IB Chemistry Practice Test 18

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1Isotopes of an element have:

(A) The same number of protons and the same number of neutrons
(B) The same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
(C) The same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
(D) The same mass number but different atomic numbers
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same proton number) that differ in the number of neutrons, and so in mass number.

Q2A sample of chlorine consists of 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of this sample?

(A) 35.0
(B) 36.0
(C) 34.5
(D) 35.5
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ar = (0.75 × 35) + (0.25 × 37) = 26.25 + 9.25 = 35.5.

Q3How many electrons are there in a calcium ion, ^40Ca^2+? (Atomic number of Ca = 20)

(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 22
(D) 40
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A Ca atom has 20 electrons; losing 2 electrons to form Ca^2+ leaves 18.

Q4What is the electron configuration of a chloride ion, Cl^-? (Atomic number of Cl = 17)

(A) [Ne] 3s^2 3p^5
(B) [Ne] 3s^2 3p^6
(C) [Ar] 4s^1
(D) [Ne] 3s^2 3p^4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cl^- has 18 electrons, filling the 3p subshell: [Ne] 3s^2 3p^6, the argon configuration.

Q5A hydrocarbon contains 85.7% carbon and 14.3% hydrogen by mass. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CH
(B) CH2
(C) CH3
(D) C2H4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles: C = 85.7/12.0 = 7.14; H = 14.3/1.0 = 14.3. Ratio 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CH2 (C2H4 is a molecular formula).

Q6What volume, in dm^3, is occupied by 0.25 mol of a gas at STP? (Molar volume at STP = 22.7 dm^3 mol^-1)

(A) 5.7
(B) 22.7
(C) 2.27
(D) 90.8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

V = 0.25 × 22.7 = 5.68, approximately 5.7 dm^3.

Q725.0 cm^3 of 2.0 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid is diluted to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the concentration, in mol dm^-3, of the diluted acid?

(A) 0.020
(B) 2.0
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.20
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of acid = 0.0250 × 2.0 = 0.050 mol; concentration = 0.050/0.250 = 0.20 mol dm^-3.

Q8A reaction has a theoretical yield of 8.0 g, but only 6.0 g of product is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 25%
(B) 133%
(C) 75%
(D) 60%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage yield = (6.0/8.0) × 100 = 75%.

Q925.0 cm^3 of a sodium hydroxide solution is exactly neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of 0.100 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid. What is the concentration, in mol dm^-3, of the sodium hydroxide?

(A) 0.080
(B) 0.100
(C) 0.125
(D) 0.050
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of HCl = 0.0200 × 0.100 = 2.00 × 10^-3; the reaction is 1 : 1, so concentration of NaOH = 2.00 × 10^-3/0.0250 = 0.080 mol dm^-3.

Q10How many moles of chloride ions are there in 0.50 mol of calcium chloride, CaCl2?

(A) 0.50
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each formula unit of CaCl2 contains two chloride ions, so 0.50 × 2 = 1.0 mol of Cl^-.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11Which molecule contains a double bond?

(A) H2
(B) O2
(C) HCl
(D) F2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An oxygen molecule has a double bond (O=O); H2, HCl and F2 all have single bonds.

Q12What is the shape of a water molecule, H2O?

(A) Linear
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Bent
(D) Trigonal planar
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Oxygen has two bonding pairs and two lone pairs; the lone pairs push the bonds together, giving a bent shape with an angle of about 104.5°.

Q13What is the molecular shape of sulfur tetrafluoride, SF4?

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Square planar
(C) Trigonal planar
(D) Seesaw
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur has five electron domains (four bonds and one lone pair) in a trigonal bipyramidal arrangement; the lone pair gives a seesaw molecular shape.

Q14The only significant intermolecular forces between hydrogen molecules, H2, are:

(A) London (dispersion) forces
(B) Hydrogen bonds
(C) Dipole-dipole forces
(D) Ionic attractions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

H2 is non-polar with no permanent dipole and no hydrogen bonding, so only weak London dispersion forces act between its molecules.

