IB Chemistry Practice Test 2

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1How many neutrons are there in an atom of ^56Fe?

(A) 26
(B) 56
(C) 30
(D) 82
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Iron has atomic number 26, so the number of neutrons = 56 – 26 = 30.

Q2Which electron transition in a hydrogen atom emits radiation of the longest wavelength?

(A) n = 2 → n = 1
(B) n = 3 → n = 1
(C) n = 4 → n = 2
(D) n = 3 → n = 2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The longest wavelength corresponds to the smallest energy change, and the n = 3 → n = 2 drop is the smallest of the transitions listed.

Q3What mass of nitrogen is present in 34 g of ammonia, NH3? (Mr of NH3 = 17)

(A) 28 g
(B) 14 g
(C) 7 g
(D) 17 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Amount of NH3 = 34 / 17 = 2.0 mol, which contains 2.0 mol of N atoms; mass of N = 2.0 × 14 = 28 g.

Q4What volume does 0.25 mol of an ideal gas occupy at STP (273 K and 100 kPa)? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 2.8 dm^3
(B) 5.7 dm^3
(C) 11.4 dm^3
(D) 90.8 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

V = nRT / P = (0.25 × 8.31 × 273) / (1.00 × 10^5) = 5.7 × 10^-3 m^3 = 5.7 dm^3.

Q525.0 cm^3 of 2.00 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid is diluted with water to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the diluted acid?

(A) 20.0 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.0200 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(D) 2.00 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of HCl = 2.00 × 0.0250 = 0.0500 mol; concentration = 0.0500 / 0.250 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q60.30 mol of magnesium reacts with excess hydrochloric acid: Mg + 2 HCl → MgCl2 + H2. How many moles of hydrogen gas are produced?

(A) 0.15 mol
(B) 0.30 mol
(C) 0.60 mol
(D) 0.90 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The Mg : H2 ratio in the equation is 1 : 1, so 0.30 mol of H2 is produced.

Q7A hydrocarbon contains 0.24 g of carbon and 0.06 g of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C) CH3
(D) CH
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of C = 0.24 / 12 = 0.020 and moles of H = 0.06 / 1 = 0.060; the ratio is 1 : 3, so the empirical formula is CH3.

Q8The mass spectrum of an organic compound shows its molecular ion peak at m/z = 46. What is the relative molecular mass of the compound?

(A) 44
(B) 32
(C) 60
(D) 46
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The m/z value of the molecular ion peak corresponds directly to the relative molecular mass, so Mr = 46.

Q9How many electrons are there in a Mg^2+ ion?

(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A magnesium atom has 12 electrons; forming Mg^2+ removes two, leaving 10 electrons.

Q10A sealed container holds a gas at 100 kPa and 27°C. The container is heated to 327°C at constant volume. What is the new pressure of the gas?

(A) 100 kPa
(B) 150 kPa
(C) 200 kPa
(D) 400 kPa
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At constant volume P2 = P1 × T2 / T1 = 100 × (600 / 300) = 200 kPa (temperatures in kelvin).

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11Which ionic compound has the largest lattice enthalpy (the most exothermic lattice formation)?

(A) NaCl
(B) KCl
(C) MgO
(D) CaO
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Lattice enthalpy increases with ionic charge and decreases with ionic radius; MgO combines small ions with 2+ and 2- charges, giving the strongest attractions.

Q12How many bonding pairs of electrons are there around the central atom in a molecule of carbon dioxide, CO2?

(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon forms two C=O double bonds, so there are four bonding pairs (eight bonding electrons) around the central atom.

Q13What is the molecular geometry of BF3?

(A) Trigonal planar
(B) Trigonal pyramidal
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) Bent
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Boron has three bonding pairs and no lone pair, giving a trigonal planar geometry with 120° bond angles.

Q14Which molecule contains a triple bond?

(A) O2
(B) F2
(C) N2
(D) Cl2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrogen molecules contain a N≡N triple bond; O2 has a double bond and F2 and Cl2 have single bonds.

Q15Ethanol (boiling point 78°C) and methoxymethane (boiling point -24°C) are isomers with the same Mr. The much higher boiling point of ethanol is due to:

(A) Stronger covalent bonds within the ethanol molecules
(B) Hydrogen bonding between ethanol molecules
(C) The greater molar mass of ethanol
(D) Ionic bonding in ethanol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethanol has an -OH group and forms intermolecular hydrogen bonds; methoxymethane cannot, so its molecules are held together only by weaker dipole-dipole forces.

Q16Which substance has a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure?

(A) Iodine
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Ice
(D) Silicon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

SiO2 forms a continuous three-dimensional network of covalent bonds; iodine, CO2 and ice are simple molecular substances.

Q17Which statement about metallic bonding is correct?

