IB Chemistry Practice Test 8
60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).
⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter
Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative mass of approximately 1 and no electric charge?
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Correct: (A)
A neutron has almost the same mass as a proton but carries no charge.
Q2What is the electron configuration of a magnesium ion, Mg^2+?
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Correct: (C)
A magnesium atom loses its two 3s electrons when forming Mg^2+, leaving the stable configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6.
Q3What amount of carbon dioxide is present in 8.8 g of CO2? (Mr: CO2 = 44.0)
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Correct: (B)
n = m / Mr = 8.8 / 44.0 = 0.200 mol.
Q4A student dissolves 0.0500 mol of sodium chloride in water and makes the total volume up to 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (D)
Concentration = 0.0500 mol / 0.250 dm^3 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.
Q5A fixed amount of gas is kept at constant temperature. If its pressure is doubled, what happens to its volume?
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Correct: (C)
At constant temperature, PV is constant for a fixed amount of gas, so doubling P halves V.
Q6How many hydrogen atoms are present in 0.500 mol of hydrogen molecules, H2? The Avogadro constant is 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1.
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Correct: (A)
0.500 mol of H2 contains 1.00 mol of H atoms, so the number of atoms is 6.02 × 10^23.
Q7A sample contains 0.100 mol of carbon atoms, 0.300 mol of hydrogen atoms and 0.100 mol of oxygen atoms. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (D)
Dividing each amount by 0.100 gives the simplest ratio C : H : O = 1 : 3 : 1.
Q8An atom has the electron configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5. What is its atomic number?
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Correct: (B)
The total number of electrons is 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 + 5 = 17, and a neutral atom has the same number of protons.
Q9What amount of solute is present in 20.0 cm^3 of a 0.500 mol dm^-3 solution?
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Correct: (D)
n = cV = 0.500 × 0.0200 = 0.0100 mol.
Q10Hydrogen and oxygen react by 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l). What is the maximum amount of water formed from 0.300 mol of H2 and 0.200 mol of O2?
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Correct: (B)
The 0.300 mol of H2 needs only 0.150 mol of O2, so hydrogen is limiting and forms 0.300 mol of H2O.
🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure
Q11Which statement about a typical ionic compound is correct?
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Correct: (A)
In the solid, ions are locked in the lattice. When molten, the ions can move and carry charge to the electrodes.
Q12What are the shape and H-C-H bond angle in methane, CH4?
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Correct: (C)
Carbon forms four bonding pairs and has no lone pairs, so the electron domains arrange tetrahedrally with 109.5° angles.
Q13Which intermolecular force is present between methane molecules?
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Correct: (B)
Methane is nonpolar and has no permanent dipole, so temporary induced dipoles produce London dispersion forces.
Q14Why does a water molecule have a permanent dipole?
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Correct: (D)
The two polar O-H bonds are arranged at an angle, giving one partially negative end near oxygen and a partially positive region near the hydrogen atoms.
Q15How many bonding pairs and lone pairs are around the nitrogen atom in ammonia, NH3?
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Correct: (C)
Nitrogen uses three electron pairs to bond with hydrogen atoms and retains one lone pair, producing a trigonal pyramidal molecular shape.
Q16Why can metals be hammered into sheets without breaking?
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Correct: (A)
The nondirectional attraction between metal ions and delocalised electrons continues when layers shift, so metals are malleable.
Q17How is silicon dioxide, SiO2, best classified?
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Correct: (C)
Silicon and oxygen atoms are connected by covalent bonds throughout a three-dimensional network, giving SiO2 a very high melting point.
Q18Ethanol has a much higher boiling point than dimethyl ether, although they have the same molecular formula. What is the main reason?
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Correct: (B)
Ethanol has an O-H group and forms intermolecular hydrogen bonds. Dimethyl ether has no O-H bond, so its molecules are held together by weaker forces and separate more easily.
Q19Why is a sodium ion, Na^+, smaller than a sodium atom, Na?
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Correct: (D)
Forming Na^+ removes the single 3s electron. The remaining ten electrons occupy fewer shells and are pulled closer by the nucleus.
