IB Chemistry Practice Test 2
60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).
⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter
Q1How many neutrons are there in an atom of ^56Fe?
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Correct: (C)
Iron has atomic number 26, so the number of neutrons = 56 – 26 = 30.
Q2Which electron transition in a hydrogen atom emits radiation of the longest wavelength?
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Correct: (D)
The longest wavelength corresponds to the smallest energy change, and the n = 3 → n = 2 drop is the smallest of the transitions listed.
Q3What mass of nitrogen is present in 34 g of ammonia, NH3? (Mr of NH3 = 17)
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Correct: (A)
Amount of NH3 = 34 / 17 = 2.0 mol, which contains 2.0 mol of N atoms; mass of N = 2.0 × 14 = 28 g.
Q4What volume does 0.25 mol of an ideal gas occupy at STP (273 K and 100 kPa)? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (B)
V = nRT / P = (0.25 × 8.31 × 273) / (1.00 × 10^5) = 5.7 × 10^-3 m^3 = 5.7 dm^3.
Q525.0 cm^3 of 2.00 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid is diluted with water to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the diluted acid?
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Correct: (C)
Moles of HCl = 2.00 × 0.0250 = 0.0500 mol; concentration = 0.0500 / 0.250 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.
Q60.30 mol of magnesium reacts with excess hydrochloric acid: Mg + 2 HCl → MgCl2 + H2. How many moles of hydrogen gas are produced?
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Correct: (B)
The Mg : H2 ratio in the equation is 1 : 1, so 0.30 mol of H2 is produced.
Q7A hydrocarbon contains 0.24 g of carbon and 0.06 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (C)
Moles of C = 0.24 / 12 = 0.020 and moles of H = 0.06 / 1 = 0.060; the ratio is 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.
Q8The mass spectrum of an organic compound shows its molecular ion peak at m/z = 46. What is the relative molecular mass of the compound?
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Correct: (D)
The m/z value of the molecular ion peak corresponds directly to the relative molecular mass, so Mr = 46.
Q9How many electrons are there in a Mg^2+ ion?
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Correct: (A)
A magnesium atom has 12 electrons; forming Mg^2+ removes two, leaving 10 electrons.
Q10A sealed container holds a gas at 100 kPa and 27°C. The container is heated to 327°C at constant volume. What is the new pressure of the gas?
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Correct: (C)
At constant volume P2 = P1 × T2 / T1 = 100 × (600 / 300) = 200 kPa (temperatures in kelvin).
🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure
Q11Which ionic compound has the largest lattice enthalpy (the most exothermic lattice formation)?
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Correct: (C)
Lattice enthalpy increases with ionic charge and decreases with ionic radius; MgO combines small ions with 2+ and 2- charges, giving the strongest attractions.
Q12How many bonding pairs of electrons are there around the central atom in a molecule of carbon dioxide, CO2?
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Correct: (D)
Carbon forms two C=O double bonds, so there are four bonding pairs (eight bonding electrons) around the central atom.
Q13What is the molecular geometry of BF3?
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Correct: (A)
Boron has three bonding pairs and no lone pair, giving a trigonal planar geometry with 120° bond angles.
Q14Which molecule contains a triple bond?
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Correct: (C)
Nitrogen molecules contain a N≡N triple bond; O2 has a double bond and F2 and Cl2 have single bonds.
Q15Ethanol (boiling point 78°C) and methoxymethane (boiling point -24°C) are isomers with the same Mr. The much higher boiling point of ethanol is due to:
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Correct: (B)
Ethanol has an -OH group and forms intermolecular hydrogen bonds; methoxymethane cannot, so its molecules are held together only by weaker dipole-dipole forces.
Q16Which substance has a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure?
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Correct: (D)
SiO2 forms a continuous three-dimensional network of covalent bonds; iodine, CO2 and ice are simple molecular substances.
Q17Which statement about metallic bonding is correct?
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Correct: (B)
In a metal, the outer electrons are delocalised and are attracted to the lattice of positive ions; their mobility explains electrical conductivity.
Q18Which pair of substances consists of allotropes of the same element?
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Correct: (A)
O2 and O3 (ozone) are different structural forms of the element oxygen; the other pairs are isotopes or different compounds.
Q19What is the hybridisation of the nitrogen atom in ammonia, NH3?
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Correct: (C)
Nitrogen has four electron domains (three bonding pairs and one lone pair), corresponding to sp^3 hybridisation.
Q20Which molecule is polar?
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Correct: (D)
Water is bent and unsymmetrical, so its bond dipoles do not cancel; CCl4, CH4 and CO2 are symmetrical and nonpolar overall.
📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter
Q21The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group mainly because:
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Correct: (B)
Down the group the outer electron is in a higher shell, further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is removed more easily and reactivity increases.
Q22Which Period 3 oxide is amphoteric?
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Correct: (C)
Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and strong bases; Na2O and MgO are basic oxides and SO3 is an acidic oxide.
Q23Which aqueous ion is coloured?
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Correct: (B)
Cu^2+ has a partially filled 3d subshell (d^9) and is blue in solution; Zn^2+ (d^10), Sc^3+ (d^0) and Ti^4+ (d^0) are colourless.
Q24What is the functional group present in ethanal, CH3CHO?
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Correct: (C)
Ethanal is an aldehyde and contains the C=O carbonyl group.
Q25Which compound does NOT belong to the alkane homologous series, which has the general formula CnH2n+2?
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Correct: (A)
C3H6 fits the general formula CnH2n of the alkenes; the other three all fit CnH2n+2.
Q26What is the IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH(CH3)CH3?
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Correct: (B)
The longest continuous chain has three carbon atoms, with a methyl group attached to carbon 2, giving 2-methylpropane.
Q27Which pair of compounds consists of structural isomers?
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Correct: (D)
Pentane and 2-methylbutane share the molecular formula C5H12 but have different structural arrangements.
Q28An element has the electron configuration [Ar] 3d^5 4s^1. In which block of the periodic table is this element found?
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Correct: (C)
The highest-energy electrons occupy d orbitals, so the element (chromium) is a d-block transition metal.
🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions
Q29Using standard enthalpies of formation (C2H4 = +52, CO2 = -394 and H2O(l) = -286 kJ mol^-1), what is ΔH for the reaction C2H4(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)?
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Correct: (A)
ΔH = ΣΔHf(products) – ΣΔHf(reactants) = [2(-394) + 2(-286)] – [52 + 0] = -1360 – 52 = -1412 kJ mol^-1.
Q30When 1.00 g of ethanol is burned, it raises the temperature of 500 g of water by 11.4°C. What is the enthalpy of combustion of ethanol? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1; Mr of ethanol = 46)
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Correct: (B)
q = 500 × 4.18 × 11.4 = 23 826 J ≈ 23.8 kJ released per gram; per mole this is 23.8 × 46 ≈ 1100 kJ, so ΔHc ≈ -1100 kJ mol^-1.
Q31Given: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -394 kJ mol^-1, and CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide?
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Correct: (D)
Applying Hess's law, the formation reaction is the first equation minus the second: ΔHf(CO) = -394 – (-283) = -111 kJ mol^-1.
Q32Using bond enthalpies (N≡N = 946, H-H = 436 and N-H = 391 kJ mol^-1), what is ΔH for the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g)?
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Correct: (C)
Bonds broken = 946 + 3(436) = 2254 kJ; bonds formed = 6(391) = 2346 kJ; ΔH = 2254 – 2346 = -92 kJ mol^-1.
Q33For which change is the entropy of the system decreasing?
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Correct: (D)
Two moles of gas combine to form one mole of gas, so the system becomes more ordered and ΔS is negative.
Q34A reaction has ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0. The reaction is spontaneous:
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Correct: (C)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS; with both terms positive, ΔG becomes negative only when TΔS is larger than ΔH, which happens at high temperatures.
Q3550.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 HCl is mixed with 50.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 NaOH in a calorimeter. The temperature of the 100 g of solution rises by 6.8°C. What is the enthalpy of neutralisation? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1)
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Correct: (B)
q = 100 × 4.18 × 6.8 = 2842 J; the amount of water formed = 1.00 × 0.0500 = 0.0500 mol, so ΔH = -2842 / 0.0500 ≈ -57 kJ mol^-1.
Q36Which statement about mean bond enthalpies is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Bond breaking is endothermic, and the enthalpy of a given bond varies slightly between compounds, so tabulated bond enthalpies are average (mean) values.
⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far
Q37For a reaction, doubling [A] quadruples the rate, while doubling [B] has no effect on the rate. What is the rate law?
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Correct: (A)
The rate depends on [A]^2 (second order in A) and is independent of [B] (zero order in B).
Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction because it:
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Correct: (B)
With a lower activation energy, a greater proportion of collisions have E ≥ Ea and are successful.
Q39A first-order reaction starts with a reactant concentration of 1.6 mol dm^-3. What percentage of the reactant remains after exactly three half-lives?
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Correct: (D)
After each half-life half remains, so after three half-lives the fraction remaining is (1/2)^3 = 1/8 = 12.5%.
Q40The rate of a reaction that produces a gas is being investigated. Which method is most suitable for following the rate?
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Correct: (A)
The volume of gas collected at regular time intervals gives a direct measure of how fast the reaction is proceeding.