(A) It involves complete transfer of electrons from metal atoms to non-metal atoms
(B) It is the attraction between positively charged metal ions and a sea of delocalised electrons
(C) Metals cannot conduct electricity in the solid state
(D) It consists of pairs of electrons shared between two metal atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a metal, the outer electrons are delocalised and are attracted to the lattice of positive ions; their mobility explains electrical conductivity.

Q18Which pair of substances consists of allotropes of the same element?

(A) O2 and O3
(B) ^12C and ^13C
(C) H2O and H2O2
(D) CO and CO2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

O2 and O3 (ozone) are different structural forms of the element oxygen; the other pairs are isotopes or different compounds.

Q19What is the hybridisation of the nitrogen atom in ammonia, NH3?

(A) sp
(B) sp^2
(C) sp^3
(D) sp^3d
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrogen has four electron domains (three bonding pairs and one lone pair), corresponding to sp^3 hybridisation.

Q20Which molecule is polar?

(A) CCl4
(B) CH4
(C) CO2
(D) H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Water is bent and unsymmetrical, so its bond dipoles do not cancel; CCl4, CH4 and CO2 are symmetrical and nonpolar overall.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group mainly because:

(A) The first ionisation energy increases down the group
(B) The outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily
(C) The number of electron shells decreases down the group
(D) The metals become harder down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Down the group the outer electron is in a higher shell, further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is removed more easily and reactivity increases.

Q22Which Period 3 oxide is amphoteric?

(A) Na2O
(B) MgO
(C) Al2O3
(D) SO3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and strong bases; Na2O and MgO are basic oxides and SO3 is an acidic oxide.

Q23Which aqueous ion is coloured?

(A) Zn^2+
(B) Cu^2+
(C) Sc^3+
(D) Ti^4+
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cu^2+ has a partially filled 3d subshell (d^9) and is blue in solution; Zn^2+ (d^10), Sc^3+ (d^0) and Ti^4+ (d^0) are colourless.

Q24What is the functional group present in ethanal, CH3CHO?

(A) Hydroxyl
(B) Carboxyl
(C) Carbonyl
(D) Ester
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ethanal is an aldehyde and contains the C=O carbonyl group.

Q25Which compound does NOT belong to the alkane homologous series, which has the general formula CnH2n+2?

(A) C3H6
(B) CH4
(C) C2H6
(D) C5H12
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

C3H6 fits the general formula CnH2n of the alkenes; the other three all fit CnH2n+2.

Q26What is the IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH(CH3)CH3?

(A) Butane
(B) 2-methylpropane
(C) 1-methylpropane
(D) 2-methylbutane
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The longest continuous chain has three carbon atoms, with a methyl group attached to carbon 2, giving 2-methylpropane.

Q27Which pair of compounds consists of structural isomers?

(A) Propane and butane
(B) Ethane and ethene
(C) Methane and ethane
(D) Pentane and 2-methylbutane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Pentane and 2-methylbutane share the molecular formula C5H12 but have different structural arrangements.

Q28An element has the electron configuration [Ar] 3d^5 4s^1. In which block of the periodic table is this element found?

(A) s-block
(B) p-block
(C) d-block
(D) f-block
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The highest-energy electrons occupy d orbitals, so the element (chromium) is a d-block transition metal.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29Using standard enthalpies of formation (C2H4 = +52, CO2 = -394 and H2O(l) = -286 kJ mol^-1), what is ΔH for the reaction C2H4(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)?

(A) -1412 kJ mol^-1
(B) -1310 kJ mol^-1
(C) +1412 kJ mol^-1
(D) -756 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔH = ΣΔHf(products) – ΣΔHf(reactants) = [2(-394) + 2(-286)] – [52 + 0] = -1360 – 52 = -1412 kJ mol^-1.

Q30When 1.00 g of ethanol is burned, it raises the temperature of 500 g of water by 11.4°C. What is the enthalpy of combustion of ethanol? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1; Mr of ethanol = 46)

(A) -24 kJ mol^-1
(B) -1100 kJ mol^-1
(C) -52 kJ mol^-1
(D) -2400 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

q = 500 × 4.18 × 11.4 = 23 826 J ≈ 23.8 kJ released per gram; per mole this is 23.8 × 46 ≈ 1100 kJ, so ΔHc ≈ -1100 kJ mol^-1.

Q31Given: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -394 kJ mol^-1, and CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide?

(A) -677 kJ mol^-1
(B) +111 kJ mol^-1
(C) -283 kJ mol^-1
(D) -111 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Applying Hess's law, the formation reaction is the first equation minus the second: ΔHf(CO) = -394 – (-283) = -111 kJ mol^-1.

Q32Using bond enthalpies (N≡N = 946, H-H = 436 and N-H = 391 kJ mol^-1), what is ΔH for the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g)?