Q15Graphite conducts electricity because:

(A) It contains mobile ions
(B) Its layers are held together by ionic bonds
(C) Each layer contains delocalised electrons
(D) It has a giant ionic structure
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each carbon in graphite forms three bonds, leaving one electron per atom delocalised within the layer, free to carry charge.

Q16Which substance has the highest melting point?

(A) Ice
(B) Sulfur, S8
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Silicon
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Silicon has a giant covalent structure like diamond, needing a lot of energy to break; the others are simple molecular substances.

Q17Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does, because in the liquid state:

(A) The ions are free to move
(B) Delocalised electrons are present
(C) Water is present to dissolve it
(D) The lattice contains molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In the solid the ions are locked in the lattice; on melting they become mobile and can carry charge to the electrodes.

Q18Carbon dioxide is a non-polar molecule because:

(A) It contains no polar bonds
(B) The molecule is linear, so the two bond dipoles cancel
(C) Carbon has no valence electrons
(D) Oxygen is very electronegative
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The C=O bonds are polar, but the linear shape places them in opposite directions, so the dipoles cancel exactly.

Q19What is the hybridisation of the carbon atoms in ethene, C2H4? (HL)

(A) sp
(B) sp^3
(C) sp^3d
(D) sp^2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each carbon has three electron domains in a trigonal planar arrangement, corresponding to sp^2 hybridisation.

Q20A carbon-carbon double bond consists of:

(A) Two sigma bonds
(B) Two pi bonds
(C) One sigma bond and one pi bond
(D) Three sigma bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A double bond is made of one sigma bond (end-on overlap) and one pi bond (sideways overlap of p orbitals).

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21Which statement about Group 1 elements is correct?

(A) Reactivity increases down the group
(B) Melting point increases down the group
(C) First ionisation energy increases down the group
(D) Atomic radius decreases down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Down Group 1 the valence electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily and reactivity increases; melting point, ionisation energy fall and radius increases.

Q22Which property increases down Group 17 (the halogens)?

(A) Electronegativity
(B) Melting point
(C) Reactivity as an oxidising agent
(D) First ionisation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The halogens are molecular; larger molecules have stronger London dispersion forces, so melting points increase down the group, while electronegativity, oxidising power and ionisation energy decrease.

Q23Which Period 3 oxide is acidic?

(A) Na2O
(B) MgO
(C) SO3
(D) Al2O3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Oxides become more acidic across Period 3: Na2O and MgO are basic, Al2O3 is amphoteric, and SO3 is acidic.

Q24What is the oxidation state of iron in Fe2O3?

(A) +2
(B) 0
(C) +6
(D) +3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With three oxygen atoms at -2 each: 2x + 3(-2) = 0, so x = +3.

Q25Which species acts as a ligand in the complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]^2+?

(A) Cu^2+
(B) Cu
(C) NH4^+
(D) NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The ammonia molecules donate lone pairs to the central Cu^2+ ion, so NH3 is the ligand.

Q26Which functional group is present in ethanol, CH3CH2OH?

(A) Hydroxyl
(B) Carboxyl
(C) Carbonyl
(D) Amino
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The -OH group bonded to a carbon chain is the hydroxyl group, characteristic of alcohols.

Q27Which compound is an alkane?

(A) C2H4
(B) C5H12
(C) C3H6
(D) C6H6
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes fit the general formula CnH2n+2; C5H12 gives 2(5) + 2 = 12 hydrogens, so it is an alkane.

Q28What is the IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH=CH2?

(A) But-2-ene
(B) Butane
(C) But-1-ene
(D) 2-methylpropene
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The chain has four carbons and the double bond starts at carbon 1: but-1-ene.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29By definition, the standard enthalpy change of formation of an element in its standard state is:

(A) -100 kJ mol^-1
(B) +100 kJ mol^-1
(C) Equal to its enthalpy of combustion
(D) Zero
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An element in its standard state is the reference point, so its ΔHf° is defined as zero.

