IB Chemistry Practice Test 5

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1Which sample contains the greatest number of molecules?

(A) 4.00 g H2
(B) 32.0 g O2
(C) 44.0 g CO2
(D) 18.0 g H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

4.00 g / 2.02 g mol^-1 is approx. 2.00 mol H2. Each other sample is approx. 1.00 mol.

Q2A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CH4O
(B) CH2O
(C) C2H4O2
(D) CHO2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mole ratio C:H:O = 40.0/12.01 : 6.7/1.01 : 53.3/16.00 = 3.33:6.63:3.33 = 1:2:1.

Q3What is the ground-state electron configuration of Fe^2+?

(A) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^4
(B) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5
(C) [Ar] 3d^6
(D) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fe is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. The two 4s electrons are removed first when Fe^2+ forms.

Q4What volume is occupied by 0.250 mol of an ideal gas at 273 K and 100 kPa? The molar volume at these conditions is 22.7 dm^3 mol^-1.

(A) 2.27 dm^3
(B) 9.08 dm^3
(C) 90.8 dm^3
(D) 5.68 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = 0.250 mol × 22.7 dm^3 mol^-1 = 5.68 dm^3.

Q5A 25.0 cm^3 sample of 0.200 mol dm^-3 solution is diluted with water to a total volume of 250.0 cm^3. What is the new concentration?

(A) 0.0200 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.500 mol dm^-3
(D) 2.00 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Amount = 0.0250 × 0.200 = 0.00500 mol. Concentration = 0.00500 / 0.2500 = 0.0200 mol dm^-3.

Q6An element has isotopes of mass numbers 69 and 71 with abundances of 60.0% and 40.0%. What is its relative atomic mass?

(A) 69.0
(B) 69.8
(C) 70.0
(D) 70.2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Relative atomic mass = (0.600 × 69) + (0.400 × 71) = 69.8.

Q7How many ions in total are present in 0.500 mol of CaCl2?

(A) 3.01 × 10^23
(B) 6.02 × 10^23
(C) 9.03 × 10^23
(D) 1.20 × 10^24
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each formula unit gives 3 ions, so amount of ions = 3 × 0.500 = 1.50 mol. Number = 1.50 × 6.02 × 10^23 = 9.03 × 10^23.

Q8A fixed amount of gas is compressed to half its original volume and its absolute temperature is doubled. By what factor does its pressure change?

(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

P2/P1 = (T2/T1)(V1/V2) = 2 × 2 = 4.

Q9Hydrogen and oxygen react by 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. What is the maximum amount of water formed from 0.300 mol H2 and 0.200 mol O2?

(A) 0.300 mol
(B) 0.400 mol
(C) 0.200 mol
(D) 0.600 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The 0.300 mol H2 requires only 0.150 mol O2, so H2 is limiting and forms 0.300 mol H2O.

Q10The theoretical yield of a product is 12.0 g and the actual yield is 9.60 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 8.00%
(B) 80.0%
(C) 96.0%
(D) 125%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (9.60 / 12.0) × 100 = 80.0%.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11What is the molecular geometry of BF3?

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Bent
(C) Trigonal planar
(D) Trigonal pyramidal
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Boron has three bonding domains and no lone pair, giving a trigonal planar geometry.

Q12Which intermolecular force is mainly responsible for the high boiling point of water?

(A) London dispersion forces
(B) Dipole-dipole forces
(C) Ionic bonding
(D) Hydrogen bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Water molecules form extensive hydrogen bonds through their O-H bonds and lone pairs.

Q13Which molecule has a central atom with an expanded octet?

(A) SF6
(B) NH3
(C) H2O
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sulfur in SF6 is surrounded by 12 bonding electrons, so its octet is expanded.

Q14What is the approximate H-N-H bond angle in NH3?

(A) 90°
(B) 107°
(C) 120°
(D) 180°
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NH3 has a trigonal pyramidal geometry. Its lone pair compresses the ideal tetrahedral angle to approx. 107°.

Q15Which substance has a giant covalent structure?

(A) NaCl
(B) H2O
(C) SiO2
(D) CO2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silicon dioxide consists of a continuous network of strong covalent bonds.