(A) +92 kJ mol^-1
(B) -46 kJ mol^-1
(C) -92 kJ mol^-1
(D) -184 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bonds broken = 946 + 3(436) = 2254 kJ; bonds formed = 6(391) = 2346 kJ; ΔH = 2254 – 2346 = -92 kJ mol^-1.

Q33For which change is the entropy of the system decreasing?

(A) H2O(l) → H2O(g)
(B) Dissolving solid NaCl in water
(C) N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g)
(D) 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Two moles of gas combine to form one mole of gas, so the system becomes more ordered and ΔS is negative.

Q34A reaction has ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0. The reaction is spontaneous:

(A) At all temperatures
(B) At no temperature
(C) Only at high temperatures
(D) Only at low temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS; with both terms positive, ΔG becomes negative only when TΔS is larger than ΔH, which happens at high temperatures.

Q3550.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 HCl is mixed with 50.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 NaOH in a calorimeter. The temperature of the 100 g of solution rises by 6.8°C. What is the enthalpy of neutralisation? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1)

(A) -5.7 kJ mol^-1
(B) -57 kJ mol^-1
(C) -114 kJ mol^-1
(D) +57 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

q = 100 × 4.18 × 6.8 = 2842 J; the amount of water formed = 1.00 × 0.0500 = 0.0500 mol, so ΔH = -2842 / 0.0500 ≈ -57 kJ mol^-1.

Q36Which statement about mean bond enthalpies is correct?

(A) Breaking a covalent bond releases energy
(B) The C-H bond enthalpy has exactly the same value in every molecule
(C) A mean bond enthalpy is an average value taken from a range of compounds
(D) Bond enthalpies can only be measured for solid compounds
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bond breaking is endothermic, and the enthalpy of a given bond varies slightly between compounds, so tabulated bond enthalpies are average (mean) values.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37For a reaction, doubling [A] quadruples the rate, while doubling [B] has no effect on the rate. What is the rate law?

(A) rate = k[A]^2
(B) rate = k[A][B]
(C) rate = k[A][B]^2
(D) rate = k[A]^2[B]
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The rate depends on [A]^2 (second order in A) and is independent of [B] (zero order in B).

Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction because it:

(A) Increases the average kinetic energy of the particles
(B) Provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) Increases only the frequency of collisions between particles
(D) Shifts the peak of the Maxwell-Boltzmann curve to the right
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With a lower activation energy, a greater proportion of collisions have E ≥ Ea and are successful.

Q39A first-order reaction starts with a reactant concentration of 1.6 mol dm^-3. What percentage of the reactant remains after exactly three half-lives?

(A) 25%
(B) 6.25%
(C) 37.5%
(D) 12.5%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

After each half-life half remains, so after three half-lives the fraction remaining is (1/2)^3 = 1/8 = 12.5%.

Q40The rate of a reaction that produces a gas is being investigated. Which method is most suitable for following the rate?

(A) Measuring the volume of gas produced using a gas syringe
(B) Measuring the pH of the reaction mixture
(C) Titrating the gas that is produced
(D) Weighing the gas in an open container
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The volume of gas collected at regular time intervals gives a direct measure of how fast the reaction is proceeding.

Q41An equilibrium reaction has a very large value of Kc. This means that at equilibrium:

(A) Mostly reactants are present
(B) Products predominate in the equilibrium mixture
(C) The reaction must be very fast
(D) No reaction has occurred
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A large Kc means the equilibrium position lies well to the right; Kc gives no information about the rate of the reaction.

Q42For the equilibrium 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), what happens when the total pressure is increased at constant temperature?

(A) The equilibrium shifts towards the reactants
(B) There is no change in the equilibrium position
(C) The value of Kc decreases
(D) The equilibrium shifts towards the products
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The product side has fewer moles of gas (2 compared with 3), so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the products; Kc is unchanged at constant temperature.

Q43For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the initial concentration of PCl5 is 0.20 mol dm^-3. At equilibrium, [PCl5] = 0.16 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?

(A) 0.010
(B) 0.040
(C) 0.10
(D) 4.0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At equilibrium [PCl3] = [Cl2] = 0.20 – 0.16 = 0.040 mol dm^-3, so Kc = (0.040 × 0.040) / 0.16 = 0.0016 / 0.16 = 0.010.

Q44What are the units of the rate constant, k, for a first-order reaction?

(A) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(B) s^-1
(C) mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1
(D) mol^-2 dm^6 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

From k = rate / [A] = (mol dm^-3 s^-1) / (mol dm^-3) = s^-1.

Q45For an exothermic equilibrium reaction, increasing the temperature will:

(A) Increase the value of Kc
(B) Leave the value of Kc unchanged
(C) Shift the equilibrium to the right
(D) Decrease the value of Kc
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Heating favours the endothermic (reverse) direction, so fewer products are present at equilibrium and Kc becomes smaller.

