IB Chemistry Practice Test 20
60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).
⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter
Q1Which sample contains the greatest total number of atoms?
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Correct: (D)
Amount of atoms: H2O: 0.50 × 3 = 1.5 mol; He: 1.0 mol; CH4: 0.40 × 5 = 2.0 mol; NH3: 0.60 × 4 = 2.4 mol, which is the greatest.
Q2What is the ground-state electron configuration of a copper atom?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is an exception to the expected filling order: a completely filled 3d subshell with a single 4s electron is more stable than 4s^2 3d^9.
Q3What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Mr of H2SO4 = 98)
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Correct: (C)
Mass of oxygen in one mole = 4 × 16 = 64 g; percentage = (64 / 98) × 100 = 65.3%.
Q4A sample of 0.500 mol of an ideal gas occupies 12.0 dm^3 at 300 K. What is its pressure, in kPa? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (B)
P = nRT / V = (0.500 × 8.31 × 300) / 12.0 = 104 kPa (using V in dm^3 gives P in kPa).
Q5At RTP, the molar volume of a gas is 24 dm^3 mol^-1. What amount of carbon dioxide occupies 48 dm^3 at RTP?
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Correct: (D)
n = V / molar volume = 48 / 24 = 2.0 mol.
Q625.0 cm^3 of a 2.00 mol dm^-3 solution is diluted with water to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?
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Correct: (A)
The amount of solute does not change on dilution: c2 = 2.00 × (25.0 / 250) = 0.200 mol dm^-3.
Q7What mass of sodium hydroxide, NaOH (Mr = 40.0), is dissolved in 250 cm^3 of a 0.400 mol dm^-3 solution?
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Correct: (C)
n = 0.250 × 0.400 = 0.100 mol; mass = 0.100 × 40.0 = 4.00 g.
Q8Boron consists of two isotopes, ^10B with 20% abundance and ^11B with 80% abundance. What is the relative atomic mass of boron?
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Correct: (B)
Ar = (0.20 × 10) + (0.80 × 11) = 2.0 + 8.8 = 10.8.
Q9Why does the temperature of a boiling liquid remain constant even though heat is supplied continuously?
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Correct: (D)
During a change of state at constant temperature, the energy absorbed increases the potential energy (separation) of the particles; their average kinetic energy, and hence the temperature, stays constant.
Q10A compound contains only 1.4 g of nitrogen and 0.30 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula? (Ar: N = 14, H = 1)
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Correct: (A)
N: 1.4 / 14 = 0.10 mol; H: 0.30 / 1 = 0.30 mol. The ratio 0.10 : 0.30 simplifies to 1 : 3, giving NH3.
🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure
Q11Which molecule has a linear shape?
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Correct: (C)
Carbon dioxide has two electron domains around the central carbon atom and no lone pairs on it, so the molecule is linear with a bond angle of 180°.
Q12How many lone pairs of electrons are there on the oxygen atom in a water molecule?
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen has 6 valence electrons; two are used in the bonds to the hydrogen atoms, leaving four electrons as two lone pairs.
Q13Which bond is the most polar?
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Correct: (D)
Bond polarity increases with the difference in electronegativity between the atoms, and this difference is greatest for H-F because fluorine is the most electronegative element.
Q14Which substance has a giant covalent (network) structure?
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Correct: (A)
In SiO2 each silicon atom is covalently bonded to four oxygen atoms in one continuous network; I2, CO2 and S8 consist of discrete molecules.
Q15Which substance conducts electricity when molten but not when solid?
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Correct: (C)
In solid sodium chloride the ions are locked in the lattice and cannot move; when molten, the ions are free to move and carry the charge. Copper and graphite conduct in the solid state as well.
Q16Why does diamond have a very high melting point?
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Correct: (B)
Diamond is a giant covalent structure in which every carbon is bonded to four others; melting requires breaking many strong covalent bonds.
Q17In which molecule does the central atom have an expanded octet?
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Correct: (D)
In SF6 the sulfur atom is surrounded by 12 electrons (6 bonding pairs), which is more than an octet. BF3 has only 6 electrons around boron, and N and C in the others have 8.
Q18What is the strongest type of intermolecular force present in liquid hydrogen chloride, HCl?
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Correct: (A)
HCl is a polar molecule, but hydrogen is not bonded to N, O or F, so true hydrogen bonding does not occur; permanent dipole-dipole attractions are the strongest intermolecular forces (stronger here than London dispersion forces).
Q19Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?
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Correct: (C)
Nitrogen molecules are held together by a triple bond, consisting of one sigma bond and two pi bonds.
Q20Which Period 3 metal has the highest melting point?
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Correct: (B)
Aluminium atoms contribute three electrons each to the delocalized electron sea, giving stronger metallic bonding than magnesium (two electrons) or sodium (one electron), so aluminium has the highest melting point.
📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter
Q21Which element is a transition metal?