Q16Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

(A) HCl
(B) Cl2
(C) NaCl
(D) NH4Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

NH4Cl has ionic bonding between NH4^+ and Cl^- and covalent N-H bonds within NH4^+.

Q17Which carbon allotrope conducts electricity because it has delocalized electrons within layers?

(A) Graphite
(B) Diamond
(C) Fullerene C60 as a molecular solid
(D) Carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Graphite has delocalized electrons in its two-dimensional layers, allowing electrical conduction along the layers.

Q18What is the molecular geometry of H2O?

(A) Linear
(B) Bent
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) Trigonal planar
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen has two bonding pairs and two lone pairs. The electron geometry is tetrahedral but the molecular geometry is bent.

Q19Which metal has the strongest metallic bonding?

(A) Na
(B) K
(C) Mg
(D) Rb
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mg contributes two valence electrons per atom and has a smaller ionic radius than the Group 1 metals listed, giving stronger metallic bonding.

Q20Which molecule is nonpolar although it contains polar bonds?

(A) HCl
(B) NH3
(C) H2O
(D) CO2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

CO2 is linear, so its two equal C=O bond dipoles act in opposite directions and cancel.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21Which property of the oxides increases most consistently from Na2O to Cl2O7 across Period 3?

(A) Acidic character
(B) Metallic character
(C) Basic character
(D) Ionic character in every oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Period 3 oxides change from basic metal oxides through amphoteric Al2O3 to acidic non-metal oxides.

Q22Why does first ionization energy decrease down Group 1?

(A) The nuclear charge decreases
(B) The outer electron is farther from the nucleus and more shielded
(C) The atoms gain extra electron shells that attract the outer electron more strongly
(D) The outer electron is in a lower energy level
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Down the group, greater distance and shielding outweigh the increased nuclear charge, so the outer electron is removed more easily.

Q23Which observation about transition metals is explained by their partially filled d sub-shell?

(A) They always form colourless ions
(B) They have only one oxidation state
(C) Many of their compounds are coloured
(D) They cannot act as catalysts
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Electron transitions between split d orbitals absorb visible light, producing coloured transition-metal compounds.

Q24Which functional group is present in ethanoic acid?

(A) Hydroxyl only
(B) Ketone
(C) Ether
(D) Carboxyl
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ethanoic acid contains the carboxyl group, -COOH.

Q25Adjacent members of a homologous series differ by which group?

(A) H2
(B) CH
(C) CH3
(D) CH2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each successive member of a homologous series has one additional CH2 unit.

Q26Which alcohol is a secondary alcohol?

(A) Methanol
(B) Propan-1-ol
(C) Propan-2-ol
(D) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In propan-2-ol, the carbon bonded to -OH is attached to two other carbon atoms.

Q27Which molecular formula could represent an alkene?

(A) C4H10
(B) C4H8
(C) C4H6
(D) C4H12
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acyclic alkenes follow CnH2n. For n = 4, the formula is C4H8.

Q28Why does atomic radius decrease across a period?

(A) The nuclear charge increases while electrons enter the same main shell
(B) The number of occupied shells increases
(C) Shielding increases greatly across the period
(D) The atoms lose all their valence electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Increased nuclear charge pulls electrons in the same shell closer to the nucleus, reducing atomic radius.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29In an exothermic reaction, which statement is correct?

(A) The products have a higher enthalpy than the reactants
(B) The products have a lower enthalpy than the reactants
(C) The enthalpy change is positive
(D) Energy is absorbed from the surroundings
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Exothermic reactions release energy and have products at lower enthalpy, so ΔH is negative.

Q30When 100.0 g of water in a calorimeter rises in temperature by 10.0°C, how much heat is absorbed by the water? The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1.

(A) 0.418 kJ
(B) 41.8 kJ
(C) 4.18 kJ
(D) 418 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

q = mcΔT = 100.0 × 4.18 × 10.0 = 4180 J = 4.18 kJ.

Q31Given A → B, ΔH = +20 kJ mol^-1 and B → C, ΔH = -50 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for A → C?