Q20Which statement comparing C-C bonds is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Greater bond order means the nuclei are pulled closer together and more energy is needed to break the bond.
📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter
Q21How does the reactivity of the halogens change down Group 17?
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Correct: (A)
Down the group, the incoming electron enters a shell farther from the nucleus and is more shielded, so the halogens become weaker oxidising agents.
Q22Which Period 3 oxide has a giant covalent structure?
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Correct: (D)
Silicon dioxide consists of silicon and oxygen atoms joined throughout a three-dimensional covalent network. The sodium, magnesium and aluminium oxides are ionic.
Q23To which class of compound does CH3CH2COOH belong?
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Correct: (C)
The -COOH group identifies the compound as propanoic acid, a carboxylic acid.
Q24What is the general formula of an acyclic alkene containing one C=C bond?
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Correct: (B)
An acyclic monoalkene has two fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding alkane, giving CnH2n.
Q25Why is zinc not regarded as a typical transition metal in IB chemistry?
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Correct: (B)
Zinc forms only the Zn^2+ ion under normal conditions, and this ion has a full 3d^10 configuration rather than a partially filled d subshell.
Q26Which is the correct order of first ionization energies for Na, Mg and Al?
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Correct: (A)
Typical values are Mg = 738, Al = 578 and Na = 496 kJ mol^-1. Aluminium is lower than magnesium because its outer electron is in a higher-energy 3p subshell.
Q27Which reaction will occur when chlorine water is added to aqueous sodium bromide?
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Correct: (D)
Chlorine is a stronger oxidising agent than bromine, so Cl2 + 2Br^- → 2Cl^- + Br2 occurs.
Q28Which statement about a homologous series is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Members share the same functional group and general formula, while physical properties change gradually as chain length increases.
🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions
Q29What is an enthalpy change in a chemical reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Enthalpy change is the heat transferred between a system and its surroundings when a reaction occurs at constant pressure.
Q30The temperature of 100.0 g of water falls by 5.00 K during an endothermic reaction. What is the magnitude of the thermal energy absorbed from the water? The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1.
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Correct: (D)
Magnitude of q = mcΔT = 100.0 × 4.18 × 5.00 = 2090 J = 2.09 kJ.
Q31Given C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -394 kJ, and CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283 kJ, what is ΔH for C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g)?
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Correct: (A)
Subtract the second equation from the first: -394 – (-283) = -111 kJ.
Q32Why are bond enthalpy calculations usually only estimates for reactions involving larger molecules?
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Correct: (B)
The strength of a named bond varies slightly with its surroundings, so average bond enthalpies give approximate rather than exact reaction enthalpies.
Q33Which sample has the greatest entropy?
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Correct: (D)
Particles in a gas are far more dispersed than in a liquid or solid, so water vapour has the greatest entropy of the listed samples.
Q34Under what condition is a process thermodynamically spontaneous at constant temperature and pressure?
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Correct: (A)
At constant temperature and pressure, a process can occur spontaneously when the Gibbs energy change is negative.
Q35What is the sign of the standard enthalpy of formation of a compound if its formation from its elements is exothermic?
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Correct: (B)
An exothermic change transfers energy to the surroundings, so its enthalpy change, including an enthalpy of formation, is negative.
Q36The standard enthalpy of formation of ammonia is -46 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy change for N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)?
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Correct: (C)
The equation forms 2 mol of NH3, so ΔH = 2 × (-46) = -92 kJ.
⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far
Q37Why does increasing the surface area of a solid reactant increase the reaction rate?
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Correct: (A)
A larger surface area exposes more reactant particles, increasing the frequency of collisions at the surface.
Q38What are the units of the rate constant for a first-order reaction?
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Correct: (B)
For rate = k[A], k = rate / concentration, and the concentration units cancel, leaving s^-1.
Q39Which statement about a catalyst and the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is correct?
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Correct: (D)
The temperature and energy distribution stay the same, but the lower activation-energy threshold means more molecules exceed it.
Q40In a set of experiments, doubling the concentration of A while B is constant makes the initial rate four times larger. What is the order with respect to A?
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Correct: (C)
The rate is proportional to [A]^2 because 2^2 = 4.
