IB Chemistry Practice Test 5
60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).
⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter
Q1Which sample contains the greatest number of molecules?
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Correct: (A)
4.00 g / 2.02 g mol^-1 is approx. 2.00 mol H2. Each other sample is approx. 1.00 mol.
Q2A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (B)
Mole ratio C:H:O = 40.0/12.01 : 6.7/1.01 : 53.3/16.00 = 3.33:6.63:3.33 = 1:2:1.
Q3What is the ground-state electron configuration of Fe^2+?
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Correct: (C)
Fe is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. The two 4s electrons are removed first when Fe^2+ forms.
Q4What volume is occupied by 0.250 mol of an ideal gas at 273 K and 100 kPa? The molar volume at these conditions is 22.7 dm^3 mol^-1.
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Correct: (D)
Volume = 0.250 mol × 22.7 dm^3 mol^-1 = 5.68 dm^3.
Q5A 25.0 cm^3 sample of 0.200 mol dm^-3 solution is diluted with water to a total volume of 250.0 cm^3. What is the new concentration?
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Correct: (A)
Amount = 0.0250 × 0.200 = 0.00500 mol. Concentration = 0.00500 / 0.2500 = 0.0200 mol dm^-3.
Q6An element has isotopes of mass numbers 69 and 71 with abundances of 60.0% and 40.0%. What is its relative atomic mass?
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Correct: (B)
Relative atomic mass = (0.600 × 69) + (0.400 × 71) = 69.8.
Q7How many ions in total are present in 0.500 mol of CaCl2?
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Correct: (C)
Each formula unit gives 3 ions, so amount of ions = 3 × 0.500 = 1.50 mol. Number = 1.50 × 6.02 × 10^23 = 9.03 × 10^23.
Q8A fixed amount of gas is compressed to half its original volume and its absolute temperature is doubled. By what factor does its pressure change?
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Correct: (D)
P2/P1 = (T2/T1)(V1/V2) = 2 × 2 = 4.
Q9Hydrogen and oxygen react by 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. What is the maximum amount of water formed from 0.300 mol H2 and 0.200 mol O2?
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Correct: (A)
The 0.300 mol H2 requires only 0.150 mol O2, so H2 is limiting and forms 0.300 mol H2O.
Q10The theoretical yield of a product is 12.0 g and the actual yield is 9.60 g. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage yield = (9.60 / 12.0) × 100 = 80.0%.
🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure
Q11What is the molecular geometry of BF3?
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Correct: (C)
Boron has three bonding domains and no lone pair, giving a trigonal planar geometry.
Q12Which intermolecular force is mainly responsible for the high boiling point of water?
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Correct: (D)
Water molecules form extensive hydrogen bonds through their O-H bonds and lone pairs.
Q13Which molecule has a central atom with an expanded octet?
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Correct: (A)
Sulfur in SF6 is surrounded by 12 bonding electrons, so its octet is expanded.
Q14What is the approximate H-N-H bond angle in NH3?
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Correct: (B)
NH3 has a trigonal pyramidal geometry. Its lone pair compresses the ideal tetrahedral angle to approx. 107°.
Q15Which substance has a giant covalent structure?
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Correct: (C)
Silicon dioxide consists of a continuous network of strong covalent bonds.
Q16Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?
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Correct: (D)
NH4Cl has ionic bonding between NH4^+ and Cl^- and covalent N-H bonds within NH4^+.
Q17Which carbon allotrope conducts electricity because it has delocalized electrons within layers?
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Correct: (A)
Graphite has delocalized electrons in its two-dimensional layers, allowing electrical conduction along the layers.
Q18What is the molecular geometry of H2O?
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen has two bonding pairs and two lone pairs. The electron geometry is tetrahedral but the molecular geometry is bent.
Q19Which metal has the strongest metallic bonding?
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Correct: (C)
Mg contributes two valence electrons per atom and has a smaller ionic radius than the Group 1 metals listed, giving stronger metallic bonding.
Q20Which molecule is nonpolar although it contains polar bonds?
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Correct: (D)
CO2 is linear, so its two equal C=O bond dipoles act in opposite directions and cancel.
📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter
Q21Which property of the oxides increases most consistently from Na2O to Cl2O7 across Period 3?
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Correct: (A)
Period 3 oxides change from basic metal oxides through amphoteric Al2O3 to acidic non-metal oxides.
Q22Why does first ionization energy decrease down Group 1?
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Correct: (B)
Down the group, greater distance and shielding outweigh the increased nuclear charge, so the outer electron is removed more easily.
Q23Which observation about transition metals is explained by their partially filled d sub-shell?
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Correct: (C)
Electron transitions between split d orbitals absorb visible light, producing coloured transition-metal compounds.
Q24Which functional group is present in ethanoic acid?
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Correct: (D)
Ethanoic acid contains the carboxyl group, -COOH.
Q25Adjacent members of a homologous series differ by which group?
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Correct: (D)
Each successive member of a homologous series has one additional CH2 unit.
Q26Which alcohol is a secondary alcohol?
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Correct: (C)
In propan-2-ol, the carbon bonded to -OH is attached to two other carbon atoms.
Q27Which molecular formula could represent an alkene?
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Correct: (B)
Acyclic alkenes follow CnH2n. For n = 4, the formula is C4H8.
Q28Why does atomic radius decrease across a period?
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Correct: (A)
Increased nuclear charge pulls electrons in the same shell closer to the nucleus, reducing atomic radius.
🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions
Q29In an exothermic reaction, which statement is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Exothermic reactions release energy and have products at lower enthalpy, so ΔH is negative.