Q41An equilibrium reaction has a very large value of Kc. This means that at equilibrium:
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Correct: (B)
A large Kc means the equilibrium position lies well to the right; Kc gives no information about the rate of the reaction.
Q42For the equilibrium 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), what happens when the total pressure is increased at constant temperature?
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Correct: (D)
The product side has fewer moles of gas (2 compared with 3), so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the products; Kc is unchanged at constant temperature.
Q43For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the initial concentration of PCl5 is 0.20 mol dm^-3. At equilibrium, [PCl5] = 0.16 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?
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Correct: (A)
At equilibrium [PCl3] = [Cl2] = 0.20 – 0.16 = 0.040 mol dm^-3, so Kc = (0.040 × 0.040) / 0.16 = 0.0016 / 0.16 = 0.010.
Q44What are the units of the rate constant, k, for a first-order reaction?
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Correct: (B)
From k = rate / [A] = (mol dm^-3 s^-1) / (mol dm^-3) = s^-1.
Q45For an exothermic equilibrium reaction, increasing the temperature will:
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Correct: (D)
Heating favours the endothermic (reverse) direction, so fewer products are present at equilibrium and Kc becomes smaller.
Q46Adding a catalyst to a reaction mixture that is already at equilibrium will:
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Correct: (C)
A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the composition at equilibrium is unchanged.
Q47A reaction takes place by the following mechanism. Step 1 (slow): NO2 + NO2 → NO3 + NO. Step 2 (fast): NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2. What is the rate law for the overall reaction?
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Correct: (B)
The rate is determined by the slow (rate-determining) step, which involves two NO2 molecules, so rate = k[NO2]^2.
Q48In the Arrhenius equation, k = A e^(-Ea/RT), the term e^(-Ea/RT) represents:
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Correct: (A)
The exponential term gives the proportion of collisions energetic enough to react; A is the frequency factor, which includes collision frequency and orientation.
⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change
Q49What is the pH of 0.0010 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution?
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Correct: (B)
NaOH is a strong base, so [OH^-] = 0.0010 mol dm^-3, pOH = 3.00, and pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.00.
Q50What is the conjugate acid of NH3?
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Correct: (A)
A conjugate acid is formed by adding one H^+; adding H^+ to NH3 gives NH4^+.
Q51A buffer solution made from a weak acid and its salt resists changes in pH because it contains:
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Correct: (A)
Added H^+ is removed by the conjugate base, and added OH^- is removed by the weak acid, so the pH changes very little.
Q52What is the oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4?
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Correct: (D)
Using K = +1 and O = -2: +1 + x + 4(-2) = 0, so x = +7.
Q53A solution of copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert graphite electrodes. What is produced at the positive electrode (anode)?
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Correct: (C)
Water is oxidised at the anode, releasing oxygen gas; copper is deposited at the cathode.
Q54Given the standard electrode potentials Fe^2+/Fe = -0.44 V and Ag^+/Ag = +0.80 V, what is E°cell for the reaction Fe(s) + 2 Ag^+(aq) → Fe^2+(aq) + 2 Ag(s)?
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Correct: (B)
E°cell = E°(reduction) – E°(oxidation couple) = 0.80 – (-0.44) = +1.24 V.
Q55The reaction of ethene with bromine, Br2, is an example of:
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Correct: (A)
The pi bond of the alkene attacks the bromine molecule and both bromine atoms add across the double bond.
Q56Ethanol is heated under reflux with excess acidified potassium dichromate(VI). What is the main organic product?
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Correct: (D)
With excess oxidising agent under reflux, the primary alcohol is fully oxidised past the aldehyde stage to the carboxylic acid, ethanoic acid.
Q57Methyl ethanoate is hydrolysed by aqueous sodium hydroxide: CH3COOCH3 + OH^- → products. The products of this reaction are:
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Correct: (A)
Alkaline hydrolysis of an ester gives the carboxylate salt and the alcohol; CH3COOCH3 gives CH3COO^- and CH3OH.
Q58Which halogenoalkane is the most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution because it contains the best leaving group?
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Correct: (D)
The C-I bond is the weakest carbon-halogen bond and I^- is the best leaving group, so reactivity increases in the order F < Cl < Br < I.
Q59Which is the strongest acid?
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Correct: (A)
The electron-withdrawing chlorine atom stabilises the chloroethanoate ion, so chloroethanoic acid is stronger than ethanoic acid; phenol and ethanol are far weaker acids.
Q60An aqueous solution of ammonium chloride, NH4Cl, is:
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Correct: (D)
The NH4^+ ion is the conjugate acid of the weak base ammonia and hydrolyses in water (NH4^+ ⇌ NH3 + H^+), making the solution acidic.
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