
  • (C) Meiosis in anthers and ovaries
  • (D) Germination of seeds
Show Answer

Answer: C – Meiosis halves the chromosome number to form gametes.

Q45. Which is an advantage of asexual reproduction for a farmer?

  • (A) Crops vary widely each year
  • (B) Desirable traits are preserved exactly
  • (C) New gene combinations appear
  • (D) Seeds are always produced
Show Answer

Answer: B – Clonal offspring keep the parent’s useful characteristics.

Inheritance

Q46. What is meant by a recessive allele?

  • (A) An allele that only shows its effect when two copies are present
  • (B) An allele that is expressed even when only one copy is inherited from a parent
  • (C) A whole chromosome
  • (D) A protein molecule
Show Answer

Answer: A – A recessive allele is masked by a dominant allele, so its effect appears only in homozygous organisms.

Q47. In a monohybrid cross, what does the 1:2:1 ratio describe?

  • (A) Phenotype ratio only
  • (B) Chromosome number ratio
  • (C) Genotype ratio in Aa x Aa offspring
  • (D) Sex ratio in offspring
Show Answer

Answer: C – Aa x Aa gives AA, Aa and aa in a 1:2:1 ratio.

Q48. Which condition is caused by an extra chromosome 21?

  • (A) Sickle cell anaemia
  • (B) Cystic fibrosis
  • (C) Haemophilia
  • (D) Down’s syndrome
Show Answer

Answer: D – Trisomy 21 results from non-disjunction during meiosis.

Variation and selection

Q49. Which factor causes variation within a species?

  • (A) Identical genes only
  • (B) Cloning only
  • (C) Mutation and sexual reproduction
  • (D) Asexual reproduction only
Show Answer

Answer: C – Mutation creates new alleles, and sexual reproduction recombines them.

Q50. Which statement about continuous variation is correct?

  • (A) It is controlled by genes only
  • (B) It shows a range of values with no clear groups
  • (C) It is caused by mutation only
  • (D) It always gives two distinct phenotypes
Show Answer

Answer: B – Continuous traits such as height vary smoothly across a range.

Q51. Why do some bacteria survive antibiotic treatment?

  • (A) They hide from the drug
  • (B) They grow larger than normal
  • (C) They stop reproducing entirely
  • (D) They carry resistance alleles selected by the drug
Show Answer

Answer: D – Selection favours bacteria with resistance genes.

Organisms and their environment

Q52. Which organism is a consumer in a food chain?

  • (A) A rabbit feeding on grass
  • (B) A green plant that makes its own food by photosynthesis using light energy
  • (C) A fox
  • (D) A fungus
Show Answer

Answer: A – Consumers gain energy by feeding on other organisms, and a rabbit feeding on grass is a primary consumer.

Q53. What is a population?

  • (A) All the organisms of every species living together in one particular habitat
  • (B) All organisms of one species in a habitat
  • (C) A population count method using quadrats
  • (D) A stage of decomposition
Show Answer

Answer: B – A population is a group of organisms of the same species living in the same place at the same time.

Q54. Why does energy decrease along a food chain?

  • (A) Energy is lost in respiration, excretion and movement
  • (B) Producers make less energy over time
  • (C) Consumers eat too much food
  • (D) Decomposers store all the energy
Show Answer

Answer: A – Only a small fraction of energy transfers to the next trophic level.

Human influences on ecosystems

Q55. Which human activity causes eutrophication?

  • (A) Planting hedgerows
  • (B) Recycling glass
  • (C) Excess fertiliser running into lakes
  • (D) Creating nature reserves
Show Answer

Answer: C – Nitrate runoff feeds algal blooms that deplete oxygen when they decay.

Q56. Which gas contributes most to the greenhouse effect from burning coal?

  • (A) Oxygen
  • (B) Nitrogen from the atmosphere
  • (C) Hydrogen
  • (D) Carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Answer: D – Burning fossil fuels releases stored carbon as carbon dioxide.

Q57. What is sustainable development?

  • (A) Using resources as fast as possible
  • (B) Banning all farming and fishing
  • (C) Replacing forests with cities
  • (D) Meeting present needs without harming future generations
Show Answer

Answer: D – Sustainability balances human needs with long-term environmental health.

Biotechnology and genetic modification

Q58. Why is penicillin produced using Penicillium fungus?

  • (A) It grows only in humans
  • (B) It kills all bacteria instantly
  • (C) It naturally produces the antibiotic compound
  • (D) It needs no nutrients to grow
Show Answer

Answer: C – The fungus secretes penicillin, which is harvested and purified.

Q59. Which is an example of biotechnology in food production?

  • (A) Using yeast to make bread rise
  • (B) Grinding wheat into flour
  • (C) Washing vegetables before sale
  • (D) Freezing leftover meals
Show Answer

Answer: A – Yeast fermentation is a traditional biotechnological process.

Q60. What is a genetically modified organism?

  • (A) An organism bred only by natural selection
  • (B) An organism whose genetic material has been altered
  • (C) An organism grown without any genes
  • (D) An organism cloned from a single cell only
Show Answer

Answer: B – Its DNA has been changed, for example by adding a useful gene.

Work through any questions you missed again, then revise those areas before moving on to the next test.

📥 Prefer pen and paper? Take this test offline.

Download Printable PDF – Test 5

Free printable version: all 60 questions + answer key. Explanations stay here on the website.