IB Chemistry Practice Test 4

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1How many ions are formed from 0.500 mol of NaCl when it dissolves completely?

(A) 6.02 × 10^23 ions
(B) 3.01 × 10^23 ions
(C) 1.20 × 10^24 ions
(D) 2 ions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each NaCl formula unit forms two ions, so 0.500 mol of NaCl forms 1.00 mol of ions, which is 6.02 × 10^23 ions.

Q2What is the electron configuration of a Mg^2+ ion?

(A) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2
(B) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5
(C) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6
(D) [Ar]
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A magnesium atom loses its two 3s electrons, leaving the neon configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6.

Q3What is the molar mass of glucose, C6H12O6?

(A) 90.0 g mol^-1
(B) 120 g mol^-1
(C) 150 g mol^-1
(D) 180 g mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Molar mass = 6(12.01) + 12(1.008) + 6(16.00) = 180 g mol^-1 to three significant figures.

Q4A gas contains 0.200 mol in a volume of 5.00 dm^3 at 300 K. What is its pressure?

(A) 50.0 kPa
(B) 99.7 kPa
(C) 150 kPa
(D) 499 kPa
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

p = nRT / V = (0.200 × 8.31 × 300) / 5.00 = 99.7 kPa.

Q5What is the percentage by mass of hydrogen in water?

(A) 11.1%
(B) 5.56%
(C) 88.9%
(D) 22.2%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage of H = (2 × 1.008 / 18.02) × 100 = 11.1%.

Q6A 25.0 cm^3 sample of 2.00 mol dm^-3 acid is diluted with water to a final volume of 250 cm^3. What is the new concentration?

(A) 0.0200 mol dm^-3
(B) 2.00 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.400 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The amount of acid does not change. Concentration = 2.00 × (25.0 / 250) = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q7Methane burns according to CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l). How much oxygen is needed to burn 0.500 mol of methane completely?

(A) 0.250 mol
(B) 0.500 mol
(C) 2.00 mol
(D) 1.00 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The mole ratio CH4:O2 is 1:2, so 0.500 mol of methane requires 1.00 mol of oxygen.

Q8An element has two isotopes, ^10X with 20.0% abundance and ^11X with 80.0% abundance. What is its relative atomic mass?

(A) 10.2
(B) 10.8
(C) 10.5
(D) 11.0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Average mass = (0.200 × 10) + (0.800 × 11) = 10.8.

Q9A compound has the percentage composition C = 40.0%, H = 6.70% and O = 53.3%. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CH2O
(B) C2H4O2
(C) CHO
(D) CH4O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mole ratio = C: 40.0 / 12 = 3.33, H: 6.70 / 1 = 6.70, O: 53.3 / 16 = 3.33. Dividing by 3.33 gives 1:2:1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.

Q10A photoelectron spectrum has peaks corresponding to electron configurations 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^6 and 3s^2. Which element is it?

(A) Na
(B) Ne
(C) Mg
(D) Al
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The peaks account for 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 = 12 electrons, which is magnesium.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11Ionic bonding is best described as

(A) sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms
(B) attraction between metal cations and a sea of electrons
(C) a weak attraction between permanent dipoles
(D) electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ionic compounds consist of positive and negative ions held together by electrostatic attraction in a lattice.

Q12What is the molecular geometry of a water molecule?

(A) Linear
(B) Bent
(C) Trigonal planar
(D) Tetrahedral
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen has two bonding pairs and two lone pairs. The electron geometry is tetrahedral, but the molecular geometry is bent.

Q13Which force is mainly responsible for the unusually high boiling point of HF compared with HCl?

(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) Ionic bonding
(C) Covalent bonding between molecules
(D) Metallic bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen attached to the very electronegative fluorine atom can form hydrogen bonds with neighbouring molecules.

Q14Silicon dioxide, SiO2, is best classified as a

(A) simple molecular solid
(B) metallic solid
(C) giant covalent solid
(D) ionic solid
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silicon and oxygen atoms are joined by covalent bonds in a continuous three-dimensional network.

Q15Graphite conducts electricity because it has

(A) mobile ions throughout the solid
(B) alternating positive and negative ions
(C) only single bonds between all carbon atoms
(D) delocalized electrons within its layers
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each carbon atom contributes an electron to a delocalized system within a layer, allowing charge to move.

Q16How many sigma bonds are present in one molecule of ethene, C2H4?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene has four C-H sigma bonds and one C-C sigma bond, for a total of five sigma bonds. The second component of the double bond is a pi bond.

