IB Chemistry Practice Test 20

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1Which sample contains the greatest total number of atoms?

(A) 0.50 mol of H2O
(B) 1.0 mol of He
(C) 0.40 mol of CH4
(D) 0.60 mol of NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Amount of atoms: H2O: 0.50 × 3 = 1.5 mol; He: 1.0 mol; CH4: 0.40 × 5 = 2.0 mol; NH3: 0.60 × 4 = 2.4 mol, which is the greatest.

Q2What is the ground-state electron configuration of a copper atom?

(A) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10
(B) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^9
(C) [Ar] 3d^10
(D) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^10
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is an exception to the expected filling order: a completely filled 3d subshell with a single 4s electron is more stable than 4s^2 3d^9.

Q3What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Mr of H2SO4 = 98)

(A) 16.3%
(B) 32.7%
(C) 65.3%
(D) 98.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mass of oxygen in one mole = 4 × 16 = 64 g; percentage = (64 / 98) × 100 = 65.3%.

Q4A sample of 0.500 mol of an ideal gas occupies 12.0 dm^3 at 300 K. What is its pressure, in kPa? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 52 kPa
(B) 104 kPa
(C) 208 kPa
(D) 1247 kPa
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

P = nRT / V = (0.500 × 8.31 × 300) / 12.0 = 104 kPa (using V in dm^3 gives P in kPa).

Q5At RTP, the molar volume of a gas is 24 dm^3 mol^-1. What amount of carbon dioxide occupies 48 dm^3 at RTP?

(A) 0.50 mol
(B) 1.0 mol
(C) 4.0 mol
(D) 2.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

n = V / molar volume = 48 / 24 = 2.0 mol.

Q625.0 cm^3 of a 2.00 mol dm^-3 solution is diluted with water to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?

(A) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.500 mol dm^-3
(C) 2.00 mol dm^-3
(D) 20.0 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The amount of solute does not change on dilution: c2 = 2.00 × (25.0 / 250) = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q7What mass of sodium hydroxide, NaOH (Mr = 40.0), is dissolved in 250 cm^3 of a 0.400 mol dm^-3 solution?

(A) 1.00 g
(B) 16.0 g
(C) 4.00 g
(D) 40.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

n = 0.250 × 0.400 = 0.100 mol; mass = 0.100 × 40.0 = 4.00 g.

Q8Boron consists of two isotopes, ^10B with 20% abundance and ^11B with 80% abundance. What is the relative atomic mass of boron?

(A) 10.2
(B) 10.8
(C) 11.0
(D) 10.5
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ar = (0.20 × 10) + (0.80 × 11) = 2.0 + 8.8 = 10.8.

Q9Why does the temperature of a boiling liquid remain constant even though heat is supplied continuously?

(A) The particles stop moving once the boiling point is reached
(B) No energy is absorbed by the liquid once boiling starts
(C) All the supplied energy is converted into kinetic energy of the particles
(D) The supplied energy is used to separate the particles against intermolecular forces rather than to increase their average kinetic energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

During a change of state at constant temperature, the energy absorbed increases the potential energy (separation) of the particles; their average kinetic energy, and hence the temperature, stays constant.

Q10A compound contains only 1.4 g of nitrogen and 0.30 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: N = 14, H = 1)

(A) NH3
(B) NH2
(C) N2H3
(D) NH
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

N: 1.4 / 14 = 0.10 mol; H: 0.30 / 1 = 0.30 mol. The ratio 0.10 : 0.30 simplifies to 1 : 3, giving NH3.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11Which molecule has a linear shape?

(A) H2O
(B) NH3
(C) CO2
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon dioxide has two electron domains around the central carbon atom and no lone pairs on it, so the molecule is linear with a bond angle of 180°.

Q12How many lone pairs of electrons are there on the oxygen atom in a water molecule?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen has 6 valence electrons; two are used in the bonds to the hydrogen atoms, leaving four electrons as two lone pairs.

Q13Which bond is the most polar?

(A) H-H
(B) C-H
(C) O-H
(D) H-F
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bond polarity increases with the difference in electronegativity between the atoms, and this difference is greatest for H-F because fluorine is the most electronegative element.

