IB Chemistry Practice Test 8

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative mass of approximately 1 and no electric charge?

(A) Neutron
(B) Proton
(C) Electron
(D) Positron
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A neutron has almost the same mass as a proton but carries no charge.

Q2What is the electron configuration of a magnesium ion, Mg^2+?

(A) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^4
(B) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2
(C) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6
(D) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A magnesium atom loses its two 3s electrons when forming Mg^2+, leaving the stable configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6.

Q3What amount of carbon dioxide is present in 8.8 g of CO2? (Mr: CO2 = 44.0)

(A) 0.100 mol
(B) 0.200 mol
(C) 2.00 mol
(D) 4.40 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

n = m / Mr = 8.8 / 44.0 = 0.200 mol.

Q4A student dissolves 0.0500 mol of sodium chloride in water and makes the total volume up to 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.0125 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.0500 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.125 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.200 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Concentration = 0.0500 mol / 0.250 dm^3 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q5A fixed amount of gas is kept at constant temperature. If its pressure is doubled, what happens to its volume?

(A) It doubles.
(B) It increases by a factor of four.
(C) It halves.
(D) It remains unchanged.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At constant temperature, PV is constant for a fixed amount of gas, so doubling P halves V.

Q6How many hydrogen atoms are present in 0.500 mol of hydrogen molecules, H2? The Avogadro constant is 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1.

(A) 6.02 × 10^23
(B) 3.01 × 10^23
(C) 1.20 × 10^24
(D) 1.51 × 10^23
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

0.500 mol of H2 contains 1.00 mol of H atoms, so the number of atoms is 6.02 × 10^23.

Q7A sample contains 0.100 mol of carbon atoms, 0.300 mol of hydrogen atoms and 0.100 mol of oxygen atoms. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CHO
(B) C3HO
(C) CH2O
(D) CH3O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Dividing each amount by 0.100 gives the simplest ratio C : H : O = 1 : 3 : 1.

Q8An atom has the electron configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5. What is its atomic number?

(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 35
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The total number of electrons is 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 + 5 = 17, and a neutral atom has the same number of protons.

Q9What amount of solute is present in 20.0 cm^3 of a 0.500 mol dm^-3 solution?

(A) 0.100 mol
(B) 1.00 mol
(C) 0.00100 mol
(D) 0.0100 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

n = cV = 0.500 × 0.0200 = 0.0100 mol.

Q10Hydrogen and oxygen react by 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l). What is the maximum amount of water formed from 0.300 mol of H2 and 0.200 mol of O2?

(A) 0.200 mol
(B) 0.300 mol
(C) 0.400 mol
(D) 0.600 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The 0.300 mol of H2 needs only 0.150 mol of O2, so hydrogen is limiting and forms 0.300 mol of H2O.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11Which statement about a typical ionic compound is correct?

(A) It conducts electricity when molten because its ions are mobile.
(B) It conducts electricity as a solid because its electrons are delocalised.
(C) It has a low melting point because its lattice forces are weak.
(D) It consists of separate molecules held by hydrogen bonds.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In the solid, ions are locked in the lattice. When molten, the ions can move and carry charge to the electrodes.

Q12What are the shape and H-C-H bond angle in methane, CH4?

(A) Trigonal planar, 120°
(B) Bent, 104.5°
(C) Tetrahedral, 109.5°
(D) Linear, 180°
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon forms four bonding pairs and has no lone pairs, so the electron domains arrange tetrahedrally with 109.5° angles.

Q13Which intermolecular force is present between methane molecules?

(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) London dispersion forces
(C) Dipole-dipole forces only
(D) Ionic bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Methane is nonpolar and has no permanent dipole, so temporary induced dipoles produce London dispersion forces.

Q14Why does a water molecule have a permanent dipole?

(A) It is linear and its bond dipoles cancel.
(B) It contains two ionic bonds.
(C) Oxygen has no lone pairs.
(D) It is bent, and oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, so the bond dipoles do not cancel.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The two polar O-H bonds are arranged at an angle, giving one partially negative end near oxygen and a partially positive region near the hydrogen atoms.