Q17Which substance has the lowest melting point?

(A) CO2
(B) SiO2
(C) MgO
(D) Diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon dioxide forms a simple molecular solid with weak forces between molecules. The other solids have giant structures with strong bonding throughout.

Q18What is the formal charge on nitrogen in NH4+?

(A) -1
(B) 0
(C) +1
(D) +4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Formal charge = 5 valence electrons – [0 non-bonding electrons + 1/2(8 bonding electrons)] = +1.

Q19Which bond is the most polar?

(A) H-H
(B) H-C
(C) H-Cl
(D) H-F
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Fluorine has the greatest electronegativity of these atoms, so the H-F bond has the largest electronegativity difference.

Q20What is the bond order in the cyanide ion, CN-?

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The best Lewis structure of CN- has a triple bond between carbon and nitrogen.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21How do the oxides change in character across Period 3 from sodium to chlorine?

(A) From basic to acidic
(B) From acidic to basic
(C) They are all neutral
(D) They are all basic
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metal oxides on the left are basic, aluminium oxide is amphoteric, and non-metal oxides toward the right are acidic.

Q22What is the electron configuration of an Fe^3+ ion?

(A) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^3
(B) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^4
(C) [Ar] 3d^5
(D) [Ar] 3d^6
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Iron is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. Forming Fe^3+ removes the two 4s electrons and one 3d electron, leaving [Ar] 3d^5.

Q23Chlorine water displaces bromine from aqueous potassium bromide because

(A) chlorine is a weaker oxidizing agent than bromine
(B) bromine is more reactive than chlorine
(C) potassium bromide is insoluble
(D) chlorine is a stronger oxidizing agent than bromine
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine oxidizes Br- to Br2 because chlorine is more reactive and is a stronger oxidizing agent.

Q24What is the general formula for an alcohol with one -OH group?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+1OH
(C) CnH2nO2
(D) CnHnOH
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A saturated acyclic alcohol with one hydroxyl group has the general formula CnH2n+1OH.

Q25The -COO- linkage is characteristic of which class of organic compounds?

(A) Esters
(B) Ketones
(C) Amines
(D) Alkenes
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An ester contains a carbon atom double-bonded to oxygen and single-bonded to another oxygen atom, written as -COO-.

Q26An atom has the electron configuration [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. Which element is it?

(A) Ca
(B) Cr
(C) Fe
(D) Co
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The configuration contains 26 electrons in a neutral atom, so the element is iron, Fe.

Q27How does the reactivity of the Group 1 metals change down the group?

(A) It decreases because the outer electron is closer to the nucleus
(B) It stays the same for all metals
(C) It decreases because ionization energy increases
(D) It increases because the outer electron is farther from the nucleus and is lost more easily
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Down Group 1, the outer electron is in a shell farther from the nucleus and experiences more shielding, so it is removed more easily.

Q28Structural isomers are compounds that have

(A) the same structural formula but different molecular formulas
(B) the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms
(C) different numbers of carbon atoms only
(D) the same arrangement of atoms but different charges
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Isomers have identical molecular formulas. Structural isomers differ in how their atoms are connected.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29The standard enthalpy change of combustion is the enthalpy change when

(A) one mole of a substance burns completely in oxygen under standard conditions
(B) one mole of a compound forms from its elements
(C) one mole of bonds is broken in the gas phase
(D) an acid completely neutralizes a base
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Standard enthalpy of combustion refers to complete combustion of one mole of a substance in oxygen under standard conditions.

Q30How much heat is released to 200 g of water when a reaction causes its temperature to rise by 3.00°C? The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1.

(A) 836 J
(B) 1670 J
(C) 2510 J
(D) 4180 J
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Heat absorbed by the water = 200 × 4.18 × 3.00 = 2510 J, so the reaction released 2510 J.

Q31The enthalpy of combustion of CO is -283 kJ mol^-1 for CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g). What is ΔH for 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)?

(A) -283 kJ
(B) -141.5 kJ
(C) +566 kJ
(D) -566 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The target equation is twice the given equation, so ΔH = 2 × (-283) = -566 kJ.

Q32Using average bond enthalpies H-H = 436 kJ mol^-1, F-F = 159 kJ mol^-1 and H-F = 567 kJ mol^-1, what is the estimated ΔH for H2(g) + F2(g) → 2HF(g)?

(A) +539 kJ mol^-1
(B) -539 kJ mol^-1
(C) -270 kJ mol^-1
(D) -28 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bonds broken = 436 + 159 = 595 kJ. Bonds formed = 2 × 567 = 1134 kJ. ΔH = 595 – 1134 = -539 kJ mol^-1.