Q30When 0.100 mol of a salt dissolves in 100.0 g of water, the temperature of the water falls by 5.00°C. What is the enthalpy change of solution, in kJ mol^-1? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1)

(A) +20.9
(B) -20.9
(C) +2.09
(D) -2.09
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Heat absorbed by the process = 100.0 × 4.18 × 5.00 = 2090 J; per mole = 2090/0.100 = 20 900 J = +20.9 kJ mol^-1 (positive, because the temperature fell: the dissolving is endothermic).

Q31Given: 2 C(s) + O2(g) → 2 CO(g), ΔH = -222 kJ mol^-1; 2 CO(g) + O2(g) → 2 CO2(g), ΔH = -566 kJ mol^-1. What is ΔH, in kJ mol^-1, for C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)?

(A) -788
(B) -394
(C) -344
(D) +394
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Adding the equations gives 2 C + 2 O2 → 2 CO2 with ΔH = -222 + (-566) = -788 kJ; halving gives -394 kJ mol^-1.

Q32Using the bond enthalpies C-H = 413, O=O = 498, C=O = 743 and O-H = 463 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH, in kJ mol^-1, for CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g)?

(A) +690
(B) -3590
(C) -690
(D) -2648
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bonds broken: 4(C-H) + 2(O=O) = 1652 + 996 = 2648 kJ. Bonds formed: 2(C=O) + 4(O-H) = 1486 + 1852 = 3338 kJ. ΔH = 2648 – 3338 = -690 kJ mol^-1.

Q33The standard enthalpy of formation of ammonia, NH3, is -46 kJ mol^-1. What is ΔH, in kJ, for the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g)?

(A) -92
(B) -46
(C) +92
(D) -184
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The reaction forms 2 mol of NH3, so ΔH = 2 × (-46) = -92 kJ; the elements are in their standard states and contribute zero.

Q34Which process has a positive entropy change, ΔS > 0?

(A) Freezing of water
(B) Decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas
(C) Condensation of steam
(D) Compression of a gas at constant temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A gas is produced from a solid, greatly increasing the disorder (and the number of particles), so ΔS is positive; the other processes all decrease disorder.

Q35A reaction has ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0. The reaction is spontaneous (ΔG < 0):

(A) At no temperature
(B) Only at low temperatures
(C) At all temperatures
(D) Only at high temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS; with ΔH negative and -TΔS also negative, ΔG is negative at every temperature.

Q36A reaction has ΔH = -200 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = -0.100 kJ K^-1 mol^-1. What is ΔG, in kJ mol^-1, at 500 K?

(A) -250
(B) +150
(C) -50
(D) -150
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = -200 – (500 × -0.100) = -200 + 50 = -150 kJ mol^-1.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37According to collision theory, increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction because:

(A) The particles gain more energy
(B) Collisions between particles occur more frequently
(C) The activation energy decreases
(D) The particles move faster
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

More particles in the same volume collide more often, so successful collisions happen more frequently; particle energy, speed and activation energy are unchanged.

Q38For the reaction A + B → products, doubling the concentration of A quadruples the rate, while changing the concentration of B has no effect on the rate. What is the rate law?

(A) rate = k[A][B]
(B) rate = k[A]
(C) rate = k[A]^2
(D) rate = k[A]^2[B]
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The rate depends on [A] squared (second order in A) and is independent of [B] (zero order), so rate = k[A]^2.

Q39What are the units of the rate constant, k, for a first-order reaction?

(A) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(B) dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1
(C) mol dm^-3
(D) s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

For rate = k[A], k = rate/[A] = (mol dm^-3 s^-1)/(mol dm^-3) = s^-1.

Q40What happens to the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution of molecular energies when the temperature of a gas is increased?

(A) The curve shifts to higher energies and flattens, with the same total area
(B) The total area under the curve decreases
(C) The peak becomes higher and narrower
(D) The activation energy increases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The total area (total number of molecules) stays the same, but the distribution spreads to higher energies and the peak lowers; the activation energy does not change.

Q41For the equilibrium A(g) ⇌ B(g), the equilibrium mixture contains [A] = 0.20 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.80 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?

(A) 0.25
(B) 0.60
(C) 4.0
(D) 16
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Kc = [B]/[A] = 0.80/0.20 = 4.0.