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Correct: (D)
Iron is a transition metal: it has a partially filled d subshell, forms coloured compounds and shows variable oxidation states. Calcium, aluminium and lead are main-group metals.
Q22Which property generally decreases across Period 3 from sodium to chlorine?
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Correct: (A)
Across the period the elements change from metallic to non-metallic, so metallic character decreases; electronegativity, first ionization energy and atomic number all increase.
Q23The colours of transition metal complexes are mainly caused by:
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Correct: (C)
Ligands split the d orbitals into groups of different energies; electrons absorb visible light as they are promoted between these groups, and the colour seen is complementary to the colour absorbed.
Q24What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (B)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2. (CnH2n applies to alkenes and CnH2n-2 to alkynes.)
Q25Which compound is an isomer of butane, C4H10?
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Correct: (D)
2-methylpropane has the same molecular formula, C4H10, but a different structural arrangement from butane.
Q26What is the IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3?
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Correct: (A)
The longest chain containing the -OH group has 4 carbons, and the hydroxyl group is on carbon 2, giving butan-2-ol.
Q27Which compound is an ester?
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Correct: (C)
CH3COOCH3 (methyl ethanoate) contains the ester functional group, -COO-. CH3COOH is a carboxylic acid, CH3CH2OH an alcohol and CH3CHO an aldehyde.
Q28Which of these Period 3 elements has the highest first ionization energy?
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Correct: (B)
First ionization energy generally increases across the period, and phosphorus, the furthest right of these elements, also benefits from a stable half-filled 3p subshell, so it has the highest value.
🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions
Q2950.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid is mixed with 50.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide and the temperature of the mixture rises by 6.8 °C. What is the enthalpy of neutralization, in kJ mol^-1? (Assume the total mass of solution is 100 g and c = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1)
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Correct: (D)
q = 100 × 4.18 × 6.8 = 2842 J released; n(H2O formed) = 0.0500 × 1.00 = 0.0500 mol; ΔH = -2842 / 0.0500 = -56.8 kJ mol^-1.
Q30Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (A)
Thermal decomposition requires a continuous input of heat, so it is endothermic; combustion, neutralization and condensation all release energy to the surroundings.
Q31Given that the standard enthalpy change of formation of CO(g) is -110 kJ mol^-1 and of CO2(g) is -394 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for the reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)?
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Correct: (B)
ΔH = [2 × (-394)] – [2 × (-110) + 0] = -788 + 220 = -568 kJ.
Q32Estimate ΔH for the hydrogenation of ethene, C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g), using bond enthalpies: C=C = 614, H-H = 436, C-C = 347 and C-H = 413 kJ mol^-1.
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Correct: (C)
Bonds broken: C=C + H-H = 614 + 436 = 1050 kJ; bonds formed: C-C + 2(C-H) = 347 + 826 = 1173 kJ; ΔH = 1050 – 1173 = -123 kJ mol^-1.
Q33Which equation represents the standard enthalpy change of formation of methanol, CH3OH(l)?
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Correct: (A)
The enthalpy change of formation is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of a compound is formed from its elements in their standard states, which only option (A) shows.
Q34Which sample has the greatest entropy?
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Correct: (D)
Gases have a far greater degree of disorder than liquids or solids, so steam has the greatest entropy of the samples listed.
Q35A reaction has ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0. Under which conditions is the reaction spontaneous?
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Correct: (B)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. With ΔS negative, the -TΔS term is positive; it becomes small enough for ΔG to be negative only at low temperatures.
Q36Which process corresponds to the lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride?
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Correct: (C)
Lattice enthalpy is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of an ionic solid is broken apart into its separate gaseous ions.
⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far
Q37The rate constant of a reaction has units dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1. What is the overall order of the reaction?
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Correct: (A)
Rate constants with units dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1 are characteristic of second-order reactions (first order: s^-1; zero order: mol dm^-3 s^-1).
Q38On a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve, how does adding a catalyst change the diagram?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst lowers Ea without changing the distribution of particle energies, so the fraction of particles able to react successfully increases.
Q39Initial rate data for a reaction: Experiment 1: [A] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, [B] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, rate = 0.020; Experiment 2: [A] = 0.20 mol dm^-3, [B] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, rate = 0.040; Experiment 3: [A] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, [B] = 0.20 mol dm^-3, rate = 0.020. What is the rate law for the reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Doubling [A] (experiments 1 to 2) doubles the rate, so the reaction is first order in A; doubling [B] (experiments 1 to 3) leaves the rate unchanged, so it is zero order in B.
Q40Why does a small rise in temperature usually cause a large increase in the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Although collision frequency rises slightly, the main effect is the large increase in the fraction of collisions with E ≥ Ea.
Q41What is the equilibrium constant expression, Kc, for the reaction CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
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Correct: (A)
Pure solids are omitted from equilibrium constant expressions because their concentrations are constant, leaving Kc = [CO2].