Q14Which substance has a giant covalent (network) structure?

(A) Silicon dioxide, SiO2
(B) Iodine, I2
(C) Carbon dioxide, CO2
(D) Sulfur, S8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In SiO2 each silicon atom is covalently bonded to four oxygen atoms in one continuous network; I2, CO2 and S8 consist of discrete molecules.

Q15Which substance conducts electricity when molten but not when solid?

(A) Graphite
(B) Copper
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In solid sodium chloride the ions are locked in the lattice and cannot move; when molten, the ions are free to move and carry the charge. Copper and graphite conduct in the solid state as well.

Q16Why does diamond have a very high melting point?

(A) It has weak forces between separate molecules
(B) A large number of strong covalent bonds must be broken to melt it
(C) Its electrons are delocalized throughout the structure
(D) It contains strong ionic bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Diamond is a giant covalent structure in which every carbon is bonded to four others; melting requires breaking many strong covalent bonds.

Q17In which molecule does the central atom have an expanded octet?

(A) BF3
(B) NH3
(C) CH4
(D) SF6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In SF6 the sulfur atom is surrounded by 12 electrons (6 bonding pairs), which is more than an octet. BF3 has only 6 electrons around boron, and N and C in the others have 8.

Q18What is the strongest type of intermolecular force present in liquid hydrogen chloride, HCl?

(A) Permanent dipole-dipole attractions
(B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Ionic bonding
(D) Covalent bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

HCl is a polar molecule, but hydrogen is not bonded to N, O or F, so true hydrogen bonding does not occur; permanent dipole-dipole attractions are the strongest intermolecular forces (stronger here than London dispersion forces).

Q19Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

(A) O2
(B) CO2
(C) N2
(D) Cl2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrogen molecules are held together by a triple bond, consisting of one sigma bond and two pi bonds.

Q20Which Period 3 metal has the highest melting point?

(A) Sodium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Magnesium
(D) All three have the same melting point
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Aluminium atoms contribute three electrons each to the delocalized electron sea, giving stronger metallic bonding than magnesium (two electrons) or sodium (one electron), so aluminium has the highest melting point.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21Which element is a transition metal?

(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Lead
(D) Iron
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Iron is a transition metal: it has a partially filled d subshell, forms coloured compounds and shows variable oxidation states. Calcium, aluminium and lead are main-group metals.

Q22Which property generally decreases across Period 3 from sodium to chlorine?

(A) Metallic character
(B) Electronegativity
(C) First ionization energy
(D) Atomic number
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Across the period the elements change from metallic to non-metallic, so metallic character decreases; electronegativity, first ionization energy and atomic number all increase.

Q23The colours of transition metal complexes are mainly caused by:

(A) Emission of light by s electrons
(B) Completely empty d orbitals
(C) Electrons moving between d orbitals that have been split in energy by ligands
(D) The presence of ionic bonding in the complex
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ligands split the d orbitals into groups of different energies; electrons absorb visible light as they are promoted between these groups, and the colour seen is complementary to the colour absorbed.

Q24What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2. (CnH2n applies to alkenes and CnH2n-2 to alkynes.)

Q25Which compound is an isomer of butane, C4H10?

(A) Propane
(B) Pentane
(C) 2-methylbutane
(D) 2-methylpropane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

2-methylpropane has the same molecular formula, C4H10, but a different structural arrangement from butane.

Q26What is the IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3?

(A) Butan-2-ol
(B) Butan-1-ol
(C) Propan-2-ol
(D) Pentan-2-ol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The longest chain containing the -OH group has 4 carbons, and the hydroxyl group is on carbon 2, giving butan-2-ol.

Q27Which compound is an ester?

(A) CH3COOH
(B) CH3CH2OH
(C) CH3COOCH3
(D) CH3CHO
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CH3COOCH3 (methyl ethanoate) contains the ester functional group, -COO-. CH3COOH is a carboxylic acid, CH3CH2OH an alcohol and CH3CHO an aldehyde.

Q28Which of these Period 3 elements has the highest first ionization energy?