(A) +70 kJ mol^-1
(B) -70 kJ mol^-1
(C) +30 kJ mol^-1
(D) -30 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hess's law: ΔH = (+20) + (-50) = -30 kJ mol^-1.

Q32Using bond enthalpies H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242 and H-Cl = 431 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl?

(A) -184 kJ mol^-1
(B) +184 kJ mol^-1
(C) -92 kJ mol^-1
(D) +678 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678. Bonds formed = 2 × 431 = 862. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ mol^-1.

Q33Which process increases the entropy of the system?

(A) Freezing water
(B) Evaporating water
(C) Condensing steam
(D) Depositing iodine vapour as a solid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Liquid molecules become much more dispersed in the gas phase, increasing entropy.

Q34A reaction has ΔH = -40.0 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = -100 J K^-1 mol^-1. What is ΔG at 300 K?

(A) -70.0 kJ mol^-1
(B) +10.0 kJ mol^-1
(C) -10.0 kJ mol^-1
(D) +70.0 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = -40.0 – 300(-0.100) = -10.0 kJ mol^-1.

Q35Which statement defines the standard enthalpy of formation of a compound?

(A) The energy released when one mole of the compound burns completely
(B) The energy needed to break one mole of bonds in the gas phase
(C) The enthalpy change when one mole of a substance reacts with oxygen
(D) The enthalpy change when one mole of the compound forms from its elements in their standard states
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Standard enthalpy of formation refers to forming one mole of a compound from its elements under standard conditions.

Q36During a reaction in an insulated calorimeter, the temperature of the solution decreases. What does this show about the reaction?

(A) It is endothermic
(B) It is exothermic
(C) It has a negative enthalpy change
(D) It must be at equilibrium
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The reaction absorbs heat from the solution, so the solution cools and ΔH is positive.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37For N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, which expression gives the rate of reaction?

(A) -d[NH3]/dt
(B) +d[H2]/dt
(C) +1/2 d[NH3]/dt
(D) -3 d[N2]/dt
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The rate is the rate of formation of NH3 divided by its stoichiometric coefficient, 2.

Q38For a reaction, doubling [A] has no effect on the rate, while doubling [B] increases the rate by a factor of four. What is the rate law?

(A) Rate = k[A][B]
(B) Rate = k[A]^2[B]
(C) Rate = k[A][B]^2
(D) Rate = k[B]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

No change with [A] means zero order in A. A fourfold rate increase when [B] doubles means second order in B.

Q39What happens to a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve when temperature increases?

(A) The total area stays the same and the peak shifts to higher energy
(B) The total area increases and the peak shifts to lower energy
(C) The total area decreases and the peak shifts to higher energy
(D) The curve is unchanged
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The number of particles is unchanged, so the area is constant. A larger fraction has higher energy and the peak moves right and becomes lower.

Q40How does a catalyst increase reaction rate?

(A) It increases the enthalpy change of reaction
(B) It provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy
(C) It increases the equilibrium constant
(D) It prevents all reverse reactions
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst provides a different reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.

Q41A first-order reaction has k = 0.0693 s^-1. What is its half-life?

(A) 0.100 s
(B) 5.00 s
(C) 14.4 s
(D) 10.0 s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

t1/2 = ln 2 / k = 0.693 / 0.0693 = 10.0 s.

Q42What is the equilibrium constant expression for N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)?

(A) Kc = [NO2]^2 / [N2O4]
(B) Kc = [NO2] / [N2O4]
(C) Kc = [N2O4] / [NO2]^2
(D) Kc = [NO2]^2 / [N2O4]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Products are raised to their stoichiometric coefficients and divided by reactants raised to theirs.

Q43The reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 is exothermic. What happens when the temperature is increased at equilibrium?

(A) More NH3 forms
(B) The equilibrium shifts toward the reactants
(C) Only the forward rate increases
(D) The equilibrium position is unchanged
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Increasing temperature favours the endothermic reverse reaction, shifting equilibrium toward N2 and H2.

Q44For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), what is the effect of increasing the pressure at constant temperature?