Q42For the equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), which change shifts the equilibrium position to the right?
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Correct: (D)
There are 3 mol of gas on the left and 2 mol on the right, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the products. A catalyst speeds up both reactions equally and does not change the position of equilibrium.
Q43For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the initial concentration of PCl5 is 0.500 mol dm^-3 and its equilibrium concentration is 0.300 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?
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Correct: (B)
[PCl3] = [Cl2] = 0.500 – 0.300 = 0.200 mol dm^-3; Kc = (0.200 × 0.200) / 0.300 = 0.133.
Q44For an exothermic reaction at equilibrium, what happens to the value of Kc when the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (C)
Increasing the temperature favours the endothermic (reverse) reaction, so less product is present at equilibrium and Kc decreases.
Q45In the Haber process, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), a high pressure increases the yield of ammonia because:
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Correct: (A)
Four moles of reactant gas form two moles of product gas; by Le Chatelier's principle, increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules, increasing the yield.
Q46Which statement is true for a system in dynamic equilibrium?
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Correct: (D)
In dynamic equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so there is no net change in concentrations (although the concentrations themselves need not be equal).
Q47Which statement is characteristic of a first-order reaction?
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Correct: (B)
For a first-order reaction the half-life is independent of the starting concentration, so it stays constant throughout the reaction. (A straight-line concentration-time graph is characteristic of zero order.)
Q48For the equilibrium A(aq) ⇌ B(aq), Kc = 0.50. A mixture contains [A] = 0.40 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.10 mol dm^-3. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Q = [B] / [A] = 0.10 / 0.40 = 0.25, which is less than Kc = 0.50, so the forward reaction occurs until Q = Kc.
⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change
Q49What is the pH of a 0.0010 mol dm^-3 solution of potassium hydroxide at 298 K? (Kw = 1.0 × 10^-14 mol^2 dm^-6)
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Correct: (A)
KOH is a strong base, so [OH^-] = 0.0010 mol dm^-3, pOH = -log(0.0010) = 3.00, and pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.00.
Q50Ammonia has Kb = 1.8 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3. What is the pH of a 0.100 mol dm^-3 solution of ammonia?
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Correct: (D)
[OH^-] = sqrt(Kb × c) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.100) = 1.34 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3; pOH = 2.87, so pH = 14.00 – 2.87 = 11.13.
Q51Which mixture, in approximately equal amounts, forms a buffer solution?
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Correct: (B)
A buffer consists of a weak acid (or weak base) together with its conjugate salt. Mixtures based on the strong acids HCl and HNO3 cannot act as buffers.
Q52Ethanoic acid is titrated with sodium hydroxide solution. What is the pH at the equivalence point?
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Correct: (C)
At the equivalence point the solution contains sodium ethanoate; the ethanoate ions hydrolyse (react with water) to produce OH^- ions, so the solution is alkaline.
Q53Which of the following is the strongest acid?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and is fully ionized in aqueous solution, whereas ethanoic acid, carbonic acid and the ammonium ion are all weak acids.
Q54What is the oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4?
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Correct: (D)
Taking K as +1 and each O as -2: (+1) + Mn + 4(-2) = 0, so Mn = +7.
Q55In the reaction 2Fe^3+(aq) + 2I^-(aq) → 2Fe^2+(aq) + I2(aq), which species is reduced?
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Correct: (B)
Fe^3+ gains an electron to form Fe^2+ (its oxidation number falls from +3 to +2), so it is reduced; I^- is oxidized.
Q56What is formed at the anode during the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, PbBr2, using inert electrodes?
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Correct: (C)
At the anode (positive electrode), bromide ions lose electrons and are discharged as bromine. Lead is formed at the cathode.
Q57Standard electrode potentials: Ag^+/Ag = +0.80 V; Fe^3+/Fe^2+ = +0.77 V; Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V; Zn^2+/Zn = -0.76 V. Which species is the strongest oxidizing agent?
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Correct: (A)
The strongest oxidizing agent is the species that is most easily reduced, which is the one whose couple has the most positive E°. Ag^+ has the most positive value, +0.80 V.
Q58Ethene reacts with hydrogen bromide to form bromoethane. What type of reaction is this?
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Correct: (D)
The pi bond of the alkene is attacked by the electrophile H^+ from HBr, and Br^- then adds to the carbocation formed: an electrophilic addition reaction.
Q59Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, in the presence of an acid catalyst, to form ethyl ethanoate and water. What type of reaction is this?
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Correct: (B)
Two molecules join together with the elimination of a small molecule (water), which is a condensation reaction (esterification).
Q602-Bromo-2-methylpropane hydrolyses much faster than bromoethane in aqueous sodium hydroxide. What is the main reason for this?
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Correct: (C)
The tertiary halogenoalkane ionizes in the rate-determining step to give a stable tertiary carbocation (SN1), so its hydrolysis is fast; bromoethane, a primary halogenoalkane, reacts much more slowly by SN2.
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