(A) Mg
(B) P
(C) Al
(D) Si
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

First ionization energy generally increases across the period, and phosphorus, the furthest right of these elements, also benefits from a stable half-filled 3p subshell, so it has the highest value.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q2950.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid is mixed with 50.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide and the temperature of the mixture rises by 6.8 °C. What is the enthalpy of neutralization, in kJ mol^-1? (Assume the total mass of solution is 100 g and c = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1)

(A) -5.68
(B) -28.4
(C) -568
(D) -56.8
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

q = 100 × 4.18 × 6.8 = 2842 J released; n(H2O formed) = 0.0500 × 1.00 = 0.0500 mol; ΔH = -2842 / 0.0500 = -56.8 kJ mol^-1.

Q30Which process is endothermic?

(A) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(B) Combustion of methane
(C) Neutralization of an acid by an alkali
(D) Condensation of steam
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Thermal decomposition requires a continuous input of heat, so it is endothermic; combustion, neutralization and condensation all release energy to the surroundings.

Q31Given that the standard enthalpy change of formation of CO(g) is -110 kJ mol^-1 and of CO2(g) is -394 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for the reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)?

(A) -284 kJ
(B) -568 kJ
(C) +568 kJ
(D) -788 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ΔH = [2 × (-394)] – [2 × (-110) + 0] = -788 + 220 = -568 kJ.

Q32Estimate ΔH for the hydrogenation of ethene, C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g), using bond enthalpies: C=C = 614, H-H = 436, C-C = 347 and C-H = 413 kJ mol^-1.

(A) +123 kJ mol^-1
(B) +210 kJ mol^-1
(C) -123 kJ mol^-1
(D) -1050 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bonds broken: C=C + H-H = 614 + 436 = 1050 kJ; bonds formed: C-C + 2(C-H) = 347 + 826 = 1173 kJ; ΔH = 1050 – 1173 = -123 kJ mol^-1.

Q33Which equation represents the standard enthalpy change of formation of methanol, CH3OH(l)?

(A) C(s) + 2H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CH3OH(l)
(B) CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(l)
(C) C(s) + 4H(g) + O(g) → CH3OH(l)
(D) CH4(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CH3OH(l)
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The enthalpy change of formation is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of a compound is formed from its elements in their standard states, which only option (A) shows.

Q34Which sample has the greatest entropy?

(A) 1 mol of H2O(s) at 0 °C
(B) 1 mol of H2O(l) at 25 °C
(C) 1 mol of NaCl(s) at 25 °C
(D) 1 mol of H2O(g) at 100 °C
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Gases have a far greater degree of disorder than liquids or solids, so steam has the greatest entropy of the samples listed.

Q35A reaction has ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0. Under which conditions is the reaction spontaneous?

(A) At all temperatures
(B) Only at low temperatures
(C) Only at high temperatures
(D) At no temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. With ΔS negative, the -TΔS term is positive; it becomes small enough for ΔG to be negative only at low temperatures.

Q36Which process corresponds to the lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride?

(A) NaCl(s) → Na(s) + 1/2 Cl2(g)
(B) Na^+(aq) + Cl^-(aq) → NaCl(s)
(C) NaCl(s) → Na^+(g) + Cl^-(g)
(D) Na(g) + Cl(g) → NaCl(s)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Lattice enthalpy is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of an ionic solid is broken apart into its separate gaseous ions.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37The rate constant of a reaction has units dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1. What is the overall order of the reaction?

(A) Second order
(B) First order
(C) Zero order
(D) Third order
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rate constants with units dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1 are characteristic of second-order reactions (first order: s^-1; zero order: mol dm^-3 s^-1).

Q38On a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve, how does adding a catalyst change the diagram?

(A) The whole curve shifts to higher energies
(B) The total area under the curve increases
(C) The activation energy marked on the axis increases
(D) The activation energy is lowered, so a greater fraction of the particles has energy greater than or equal to Ea
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst lowers Ea without changing the distribution of particle energies, so the fraction of particles able to react successfully increases.