Q33On an enthalpy level diagram for an endothermic reaction, the products are

(A) at a higher enthalpy than the reactants
(B) at a lower enthalpy than the reactants
(C) at exactly the same enthalpy as the reactants
(D) always gases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An endothermic reaction absorbs energy, so the products have greater enthalpy than the reactants and ΔH is positive.

Q34Which change decreases the entropy of the system?

(A) A solid melts
(B) A gas expands into a larger container
(C) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
(D) A liquid evaporates
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The reaction converts 3 mol of gas into 2 mol of gas, reducing the number of freely moving particles.

Q35A reaction has ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0. At which temperatures is it spontaneous?

(A) At all temperatures
(B) At no temperature
(C) Only at low temperatures
(D) Only at sufficiently high temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. With both terms positive, the -TΔS term can make ΔG negative only when T is high enough.

Q36For the neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base, the standard enthalpy change is closest to

(A) -5.7 kJ mol^-1
(B) -57 kJ mol^-1
(C) -570 kJ mol^-1
(D) +57 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Strong acid and strong base neutralizations are dominated by H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l), with ΔH of about -57 kJ mol^-1.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37In a rate experiment, [A] is kept constant while [B] is doubled and the rate doubles. When [B] is kept constant and [A] is doubled, the rate does not change. What is the rate law?

(A) rate = k[B]
(B) rate = k[A]
(C) rate = k[A][B]
(D) rate = k[B]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The rate is directly proportional to [B], so it is first order in B, and it is zero order in A.

Q38A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction. What is the effect on the forward and reverse activation energies of a reversible reaction?

(A) Only the forward activation energy decreases
(B) Only the reverse activation energy decreases
(C) Both activation energies decrease
(D) Neither activation energy changes
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The catalysed pathway lowers the energy of the transition state relative to both reactants and products.

Q39Which statement about a catalyst and a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is correct?

(A) A catalyst increases the total area under the curve
(B) A catalyst shifts the peak to a higher energy
(C) A catalyst raises the temperature of the particles
(D) A catalyst does not change the distribution, but more collisions exceed the lower activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst does not change the energies of the particles. It lowers the activation energy, so a larger fraction of collisions is successful.

Q40What is the equilibrium constant expression for 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)?

(A) Kc = [SO3] / ([SO2][O2])
(B) Kc = [SO3]^2 / ([SO2]^2[O2])
(C) Kc = ([SO2]^2[O2]) / [SO3]^2
(D) Kc = [SO3]^2 / ([SO2] + [O2])
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Concentrations are raised to their stoichiometric coefficients: two for SO3, two for SO2 and one for O2.

Q41For A(g) ⇌ B(g), the initial concentration of A is 1.00 mol dm^-3. At equilibrium, [A] = 0.250 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.750 mol dm^-3. What is Kc?

(A) 3.00
(B) 0.333
(C) 0.750
(D) 1.33
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Kc = [B] / [A] = 0.750 / 0.250 = 3.00.

Q42The reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) is at equilibrium in a closed container. What happens when the volume is decreased?

(A) The equilibrium shifts toward NO and O2
(B) There is no change in the equilibrium position
(C) The equilibrium shifts toward NO2
(D) The value of Kc decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Decreasing the volume increases the pressure. The equilibrium shifts toward the side with fewer moles of gas, which is the product side with 2 mol rather than 3 mol.

Q43Which statement describes a system at dynamic equilibrium?

(A) The concentrations of reactants and products are equal
(B) Both reactions have stopped
(C) The forward reaction occurs but the reverse reaction does not
(D) The forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At dynamic equilibrium, both reactions continue at the same rate, so the macroscopic concentrations remain constant.

Q44What are the units of the rate constant for a first-order reaction?

(A) dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1
(B) s^-1
(C) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(D) mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For a first-order reaction, rate = k[A]. Therefore k = rate / concentration, and the concentration units cancel, leaving s^-1.

Q45For a zero-order reaction, the half-life

(A) depends on the initial concentration
(B) is always independent of the initial concentration
(C) is the same as for a first-order reaction
(D) has units of s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

For zero-order kinetics, t1/2 = [A]0 / 2k, so a larger initial concentration gives a longer half-life.

Q46According to the Arrhenius equation, increasing the temperature increases the rate constant mainly because

(A) the activation energy becomes zero
(B) the frequency factor becomes negative
(C) a greater fraction of molecules has energy at least equal to the activation energy
(D) the reaction becomes less endothermic
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The exponential term in the Arrhenius equation increases with temperature, so more molecular collisions can overcome the activation energy barrier.