Q30When 100.0 g of water in a calorimeter rises in temperature by 10.0°C, how much heat is absorbed by the water? The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1.
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Correct: (C)
q = mcΔT = 100.0 × 4.18 × 10.0 = 4180 J = 4.18 kJ.
Q31Given A → B, ΔH = +20 kJ mol^-1 and B → C, ΔH = -50 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for A → C?
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Correct: (D)
Hess's law: ΔH = (+20) + (-50) = -30 kJ mol^-1.
Q32Using bond enthalpies H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242 and H-Cl = 431 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl?
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678. Bonds formed = 2 × 431 = 862. ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ mol^-1.
Q33Which process increases the entropy of the system?
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Correct: (B)
Liquid molecules become much more dispersed in the gas phase, increasing entropy.
Q34A reaction has ΔH = -40.0 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = -100 J K^-1 mol^-1. What is ΔG at 300 K?
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Correct: (C)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = -40.0 – 300(-0.100) = -10.0 kJ mol^-1.
Q35Which statement defines the standard enthalpy of formation of a compound?
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Correct: (D)
Standard enthalpy of formation refers to forming one mole of a compound from its elements under standard conditions.
Q36During a reaction in an insulated calorimeter, the temperature of the solution decreases. What does this show about the reaction?
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Correct: (A)
The reaction absorbs heat from the solution, so the solution cools and ΔH is positive.
⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far
Q37For N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, which expression gives the rate of reaction?
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Correct: (C)
The rate is the rate of formation of NH3 divided by its stoichiometric coefficient, 2.
Q38For a reaction, doubling [A] has no effect on the rate, while doubling [B] increases the rate by a factor of four. What is the rate law?
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Correct: (D)
No change with [A] means zero order in A. A fourfold rate increase when [B] doubles means second order in B.
Q39What happens to a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve when temperature increases?
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Correct: (A)
The number of particles is unchanged, so the area is constant. A larger fraction has higher energy and the peak moves right and becomes lower.
Q40How does a catalyst increase reaction rate?
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst provides a different reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.
Q41A first-order reaction has k = 0.0693 s^-1. What is its half-life?
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Correct: (D)
t1/2 = ln 2 / k = 0.693 / 0.0693 = 10.0 s.
Q42What is the equilibrium constant expression for N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)?
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Correct: (A)
Products are raised to their stoichiometric coefficients and divided by reactants raised to theirs.
Q43The reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 is exothermic. What happens when the temperature is increased at equilibrium?
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Correct: (B)
Increasing temperature favours the endothermic reverse reaction, shifting equilibrium toward N2 and H2.
Q44For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), what is the effect of increasing the pressure at constant temperature?
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Correct: (C)
There are 3 mol of gas on the left and 2 mol on the right, so increased pressure shifts equilibrium toward SO3.
Q45At a particular instant, Q is less than K for a reversible reaction. What is the direction of net reaction?
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Correct: (A)
If Q < K, more products must form until Q reaches K.
Q46Which statement best describes a system at dynamic equilibrium?
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Correct: (B)
In dynamic equilibrium, both reactions continue but at equal rates, so macroscopic properties remain constant.
Q47At equilibrium for A ⇌ B, [A] = 0.200 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.400 mol dm^-3. What is Kc?
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Correct: (C)
Kc = [B] / [A] = 0.400 / 0.200 = 2.00.
Q48What is the effect of adding a catalyst to an equilibrium mixture?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst speeds both forward and reverse reactions equally and does not change K or the equilibrium position.
⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change
Q49What is the pH of 0.0100 mol dm^-3 HCl?
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Correct: (D)
HCl is a strong acid, so [H^+] = 0.0100 = 10^-2 and pH = 2.00.
Q50What is the conjugate base of HCO3^-?
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Correct: (A)
Removing H^+ from HCO3^- gives CO3^2-.
Q51Which mixture forms a buffer solution?
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Correct: (B)
A buffer contains appreciable amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base, commonly supplied as its salt.
Q52What is the oxidation number of sulfur in SO4^2-?
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Correct: (C)
Let the sulfur oxidation number be x: x + 4(-2) = -2, so x = +6.
Q53In Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s), which species is oxidized?
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Correct: (A)
Zn changes from oxidation number 0 to +2, so it loses electrons and is oxidized.
Q54A cell uses E°(Cu^2+/Cu) = +0.34 V at the cathode and E°(Zn^2+/Zn) = -0.76 V at the anode. What is E°cell?
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Correct: (B)
E°cell = E°cathode – E°anode = 0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10 V.
Q55What forms at the cathode during electrolysis of molten NaCl?
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Correct: (C)
Na^+ ions gain electrons at the cathode to form sodium metal.
Q56What is the major product when bromoethane reacts with aqueous OH^- by nucleophilic substitution?
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Correct: (D)
OH^- replaces Br, producing ethanol.
Q57What is the pH at the equivalence point when a weak acid is titrated with a strong base?
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Correct: (B)
The conjugate base formed hydrolyses water to produce OH^-, making the equivalence-point solution basic.
Q58A buffer has pKa = 4.70 and equal concentrations of the weak acid and its conjugate base. What is its pH?
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Correct: (C)
pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 4.70 + log(1) = 4.70.
Q59During electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 with inert electrodes, what is produced at the anode?
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Correct: (D)
Water is oxidized at the anode, producing oxygen gas.
Q60Which term describes the reaction of HBr with an alkene to form a bromoalkane?
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Correct: (A)
The pi bond of the alkene is attacked by an electrophile in the first step of electrophilic addition.
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