Q39Initial rate data for a reaction: Experiment 1: [A] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, [B] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, rate = 0.020; Experiment 2: [A] = 0.20 mol dm^-3, [B] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, rate = 0.040; Experiment 3: [A] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, [B] = 0.20 mol dm^-3, rate = 0.020. What is the rate law for the reaction?

(A) rate = k[A][B]
(B) rate = k[A]
(C) rate = k[B]
(D) rate = k[A]^2[B]
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Doubling [A] (experiments 1 to 2) doubles the rate, so the reaction is first order in A; doubling [B] (experiments 1 to 3) leaves the rate unchanged, so it is zero order in B.

Q40Why does a small rise in temperature usually cause a large increase in the rate of a reaction?

(A) The activation energy of the reaction decreases
(B) The reaction becomes more exothermic
(C) A much larger fraction of the particles has energy greater than or equal to the activation energy
(D) The particles become larger and therefore collide more often
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Although collision frequency rises slightly, the main effect is the large increase in the fraction of collisions with E ≥ Ea.

Q41What is the equilibrium constant expression, Kc, for the reaction CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?

(A) Kc = [CO2]
(B) Kc = [CaO][CO2] / [CaCO3]
(C) Kc = 1 / [CO2]
(D) Kc = [CaCO3] / ([CaO][CO2])
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Pure solids are omitted from equilibrium constant expressions because their concentrations are constant, leaving Kc = [CO2].

Q42For the equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), which change shifts the equilibrium position to the right?

(A) Decreasing the pressure
(B) Increasing the volume of the container
(C) Adding a catalyst
(D) Increasing the pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

There are 3 mol of gas on the left and 2 mol on the right, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the products. A catalyst speeds up both reactions equally and does not change the position of equilibrium.

Q43For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the initial concentration of PCl5 is 0.500 mol dm^-3 and its equilibrium concentration is 0.300 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?

(A) 0.040
(B) 0.133
(C) 0.667
(D) 7.50
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

[PCl3] = [Cl2] = 0.500 – 0.300 = 0.200 mol dm^-3; Kc = (0.200 × 0.200) / 0.300 = 0.133.

Q44For an exothermic reaction at equilibrium, what happens to the value of Kc when the temperature is increased?

(A) It increases
(B) It stays the same
(C) It decreases
(D) It becomes zero
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Increasing the temperature favours the endothermic (reverse) reaction, so less product is present at equilibrium and Kc decreases.

Q45In the Haber process, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), a high pressure increases the yield of ammonia because:

(A) There are fewer moles of gas on the product side than on the reactant side
(B) High pressure lowers the activation energy of the reaction
(C) High pressure increases the value of the rate constant only
(D) The iron catalyst is only active at high pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Four moles of reactant gas form two moles of product gas; by Le Chatelier's principle, increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules, increasing the yield.

Q46Which statement is true for a system in dynamic equilibrium?

(A) The concentrations of the reactants and products are equal
(B) Both the forward and reverse reactions have stopped
(C) The rate of the forward reaction is zero
(D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In dynamic equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so there is no net change in concentrations (although the concentrations themselves need not be equal).

Q47Which statement is characteristic of a first-order reaction?

(A) The half-life decreases as the reaction proceeds
(B) The half-life is constant
(C) The rate does not depend on the concentration of the reactant
(D) A plot of concentration against time is a straight line
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For a first-order reaction the half-life is independent of the starting concentration, so it stays constant throughout the reaction. (A straight-line concentration-time graph is characteristic of zero order.)

Q48For the equilibrium A(aq) ⇌ B(aq), Kc = 0.50. A mixture contains [A] = 0.40 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.10 mol dm^-3. Which statement is correct?

(A) The mixture is at equilibrium
(B) The net reaction must proceed to the left to reach equilibrium
(C) The net reaction must proceed to the right (towards products) to reach equilibrium
(D) The value of Q for this mixture is 2.5
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Q = [B] / [A] = 0.10 / 0.40 = 0.25, which is less than Kc = 0.50, so the forward reaction occurs until Q = Kc.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49What is the pH of a 0.0010 mol dm^-3 solution of potassium hydroxide at 298 K? (Kw = 1.0 × 10^-14 mol^2 dm^-6)

(A) 11.00
(B) 3.00
(C) 10.00
(D) 1.00
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

KOH is a strong base, so [OH^-] = 0.0010 mol dm^-3, pOH = -log(0.0010) = 3.00, and pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.00.