Q46Adding a catalyst to a reaction mixture that is already at equilibrium will:

(A) Increase the yield of products
(B) Shift the equilibrium towards the products
(C) Have no effect on the equilibrium position, but equilibrium is reached faster
(D) Increase the value of Kc
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the composition at equilibrium is unchanged.

Q47A reaction takes place by the following mechanism. Step 1 (slow): NO2 + NO2 → NO3 + NO. Step 2 (fast): NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2. What is the rate law for the overall reaction?

(A) rate = k[NO2][CO]
(B) rate = k[NO2]^2
(C) rate = k[NO3][CO]
(D) rate = k[NO][CO]
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The rate is determined by the slow (rate-determining) step, which involves two NO2 molecules, so rate = k[NO2]^2.

Q48In the Arrhenius equation, k = A e^(-Ea/RT), the term e^(-Ea/RT) represents:

(A) The fraction of collisions that have energy greater than or equal to the activation energy
(B) The total number of collisions per second
(C) The activation energy of the reaction in J mol^-1
(D) The steric (orientation) factor for the collisions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The exponential term gives the proportion of collisions energetic enough to react; A is the frequency factor, which includes collision frequency and orientation.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49What is the pH of 0.0010 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution?

(A) 3.00
(B) 11.00
(C) 10.00
(D) 4.00
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NaOH is a strong base, so [OH^-] = 0.0010 mol dm^-3, pOH = 3.00, and pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.00.

Q50What is the conjugate acid of NH3?

(A) NH4^+
(B) NH2^-
(C) H3O^+
(D) OH^-
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A conjugate acid is formed by adding one H^+; adding H^+ to NH3 gives NH4^+.

Q51A buffer solution made from a weak acid and its salt resists changes in pH because it contains:

(A) A reserve of both a weak acid and its conjugate base
(B) A mixture of a strong acid and a strong base
(C) Only water and an inert salt
(D) A solution that is always exactly pH 7
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Added H^+ is removed by the conjugate base, and added OH^- is removed by the weak acid, so the pH changes very little.

Q52What is the oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4?

(A) +2
(B) +4
(C) +6
(D) +7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Using K = +1 and O = -2: +1 + x + 4(-2) = 0, so x = +7.

Q53A solution of copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using inert graphite electrodes. What is produced at the positive electrode (anode)?

(A) Copper
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Water is oxidised at the anode, releasing oxygen gas; copper is deposited at the cathode.

Q54Given the standard electrode potentials Fe^2+/Fe = -0.44 V and Ag^+/Ag = +0.80 V, what is E°cell for the reaction Fe(s) + 2 Ag^+(aq) → Fe^2+(aq) + 2 Ag(s)?

(A) +0.36 V
(B) +1.24 V
(C) -1.24 V
(D) +0.44 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

E°cell = E°(reduction) – E°(oxidation couple) = 0.80 – (-0.44) = +1.24 V.

Q55The reaction of ethene with bromine, Br2, is an example of:

(A) Electrophilic addition
(B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Free-radical substitution
(D) Elimination
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The pi bond of the alkene attacks the bromine molecule and both bromine atoms add across the double bond.

Q56Ethanol is heated under reflux with excess acidified potassium dichromate(VI). What is the main organic product?

(A) Ethanal
(B) Ethene
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ethanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With excess oxidising agent under reflux, the primary alcohol is fully oxidised past the aldehyde stage to the carboxylic acid, ethanoic acid.

Q57Methyl ethanoate is hydrolysed by aqueous sodium hydroxide: CH3COOCH3 + OH^- → products. The products of this reaction are:

(A) Ethanoate ions and methanol
(B) Ethanoic acid and methanol
(C) Methanoate ions and ethanol
(D) Ethane and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alkaline hydrolysis of an ester gives the carboxylate salt and the alcohol; CH3COOCH3 gives CH3COO^- and CH3OH.

Q58Which halogenoalkane is the most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution because it contains the best leaving group?

(A) CH3F
(B) CH3Cl
(C) CH3Br
(D) CH3I
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The C-I bond is the weakest carbon-halogen bond and I^- is the best leaving group, so reactivity increases in the order F < Cl < Br < I.

Q59Which is the strongest acid?

(A) Chloroethanoic acid
(B) Ethanoic acid
(C) Phenol
(D) Ethanol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The electron-withdrawing chlorine atom stabilises the chloroethanoate ion, so chloroethanoic acid is stronger than ethanoic acid; phenol and ethanol are far weaker acids.

Q60An aqueous solution of ammonium chloride, NH4Cl, is:

(A) Neutral
(B) Alkaline
(C) Always exactly pH 7
(D) Acidic
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The NH4^+ ion is the conjugate acid of the weak base ammonia and hydrolyses in water (NH4^+ ⇌ NH3 + H^+), making the solution acidic.