Q15How many bonding pairs and lone pairs are around the nitrogen atom in ammonia, NH3?

(A) Four bonding pairs and no lone pairs.
(B) Two bonding pairs and two lone pairs.
(C) Three bonding pairs and one lone pair.
(D) Three bonding pairs and two lone pairs.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrogen uses three electron pairs to bond with hydrogen atoms and retains one lone pair, producing a trigonal pyramidal molecular shape.

Q16Why can metals be hammered into sheets without breaking?

(A) Layers of positive ions can slide over each other while the delocalised electrons maintain the metallic bonding.
(B) Their atoms are joined by weak intermolecular forces.
(C) Their ions move freely at room temperature.
(D) Their covalent bonds break and reform in identical positions.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The nondirectional attraction between metal ions and delocalised electrons continues when layers shift, so metals are malleable.

Q17How is silicon dioxide, SiO2, best classified?

(A) A simple molecular solid.
(B) An ionic lattice.
(C) A giant covalent network solid.
(D) A metallic solid.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silicon and oxygen atoms are connected by covalent bonds throughout a three-dimensional network, giving SiO2 a very high melting point.

Q18Ethanol has a much higher boiling point than dimethyl ether, although they have the same molecular formula. What is the main reason?

(A) Ethanol has weaker London dispersion forces.
(B) Ethanol can form hydrogen bonds between molecules, but dimethyl ether cannot donate hydrogen bonds.
(C) Dimethyl ether has a larger molar mass.
(D) Ethanol contains ionic bonds.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethanol has an O-H group and forms intermolecular hydrogen bonds. Dimethyl ether has no O-H bond, so its molecules are held together by weaker forces and separate more easily.

Q19Why is a sodium ion, Na^+, smaller than a sodium atom, Na?

(A) It has more electrons than protons.
(B) Its nucleus contains fewer protons.
(C) It has gained an extra electron shell.
(D) It has lost its outer electron shell and its remaining electrons are held by the same nuclear charge.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Forming Na^+ removes the single 3s electron. The remaining ten electrons occupy fewer shells and are pulled closer by the nucleus.

Q20Which statement comparing C-C bonds is correct?

(A) A triple bond is shorter and stronger than a double bond.
(B) A single bond is shorter and stronger than a triple bond.
(C) All C-C bonds have the same enthalpy and length.
(D) A double bond is longer than a single bond.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Greater bond order means the nuclei are pulled closer together and more energy is needed to break the bond.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21How does the reactivity of the halogens change down Group 17?

(A) It decreases because the atoms become less able to gain an electron.
(B) It increases because the atoms become larger.
(C) It stays the same for all halogens.
(D) It decreases because the atoms lose electrons more easily.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Down the group, the incoming electron enters a shell farther from the nucleus and is more shielded, so the halogens become weaker oxidising agents.

Q22Which Period 3 oxide has a giant covalent structure?

(A) Na2O
(B) MgO
(C) Al2O3
(D) SiO2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Silicon dioxide consists of silicon and oxygen atoms joined throughout a three-dimensional covalent network. The sodium, magnesium and aluminium oxides are ionic.

Q23To which class of compound does CH3CH2COOH belong?

(A) Alcohol
(B) Aldehyde
(C) Carboxylic acid
(D) Ester
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The -COOH group identifies the compound as propanoic acid, a carboxylic acid.

Q24What is the general formula of an acyclic alkene containing one C=C bond?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An acyclic monoalkene has two fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding alkane, giving CnH2n.

Q25Why is zinc not regarded as a typical transition metal in IB chemistry?

(A) It does not form any compounds.
(B) Its Zn^2+ ion has a completely filled 3d subshell.
(C) It has no 3d electrons in any state.
(D) It forms only colourless liquids.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc forms only the Zn^2+ ion under normal conditions, and this ion has a full 3d^10 configuration rather than a partially filled d subshell.