Q41Which change can alter the value of the equilibrium constant Kc for a reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Kc is temperature dependent. A catalyst speeds up both directions equally, and changing concentrations or pressure changes the position needed to restore equilibrium, not the constant itself.
Q42For N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), what is the effect of increasing the total pressure by reducing the volume?
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Correct: (C)
Increasing pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules. N2O4 is one mole of gas, while the product side has two moles.
Q43A reaction has rate = k[A][B]. If k = 0.500 dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1, [A] = 0.200 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.300 mol dm^-3, what is the rate?
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Correct: (A)
Rate = 0.500 × 0.200 × 0.300 = 0.0300 mol dm^-3 s^-1.
Q44What is Kc for CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
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Correct: (D)
Pure solids are omitted from the equilibrium constant expression because their effective concentrations are constant, leaving only [CO2].
Q45For A(aq) ⇌ B(aq), a mixture starts with [A] = 1.00 mol dm^-3 and no B. At equilibrium, [A] = 0.700 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.300 mol dm^-3. What is Kc?
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Correct: (C)
Kc = [B] / [A] = 0.300 / 0.700 = 0.429.
Q46Which statement about a closed system at equilibrium is correct?
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Correct: (D)
At dynamic equilibrium, the forward and reverse rates are equal, so composition and macroscopic properties remain constant even though particles continue reacting.
Q47How does reactant concentration vary with time for a zero-order reaction?
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Correct: (B)
A zero-order reaction has a constant rate, so concentration falls by equal amounts in equal time intervals, giving a straight line with negative slope.
Q48What is the effect of a catalyst on the yield of products at equilibrium?
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst accelerates the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the equilibrium position and Kc are unchanged.
⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change
Q49In Bronsted-Lowry theory, what is an acid?
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Correct: (D)
A Bronsted-Lowry acid donates a proton to a base during an acid-base reaction.
Q50If the pH of a solution decreases by 1, what happens to the hydrogen ion concentration?
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Correct: (A)
The pH scale is logarithmic, so a decrease of one pH unit corresponds to [H^+] becoming ten times greater.
Q51Why is an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride acidic?
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Correct: (C)
NH4^+ is the conjugate acid of the weak base NH3. It reacts with water: NH4^+ + H2O ⇌ NH3 + H3O^+.
Q52What happens when a small amount of strong acid is added to a buffer made from a weak acid and its conjugate base?
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Correct: (B)
The buffer reservoir of conjugate base removes most of the added H^+, forming more weak acid and limiting the pH change.
Q53In 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s), which species is oxidised?
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Correct: (A)
Magnesium atoms lose electrons and increase in oxidation state from 0 to +2, so magnesium is oxidised.
Q54What energy conversion occurs in a galvanic (voltaic) cell?
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Correct: (D)
A galvanic cell uses a spontaneous redox reaction to produce an electric current.
Q55A solution has [OH^-] = 1.0 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3 at 298 K. What is its pH? Use Kw = 1.0 × 10^-14.
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Correct: (B)
pOH = -log(1.0 × 10^-3) = 3.00. At 298 K, pH + pOH = 14.00, so pH = 11.00.
Q56Which statement describes a weak base in aqueous solution?
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Correct: (C)
A weak base establishes an equilibrium with water and only a small fraction of its particles form OH^- ions.
Q57What is produced at the cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride using inert electrodes?
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Correct: (B)
Hydrogen ions from water are discharged in preference to sodium ions, so hydrogen gas forms at the cathode. Sodium ions are too difficult to reduce in aqueous solution.
Q58What is the oxidation state of manganese in KMnO4?
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Correct: (C)
Let the oxidation state of Mn be x. x + 1 + 4(-2) = 0, so x = +7.
Q59At 25°C, what is the pH at the equivalence point of a titration between a strong acid and a strong base?
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Correct: (D)
The ions formed from a strong acid and a strong base do not hydrolyse appreciably, so the equivalence-point solution is neutral at 25°C.
Q60What type of reaction occurs when propane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light?
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Correct: (A)
Ultraviolet light produces chlorine radicals, which replace hydrogen atoms in the alkane by a free-radical substitution mechanism.
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