IB Chemistry Practice Test 4
60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).
⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter
Q1How many ions are formed from 0.500 mol of NaCl when it dissolves completely?
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Correct: (A)
Each NaCl formula unit forms two ions, so 0.500 mol of NaCl forms 1.00 mol of ions, which is 6.02 × 10^23 ions.
Q2What is the electron configuration of a Mg^2+ ion?
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Correct: (C)
A magnesium atom loses its two 3s electrons, leaving the neon configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6.
Q3What is the molar mass of glucose, C6H12O6?
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Correct: (D)
Molar mass = 6(12.01) + 12(1.008) + 6(16.00) = 180 g mol^-1 to three significant figures.
Q4A gas contains 0.200 mol in a volume of 5.00 dm^3 at 300 K. What is its pressure?
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Correct: (B)
p = nRT / V = (0.200 × 8.31 × 300) / 5.00 = 99.7 kPa.
Q5What is the percentage by mass of hydrogen in water?
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Correct: (A)
Percentage of H = (2 × 1.008 / 18.02) × 100 = 11.1%.
Q6A 25.0 cm^3 sample of 2.00 mol dm^-3 acid is diluted with water to a final volume of 250 cm^3. What is the new concentration?
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Correct: (C)
The amount of acid does not change. Concentration = 2.00 × (25.0 / 250) = 0.200 mol dm^-3.
Q7Methane burns according to CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l). How much oxygen is needed to burn 0.500 mol of methane completely?
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Correct: (D)
The mole ratio CH4:O2 is 1:2, so 0.500 mol of methane requires 1.00 mol of oxygen.
Q8An element has two isotopes, ^10X with 20.0% abundance and ^11X with 80.0% abundance. What is its relative atomic mass?
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Correct: (B)
Average mass = (0.200 × 10) + (0.800 × 11) = 10.8.
Q9A compound has the percentage composition C = 40.0%, H = 6.70% and O = 53.3%. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (A)
Mole ratio = C: 40.0 / 12 = 3.33, H: 6.70 / 1 = 6.70, O: 53.3 / 16 = 3.33. Dividing by 3.33 gives 1:2:1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.
Q10A photoelectron spectrum has peaks corresponding to electron configurations 1s^2, 2s^2, 2p^6 and 3s^2. Which element is it?
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Correct: (C)
The peaks account for 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 = 12 electrons, which is magnesium.
🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure
Q11Ionic bonding is best described as
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Correct: (D)
Ionic compounds consist of positive and negative ions held together by electrostatic attraction in a lattice.
Q12What is the molecular geometry of a water molecule?
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen has two bonding pairs and two lone pairs. The electron geometry is tetrahedral, but the molecular geometry is bent.
Q13Which force is mainly responsible for the unusually high boiling point of HF compared with HCl?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen attached to the very electronegative fluorine atom can form hydrogen bonds with neighbouring molecules.
Q14Silicon dioxide, SiO2, is best classified as a
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Correct: (C)
Silicon and oxygen atoms are joined by covalent bonds in a continuous three-dimensional network.
Q15Graphite conducts electricity because it has
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Correct: (D)
Each carbon atom contributes an electron to a delocalized system within a layer, allowing charge to move.
Q16How many sigma bonds are present in one molecule of ethene, C2H4?
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Correct: (B)
Ethene has four C-H sigma bonds and one C-C sigma bond, for a total of five sigma bonds. The second component of the double bond is a pi bond.
Q17Which substance has the lowest melting point?
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Correct: (A)
Carbon dioxide forms a simple molecular solid with weak forces between molecules. The other solids have giant structures with strong bonding throughout.
Q18What is the formal charge on nitrogen in NH4+?
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Correct: (C)
Formal charge = 5 valence electrons – [0 non-bonding electrons + 1/2(8 bonding electrons)] = +1.
Q19Which bond is the most polar?
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Correct: (D)
Fluorine has the greatest electronegativity of these atoms, so the H-F bond has the largest electronegativity difference.
Q20What is the bond order in the cyanide ion, CN-?
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Correct: (B)
The best Lewis structure of CN- has a triple bond between carbon and nitrogen.
📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter
Q21How do the oxides change in character across Period 3 from sodium to chlorine?
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Correct: (A)
Metal oxides on the left are basic, aluminium oxide is amphoteric, and non-metal oxides toward the right are acidic.
Q22What is the electron configuration of an Fe^3+ ion?
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Correct: (C)
Iron is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. Forming Fe^3+ removes the two 4s electrons and one 3d electron, leaving [Ar] 3d^5.
Q23Chlorine water displaces bromine from aqueous potassium bromide because
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Correct: (D)
Chlorine oxidizes Br- to Br2 because chlorine is more reactive and is a stronger oxidizing agent.
Q24What is the general formula for an alcohol with one -OH group?
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Correct: (B)
A saturated acyclic alcohol with one hydroxyl group has the general formula CnH2n+1OH.
Q25The -COO- linkage is characteristic of which class of organic compounds?
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Correct: (A)
An ester contains a carbon atom double-bonded to oxygen and single-bonded to another oxygen atom, written as -COO-.
Q26An atom has the electron configuration [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. Which element is it?
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Correct: (C)
The configuration contains 26 electrons in a neutral atom, so the element is iron, Fe.
Q27How does the reactivity of the Group 1 metals change down the group?
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Correct: (D)
Down Group 1, the outer electron is in a shell farther from the nucleus and experiences more shielding, so it is removed more easily.
Q28Structural isomers are compounds that have
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Correct: (B)
Isomers have identical molecular formulas. Structural isomers differ in how their atoms are connected.
🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions
Q29The standard enthalpy change of combustion is the enthalpy change when
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Correct: (A)
Standard enthalpy of combustion refers to complete combustion of one mole of a substance in oxygen under standard conditions.
Q30How much heat is released to 200 g of water when a reaction causes its temperature to rise by 3.00°C? The specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1.
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Correct: (C)
Heat absorbed by the water = 200 × 4.18 × 3.00 = 2510 J, so the reaction released 2510 J.
Q31The enthalpy of combustion of CO is -283 kJ mol^-1 for CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g). What is ΔH for 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)?
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Correct: (D)
The target equation is twice the given equation, so ΔH = 2 × (-283) = -566 kJ.
Q32Using average bond enthalpies H-H = 436 kJ mol^-1, F-F = 159 kJ mol^-1 and H-F = 567 kJ mol^-1, what is the estimated ΔH for H2(g) + F2(g) → 2HF(g)?
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Correct: (B)
Bonds broken = 436 + 159 = 595 kJ. Bonds formed = 2 × 567 = 1134 kJ. ΔH = 595 – 1134 = -539 kJ mol^-1.
Q33On an enthalpy level diagram for an endothermic reaction, the products are
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Correct: (A)
An endothermic reaction absorbs energy, so the products have greater enthalpy than the reactants and ΔH is positive.
Q34Which change decreases the entropy of the system?
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Correct: (C)
The reaction converts 3 mol of gas into 2 mol of gas, reducing the number of freely moving particles.
Q35A reaction has ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0. At which temperatures is it spontaneous?
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Correct: (D)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. With both terms positive, the -TΔS term can make ΔG negative only when T is high enough.
Q36For the neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base, the standard enthalpy change is closest to
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Correct: (B)
Strong acid and strong base neutralizations are dominated by H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l), with ΔH of about -57 kJ mol^-1.
⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far
Q37In a rate experiment, [A] is kept constant while [B] is doubled and the rate doubles. When [B] is kept constant and [A] is doubled, the rate does not change. What is the rate law?
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Correct: (A)
The rate is directly proportional to [B], so it is first order in B, and it is zero order in A.
Q38A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction. What is the effect on the forward and reverse activation energies of a reversible reaction?
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Correct: (C)
The catalysed pathway lowers the energy of the transition state relative to both reactants and products.
Q39Which statement about a catalyst and a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is correct?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst does not change the energies of the particles. It lowers the activation energy, so a larger fraction of collisions is successful.
Q40What is the equilibrium constant expression for 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)?
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Correct: (B)
Concentrations are raised to their stoichiometric coefficients: two for SO3, two for SO2 and one for O2.