Q50Ammonia has Kb = 1.8 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3. What is the pH of a 0.100 mol dm^-3 solution of ammonia?

(A) 2.87
(B) 8.87
(C) 10.13
(D) 11.13
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

[OH^-] = sqrt(Kb × c) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.100) = 1.34 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3; pOH = 2.87, so pH = 14.00 – 2.87 = 11.13.

Q51Which mixture, in approximately equal amounts, forms a buffer solution?

(A) HCl and NaCl
(B) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(C) NaOH and NaCl
(D) HNO3 and NaNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A buffer consists of a weak acid (or weak base) together with its conjugate salt. Mixtures based on the strong acids HCl and HNO3 cannot act as buffers.

Q52Ethanoic acid is titrated with sodium hydroxide solution. What is the pH at the equivalence point?

(A) Less than 7
(B) Exactly 7
(C) Greater than 7
(D) Exactly 1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the equivalence point the solution contains sodium ethanoate; the ethanoate ions hydrolyse (react with water) to produce OH^- ions, so the solution is alkaline.

Q53Which of the following is the strongest acid?

(A) HCl
(B) CH3COOH
(C) H2CO3
(D) NH4^+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and is fully ionized in aqueous solution, whereas ethanoic acid, carbonic acid and the ammonium ion are all weak acids.

Q54What is the oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4?

(A) +2
(B) +4
(C) +6
(D) +7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Taking K as +1 and each O as -2: (+1) + Mn + 4(-2) = 0, so Mn = +7.

Q55In the reaction 2Fe^3+(aq) + 2I^-(aq) → 2Fe^2+(aq) + I2(aq), which species is reduced?

(A) I^-
(B) Fe^3+
(C) Fe^2+
(D) I2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fe^3+ gains an electron to form Fe^2+ (its oxidation number falls from +3 to +2), so it is reduced; I^- is oxidized.

Q56What is formed at the anode during the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, PbBr2, using inert electrodes?

(A) Lead
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Bromine
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the anode (positive electrode), bromide ions lose electrons and are discharged as bromine. Lead is formed at the cathode.

Q57Standard electrode potentials: Ag^+/Ag = +0.80 V; Fe^3+/Fe^2+ = +0.77 V; Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V; Zn^2+/Zn = -0.76 V. Which species is the strongest oxidizing agent?

(A) Ag^+
(B) Fe^3+
(C) Cu^2+
(D) Zn^2+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The strongest oxidizing agent is the species that is most easily reduced, which is the one whose couple has the most positive E°. Ag^+ has the most positive value, +0.80 V.

Q58Ethene reacts with hydrogen bromide to form bromoethane. What type of reaction is this?

(A) Nucleophilic substitution
(B) Free-radical substitution
(C) Nucleophilic addition
(D) Electrophilic addition
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The pi bond of the alkene is attacked by the electrophile H^+ from HBr, and Br^- then adds to the carbocation formed: an electrophilic addition reaction.

Q59Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, in the presence of an acid catalyst, to form ethyl ethanoate and water. What type of reaction is this?

(A) Addition
(B) Condensation
(C) Oxidation
(D) Hydrolysis
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Two molecules join together with the elimination of a small molecule (water), which is a condensation reaction (esterification).

Q602-Bromo-2-methylpropane hydrolyses much faster than bromoethane in aqueous sodium hydroxide. What is the main reason for this?

(A) It contains more carbon atoms than bromoethane
(B) It is more soluble in water than bromoethane
(C) It forms a relatively stable tertiary carbocation intermediate, so it reacts by an SN1 mechanism
(D) It reacts by a bimolecular SN2 mechanism
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The tertiary halogenoalkane ionizes in the rate-determining step to give a stable tertiary carbocation (SN1), so its hydrolysis is fast; bromoethane, a primary halogenoalkane, reacts much more slowly by SN2.