(A) Equilibrium shifts toward reactants because there are fewer gas molecules there
(B) There is no shift because a catalyst is absent
(C) Equilibrium shifts toward products because there are fewer gas molecules there
(D) The value of Kc increases
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

There are 3 mol of gas on the left and 2 mol on the right, so increased pressure shifts equilibrium toward SO3.

Q45At a particular instant, Q is less than K for a reversible reaction. What is the direction of net reaction?

(A) Toward products
(B) Toward reactants
(C) No net reaction can occur
(D) Toward whichever side has more moles
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

If Q < K, more products must form until Q reaches K.

Q46Which statement best describes a system at dynamic equilibrium?

(A) All molecular motion stops
(B) The forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
(C) The concentrations of reactants and products must be equal
(D) The forward reaction is complete
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In dynamic equilibrium, both reactions continue but at equal rates, so macroscopic properties remain constant.

Q47At equilibrium for A ⇌ B, [A] = 0.200 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.400 mol dm^-3. What is Kc?

(A) 0.500
(B) 1.00
(C) 2.00
(D) 8.00
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Kc = [B] / [A] = 0.400 / 0.200 = 2.00.

Q48What is the effect of adding a catalyst to an equilibrium mixture?

(A) It shifts equilibrium toward products
(B) It shifts equilibrium toward reactants
(C) It increases the value of K
(D) Equilibrium is reached faster but its position is unchanged
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst speeds both forward and reverse reactions equally and does not change K or the equilibrium position.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49What is the pH of 0.0100 mol dm^-3 HCl?

(A) 1.00
(B) 12.00
(C) 10.00
(D) 2.00
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

HCl is a strong acid, so [H^+] = 0.0100 = 10^-2 and pH = 2.00.

Q50What is the conjugate base of HCO3^-?

(A) CO3^2-
(B) H2CO3
(C) CO2
(D) OH^-
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Removing H^+ from HCO3^- gives CO3^2-.

Q51Which mixture forms a buffer solution?

(A) A strong acid and its salt
(B) A weak acid and its salt
(C) A strong acid and a strong base
(D) A weak base and a strong acid in equal amounts
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A buffer contains appreciable amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base, commonly supplied as its salt.

Q52What is the oxidation number of sulfur in SO4^2-?

(A) +2
(B) +4
(C) +6
(D) -2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Let the sulfur oxidation number be x: x + 4(-2) = -2, so x = +6.

Q53In Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s), which species is oxidized?

(A) Zn
(B) Cu^2+
(C) Zn^2+
(D) Cu
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zn changes from oxidation number 0 to +2, so it loses electrons and is oxidized.

Q54A cell uses E°(Cu^2+/Cu) = +0.34 V at the cathode and E°(Zn^2+/Zn) = -0.76 V at the anode. What is E°cell?

(A) -0.42 V
(B) +1.10 V
(C) -1.10 V
(D) +0.42 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

E°cell = E°cathode – E°anode = 0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10 V.

Q55What forms at the cathode during electrolysis of molten NaCl?

(A) Cl2
(B) O2
(C) Na
(D) H2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Na^+ ions gain electrons at the cathode to form sodium metal.

Q56What is the major product when bromoethane reacts with aqueous OH^- by nucleophilic substitution?

(A) Ethene
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethanoic acid
(D) Ethanol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

OH^- replaces Br, producing ethanol.

Q57What is the pH at the equivalence point when a weak acid is titrated with a strong base?

(A) Exactly 3.00
(B) Greater than 7
(C) Exactly 7
(D) Less than 7
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The conjugate base formed hydrolyses water to produce OH^-, making the equivalence-point solution basic.

Q58A buffer has pKa = 4.70 and equal concentrations of the weak acid and its conjugate base. What is its pH?

(A) 2.35
(B) 7.00
(C) 4.70
(D) 9.30
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 4.70 + log(1) = 4.70.

Q59During electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 with inert electrodes, what is produced at the anode?

(A) Cu
(B) H2
(C) SO2
(D) O2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Water is oxidized at the anode, producing oxygen gas.

Q60Which term describes the reaction of HBr with an alkene to form a bromoalkane?

(A) Electrophilic addition
(B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Free-radical substitution
(D) Elimination
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The pi bond of the alkene is attacked by an electrophile in the first step of electrophilic addition.