Q26Which is the correct order of first ionization energies for Na, Mg and Al?

(A) Mg > Al > Na
(B) Al > Mg > Na
(C) Na > Mg > Al
(D) Mg > Na > Al
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Typical values are Mg = 738, Al = 578 and Na = 496 kJ mol^-1. Aluminium is lower than magnesium because its outer electron is in a higher-energy 3p subshell.

Q27Which reaction will occur when chlorine water is added to aqueous sodium bromide?

(A) Bromine displaces chlorine from sodium chloride.
(B) Iodine displaces bromine from sodium bromide.
(C) No reaction occurs because chlorine is below bromine in Group 17.
(D) Chlorine oxidises bromide ions to bromine.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine is a stronger oxidising agent than bromine, so Cl2 + 2Br^- → 2Cl^- + Br2 occurs.

Q28Which statement about a homologous series is correct?

(A) All members have identical boiling points.
(B) Members have different functional groups.
(C) Members have the same general formula and a gradual trend in physical properties.
(D) Successive members differ by a CH3 group.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Members share the same functional group and general formula, while physical properties change gradually as chain length increases.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29What is an enthalpy change in a chemical reaction?

(A) The change in volume at constant temperature.
(B) The change in entropy of the universe.
(C) The thermal energy change measured at constant pressure.
(D) The minimum energy needed for particles to collide.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Enthalpy change is the heat transferred between a system and its surroundings when a reaction occurs at constant pressure.

Q30The temperature of 100.0 g of water falls by 5.00 K during an endothermic reaction. What is the magnitude of the thermal energy absorbed from the water? The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1.

(A) 0.209 kJ
(B) 20.9 kJ
(C) 209 kJ
(D) 2.09 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Magnitude of q = mcΔT = 100.0 × 4.18 × 5.00 = 2090 J = 2.09 kJ.

Q31Given C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -394 kJ, and CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283 kJ, what is ΔH for C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g)?

(A) -111 kJ
(B) -677 kJ
(C) +111 kJ
(D) -283 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Subtract the second equation from the first: -394 – (-283) = -111 kJ.

Q32Why are bond enthalpy calculations usually only estimates for reactions involving larger molecules?

(A) Bond enthalpies are measured only at absolute zero.
(B) Tabulated bond enthalpies are average values for a bond in many different chemical environments.
(C) Bonds do not break during chemical reactions.
(D) Bond enthalpies apply only to ionic compounds.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The strength of a named bond varies slightly with its surroundings, so average bond enthalpies give approximate rather than exact reaction enthalpies.

Q33Which sample has the greatest entropy?

(A) 1 mol of ice at 273 K.
(B) 1 mol of liquid water at 273 K.
(C) 1 mol of solid sodium chloride at 273 K.
(D) 1 mol of water vapour at 373 K.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Particles in a gas are far more dispersed than in a liquid or solid, so water vapour has the greatest entropy of the listed samples.

Q34Under what condition is a process thermodynamically spontaneous at constant temperature and pressure?

(A) ΔG is negative.
(B) ΔG is positive.
(C) ΔH must be negative.
(D) ΔS must be positive.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At constant temperature and pressure, a process can occur spontaneously when the Gibbs energy change is negative.

Q35What is the sign of the standard enthalpy of formation of a compound if its formation from its elements is exothermic?

(A) Positive.
(B) Negative.
(C) Always zero.
(D) It cannot be determined from the energy change.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An exothermic change transfers energy to the surroundings, so its enthalpy change, including an enthalpy of formation, is negative.

Q36The standard enthalpy of formation of ammonia is -46 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy change for N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)?

(A) -46 kJ
(B) +92 kJ
(C) -92 kJ
(D) -23 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The equation forms 2 mol of NH3, so ΔH = 2 × (-46) = -92 kJ.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37Why does increasing the surface area of a solid reactant increase the reaction rate?