Q47Adding aqueous sodium chloride to a saturated solution of silver chloride decreases the solubility of AgCl because

(A) NaCl reacts with AgCl to form a gas
(B) the temperature falls sharply
(C) the pressure increases
(D) Cl- is a common ion and shifts AgCl(s) ⇌ Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) toward the solid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The added chloride ion increases [Cl-], so the dissolution equilibrium shifts left and less AgCl dissolves.

Q48For a reversible reaction at a given temperature, Q = 0.20 and Kc = 2.0. What is the direction of the net reaction?

(A) Toward the reactants
(B) Toward the products
(C) No net reaction occurs
(D) The reaction is complete
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Q is less than Kc, so more product must form until Q equals Kc.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49What is the pH of 0.00100 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution?

(A) 11.0
(B) 3.00
(C) 1.00
(D) 13.0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

[OH-] = 0.00100, so pOH = 3.00 and pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.0.

Q50A 0.100 mol dm^-3 weak acid has pH 3.00. What is its Ka, using the usual approximation?

(A) 1.0 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3
(B) 1.0 × 10^-6 mol dm^-3
(C) 1.0 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3
(D) 1.0 × 10^-1 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

[H+] = 1.0 × 10^-3. Ka is approximately [H+]^2 / 0.100 = (1.0 × 10^-3)^2 / 0.100 = 1.0 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3.

Q51In an acid-base titration, the equivalence point is the point at which

(A) the indicator first changes colour permanently
(B) the pH is always exactly 7
(C) excess acid has been added
(D) the acid and base have reacted in their stoichiometric ratio
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At the equivalence point, the amounts of acid and base match the stoichiometry of the reaction. The end point is the observed indicator change close to it.

Q52An aqueous solution of NH4Cl is acidic because

(A) Cl- reacts with water to form HCl
(B) NH4+ reacts with water to form H3O+
(C) NH4Cl contains free H+ ions as part of its formula
(D) water becomes a strong acid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NH4+ is the conjugate acid of NH3 and donates a proton to water, producing H3O+.

Q53What is the oxidation state of sulfur in H2SO4?

(A) +6
(B) +4
(C) -2
(D) 0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The oxidation states sum to zero: 2(+1) + S + 4(-2) = 0, so S = +6.

Q54Standard reduction potentials are Zn^2+/Zn = -0.76 V, Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V and Ag+/Ag = +0.80 V. Which metal is the strongest reducing agent?

(A) Cu
(B) Ag
(C) Zn
(D) Cu^2+
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc has the most negative reduction potential, so Zn is oxidized most readily and is the strongest reducing agent of the three metals.

Q55In a voltaic cell, electrons flow through the external circuit from the

(A) cathode to the anode
(B) salt bridge to the cathode
(C) positive electrode to the negative electrode only
(D) anode to the cathode
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxidation at the anode releases electrons, which travel through the external circuit to the cathode, where reduction occurs.

Q56What is formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide?

(A) Bromine
(B) Lead
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Pb^2+ ions move to the cathode and are reduced: Pb^2+ + 2e- → Pb.

Q57In the reaction of 1-bromobutane with aqueous hydroxide, the hydroxide ion acts by

(A) attacking the carbon bonded to bromine as a nucleophile
(B) removing a proton from oxygen
(C) acting as an electrophile
(D) breaking the O-H bond homolytically
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

OH- donates a pair of electrons to the electron-deficient carbon bonded to bromine, beginning nucleophilic substitution.

Q58In free-radical substitution of methane, the initiation step involves

(A) heterolytic fission of Cl2 by visible light
(B) formation of a carbocation
(C) homolytic fission of Cl2 by ultraviolet light
(D) attack by a nucleophile
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ultraviolet light supplies energy for Cl2 to split into two chlorine radicals, one electron going to each atom.

Q59Propan-1-ol is heated under reflux with acidified potassium dichromate(VI). What is the main organic product?

(A) Propene
(B) Propanal only
(C) Propanone
(D) Propanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Under reflux with excess oxidizing agent, a primary alcohol is oxidized fully to the carboxylic acid.

Q60Which mixture can act as a buffer?

(A) A strong acid and its salt
(B) A weak acid and a salt containing its conjugate base
(C) A strong base and a strong acid in equal amounts
(D) Pure water and sodium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A buffer needs significant amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base so it can react with added H+ or OH-.