Q41For A(g) ⇌ B(g), the initial concentration of A is 1.00 mol dm^-3. At equilibrium, [A] = 0.250 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.750 mol dm^-3. What is Kc?
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Correct: (A)
Kc = [B] / [A] = 0.750 / 0.250 = 3.00.
Q42The reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) is at equilibrium in a closed container. What happens when the volume is decreased?
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Correct: (C)
Decreasing the volume increases the pressure. The equilibrium shifts toward the side with fewer moles of gas, which is the product side with 2 mol rather than 3 mol.
Q43Which statement describes a system at dynamic equilibrium?
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Correct: (D)
At dynamic equilibrium, both reactions continue at the same rate, so the macroscopic concentrations remain constant.
Q44What are the units of the rate constant for a first-order reaction?
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Correct: (B)
For a first-order reaction, rate = k[A]. Therefore k = rate / concentration, and the concentration units cancel, leaving s^-1.
Q45For a zero-order reaction, the half-life
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Correct: (A)
For zero-order kinetics, t1/2 = [A]0 / 2k, so a larger initial concentration gives a longer half-life.
Q46According to the Arrhenius equation, increasing the temperature increases the rate constant mainly because
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Correct: (C)
The exponential term in the Arrhenius equation increases with temperature, so more molecular collisions can overcome the activation energy barrier.
Q47Adding aqueous sodium chloride to a saturated solution of silver chloride decreases the solubility of AgCl because
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Correct: (D)
The added chloride ion increases [Cl-], so the dissolution equilibrium shifts left and less AgCl dissolves.
Q48For a reversible reaction at a given temperature, Q = 0.20 and Kc = 2.0. What is the direction of the net reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Q is less than Kc, so more product must form until Q equals Kc.
⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change
Q49What is the pH of 0.00100 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution?
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Correct: (A)
[OH-] = 0.00100, so pOH = 3.00 and pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.0.
Q50A 0.100 mol dm^-3 weak acid has pH 3.00. What is its Ka, using the usual approximation?
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Correct: (C)
[H+] = 1.0 × 10^-3. Ka is approximately [H+]^2 / 0.100 = (1.0 × 10^-3)^2 / 0.100 = 1.0 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3.
Q51In an acid-base titration, the equivalence point is the point at which
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Correct: (D)
At the equivalence point, the amounts of acid and base match the stoichiometry of the reaction. The end point is the observed indicator change close to it.
Q52An aqueous solution of NH4Cl is acidic because
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Correct: (B)
NH4+ is the conjugate acid of NH3 and donates a proton to water, producing H3O+.
Q53What is the oxidation state of sulfur in H2SO4?
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Correct: (A)
The oxidation states sum to zero: 2(+1) + S + 4(-2) = 0, so S = +6.
Q54Standard reduction potentials are Zn^2+/Zn = -0.76 V, Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V and Ag+/Ag = +0.80 V. Which metal is the strongest reducing agent?
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Correct: (C)
Zinc has the most negative reduction potential, so Zn is oxidized most readily and is the strongest reducing agent of the three metals.
Q55In a voltaic cell, electrons flow through the external circuit from the
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Correct: (D)
Oxidation at the anode releases electrons, which travel through the external circuit to the cathode, where reduction occurs.
Q56What is formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide?
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Correct: (B)
Pb^2+ ions move to the cathode and are reduced: Pb^2+ + 2e- → Pb.
Q57In the reaction of 1-bromobutane with aqueous hydroxide, the hydroxide ion acts by
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Correct: (A)
OH- donates a pair of electrons to the electron-deficient carbon bonded to bromine, beginning nucleophilic substitution.
Q58In free-radical substitution of methane, the initiation step involves
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Correct: (C)
Ultraviolet light supplies energy for Cl2 to split into two chlorine radicals, one electron going to each atom.
Q59Propan-1-ol is heated under reflux with acidified potassium dichromate(VI). What is the main organic product?
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Correct: (D)
Under reflux with excess oxidizing agent, a primary alcohol is oxidized fully to the carboxylic acid.
Q60Which mixture can act as a buffer?
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Correct: (B)
A buffer needs significant amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base so it can react with added H+ or OH-.
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