(A) More particles are exposed, so collisions with the other reactant occur more frequently.
(B) It lowers the activation energy of every collision.
(C) It increases the concentration inside the solid.
(D) It changes the reaction into a first-order reaction.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A larger surface area exposes more reactant particles, increasing the frequency of collisions at the surface.

Q38What are the units of the rate constant for a first-order reaction?

(A) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(B) s^-1
(C) dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1
(D) dm^6 mol^-2 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For rate = k[A], k = rate / concentration, and the concentration units cancel, leaving s^-1.

Q39Which statement about a catalyst and the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is correct?

(A) A catalyst shifts the whole distribution to lower energies.
(B) A catalyst increases the total area under the distribution curve.
(C) A catalyst changes the enthalpy change of the reaction.
(D) A catalyst lowers the activation energy, so a larger fraction of molecules can react without changing the distribution.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The temperature and energy distribution stay the same, but the lower activation-energy threshold means more molecules exceed it.

Q40In a set of experiments, doubling the concentration of A while B is constant makes the initial rate four times larger. What is the order with respect to A?

(A) Zero order.
(B) First order.
(C) Second order.
(D) Third order.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The rate is proportional to [A]^2 because 2^2 = 4.

Q41Which change can alter the value of the equilibrium constant Kc for a reaction?

(A) Adding a catalyst.
(B) Changing the temperature.
(C) Changing the initial concentrations.
(D) Increasing the pressure for every reaction.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Kc is temperature dependent. A catalyst speeds up both directions equally, and changing concentrations or pressure changes the position needed to restore equilibrium, not the constant itself.

Q42For N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), what is the effect of increasing the total pressure by reducing the volume?

(A) The equilibrium shifts right because there are more product molecules.
(B) There is no change because both substances are gases.
(C) The equilibrium shifts left towards fewer moles of gas.
(D) The value of Kc decreases at constant temperature.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Increasing pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules. N2O4 is one mole of gas, while the product side has two moles.

Q43A reaction has rate = k[A][B]. If k = 0.500 dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1, [A] = 0.200 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.300 mol dm^-3, what is the rate?

(A) 0.0300 mol dm^-3 s^-1
(B) 0.500 mol dm^-3 s^-1
(C) 0.0600 mol dm^-3 s^-1
(D) 0.00300 mol dm^-3 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rate = 0.500 × 0.200 × 0.300 = 0.0300 mol dm^-3 s^-1.

Q44What is Kc for CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?

(A) Kc = [CaO][CO2] / [CaCO3]
(B) Kc = 1 / [CO2]
(C) Kc = [CaCO3] / ([CaO][CO2])
(D) Kc = [CO2]
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Pure solids are omitted from the equilibrium constant expression because their effective concentrations are constant, leaving only [CO2].

Q45For A(aq) ⇌ B(aq), a mixture starts with [A] = 1.00 mol dm^-3 and no B. At equilibrium, [A] = 0.700 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.300 mol dm^-3. What is Kc?

(A) 0.300
(B) 0.700
(C) 0.429
(D) 2.33
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Kc = [B] / [A] = 0.300 / 0.700 = 0.429.

Q46Which statement about a closed system at equilibrium is correct?

(A) All molecular motion stops.
(B) The amounts of reactants and products must be identical.
(C) The rate of the forward reaction is zero.
(D) Macroscopic properties stay constant although forward and reverse reactions continue.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At dynamic equilibrium, the forward and reverse rates are equal, so composition and macroscopic properties remain constant even though particles continue reacting.

Q47How does reactant concentration vary with time for a zero-order reaction?

(A) It decreases exponentially.
(B) It decreases linearly.
(C) It increases linearly.
(D) It remains constant until the reactant suddenly disappears.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A zero-order reaction has a constant rate, so concentration falls by equal amounts in equal time intervals, giving a straight line with negative slope.

Q48What is the effect of a catalyst on the yield of products at equilibrium?

(A) It does not change the equilibrium yield, but equilibrium is reached faster.
(B) It increases the yield by favouring the forward reaction.
(C) It decreases the yield by favouring the reverse reaction.
(D) It increases Kc for an exothermic reaction.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst accelerates the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the equilibrium position and Kc are unchanged.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49In Bronsted-Lowry theory, what is an acid?

(A) A substance that produces hydroxide ions in water.
(B) An electron-pair acceptor.
(C) A substance that always contains oxygen.
(D) A proton donor.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A Bronsted-Lowry acid donates a proton to a base during an acid-base reaction.

Q50If the pH of a solution decreases by 1, what happens to the hydrogen ion concentration?

(A) It increases by a factor of 10.
(B) It decreases by a factor of 10.
(C) It increases by a factor of 2.
(D) It decreases by 1 mol dm^-3.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The pH scale is logarithmic, so a decrease of one pH unit corresponds to [H^+] becoming ten times greater.

Q51Why is an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride acidic?

(A) Chloride ions donate protons to water.
(B) Ammonium ions accept hydroxide ions from water permanently.
(C) Ammonium ions donate protons to water, forming hydronium ions.
(D) It contains excess hydrochloric acid as an impurity.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

NH4^+ is the conjugate acid of the weak base NH3. It reacts with water: NH4^+ + H2O ⇌ NH3 + H3O^+.

Q52What happens when a small amount of strong acid is added to a buffer made from a weak acid and its conjugate base?

(A) The conjugate base is converted completely into a strong acid.
(B) Most added H^+ ions react with the conjugate base to form the weak acid.
(C) The pH falls by several units immediately.
(D) The weak acid donates protons to neutralise the added acid.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The buffer reservoir of conjugate base removes most of the added H^+, forming more weak acid and limiting the pH change.

Q53In 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s), which species is oxidised?

(A) Mg
(B) O2
(C) MgO
(D) Neither species changes oxidation state.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Magnesium atoms lose electrons and increase in oxidation state from 0 to +2, so magnesium is oxidised.

Q54What energy conversion occurs in a galvanic (voltaic) cell?

(A) Electrical energy is converted into chemical energy.
(B) Thermal energy is converted directly into mass.
(C) Light energy is converted into electrical energy.
(D) Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A galvanic cell uses a spontaneous redox reaction to produce an electric current.

Q55A solution has [OH^-] = 1.0 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3 at 298 K. What is its pH? Use Kw = 1.0 × 10^-14.

(A) 3.00
(B) 11.00
(C) 7.00
(D) 13.00
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

pOH = -log(1.0 × 10^-3) = 3.00. At 298 K, pH + pOH = 14.00, so pH = 11.00.

Q56Which statement describes a weak base in aqueous solution?

(A) It ionises completely.
(B) It has a very large Kb value.
(C) It reacts only partially with water to form hydroxide ions.
(D) Its solution cannot conduct electricity.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A weak base establishes an equilibrium with water and only a small fraction of its particles form OH^- ions.

Q57What is produced at the cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride using inert electrodes?

(A) Sodium metal
(B) Hydrogen gas
(C) Chlorine gas
(D) Oxygen gas
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen ions from water are discharged in preference to sodium ions, so hydrogen gas forms at the cathode. Sodium ions are too difficult to reduce in aqueous solution.

Q58What is the oxidation state of manganese in KMnO4?

(A) +2
(B) +4
(C) +7
(D) -1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Let the oxidation state of Mn be x. x + 1 + 4(-2) = 0, so x = +7.

Q59At 25°C, what is the pH at the equivalence point of a titration between a strong acid and a strong base?

(A) Less than 7.
(B) Greater than 7.
(C) Equal to the pKa of the acid.
(D) 7.00
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The ions formed from a strong acid and a strong base do not hydrolyse appreciably, so the equivalence-point solution is neutral at 25°C.

Q60What type of reaction occurs when propane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light?

(A) Free-radical substitution
(B) Electrophilic addition
(C) Nucleophilic substitution
(D) Complete combustion
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ultraviolet light produces chlorine radicals, which replace hydrogen atoms in the alkane by a free-radical substitution mechanism.