Q42For the reaction 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), ΔH = -197 kJ mol^-1, what happens to Kc when the temperature is increased?

(A) Kc increases
(B) The yield of SO3 increases
(C) The rate of the forward reaction decreases
(D) Kc decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The forward reaction is exothermic, so raising the temperature shifts the equilibrium to the left and Kc decreases (both reaction rates in fact increase).

Q43Which statement about the effect of a catalyst on an equilibrium system is correct?

(A) Equilibrium is reached faster, but Kc and the equilibrium position are unchanged
(B) Kc increases
(C) The yield of product increases
(D) The equilibrium shifts to the right
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally, so equilibrium is reached sooner with no change in Kc or composition.

Q44For a reaction mixture, the reaction quotient Q is greater than Kc. What must happen for the system to reach equilibrium?

(A) The system is already at equilibrium
(B) The reverse reaction must occur faster than the forward reaction, forming more reactants
(C) The forward reaction must occur faster, forming more products
(D) Both reactions stop
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Q > Kc means there are too many products relative to equilibrium, so the net reaction proceeds in reverse until Q = Kc.

Q45A plot of the initial rate of a reaction against the concentration of reactant A is a straight line passing through the origin. What is the order of the reaction with respect to A?

(A) First order
(B) Zero order
(C) Second order
(D) Third order
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rate is directly proportional to [A], which is the definition of first-order behaviour.

Q46In an Arrhenius plot of ln k against 1/T, the gradient of the straight line is equal to: (HL)

(A) Ea/R
(B) -Ea/R
(C) -R/Ea
(D) ln A
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

From ln k = -(Ea/R)(1/T) + ln A, the gradient is -Ea/R; the intercept is ln A.

Q47For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), Kc = 0.50. PCl5 is placed in a flask at an initial concentration of 1.00 mol dm^-3 and allowed to reach equilibrium. What is the equilibrium concentration of Cl2, in mol dm^-3?

(A) 0.25
(B) 1.00
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.75
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Let x = [Cl2] at equilibrium: Kc = x^2/(1.00 – x) = 0.50 gives x^2 + 0.50x – 0.50 = 0, whose positive root is x = 0.50 mol dm^-3.

Q48What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g)?

(A) The equilibrium shifts to the right
(B) The equilibrium shifts to the left
(C) Kc increases
(D) There is no effect on the equilibrium position
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

There are equal numbers of moles of gas on both sides (2 and 2), so a pressure change does not favour either side and Kc is unchanged.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49What is the pH of a 0.0010 mol dm^-3 solution of sodium hydroxide?

(A) 3.0
(B) 12.0
(C) 11.0
(D) 7.0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

NaOH fully dissociates, so [OH^-] = 1.0 × 10^-3 and pOH = 3.0; pH = 14.0 – 3.0 = 11.0.

Q50What is the conjugate acid of NH3?

(A) NH2^-
(B) N^3-
(C) H3O^+
(D) NH4^+
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A conjugate acid is formed by adding one H+; adding H+ to NH3 gives NH4^+.

Q51A buffer solution contains equal concentrations of ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate. The pKa of ethanoic acid is 4.76. What is the pH of the buffer?

(A) 4.76
(B) 7.00
(C) 2.38
(D) 9.24
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]); with equal concentrations the log term is log(1) = 0, so pH = pKa = 4.76.

Q52A solution of ammonia is titrated with hydrochloric acid. What is the pH at the equivalence point?

(A) Exactly 7.00
(B) Less than 7
(C) Greater than 7
(D) Exactly 14.00
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At equivalence the solution contains NH4Cl; the NH4^+ ion is a weak acid, so the solution is acidic with pH less than 7.

Q53What is the oxidation state of manganese in KMnO4?

(A) +2
(B) +4
(C) +6
(D) +7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With potassium at +1 and four oxygens at -2 each: +1 + x + 4(-2) = 0, so x = +7.

Q54Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the anode (positive electrode)?

(A) Bromine
(B) Lead
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At the anode, bromide ions are oxidised to bromine (2 Br^- → Br2 + 2 e^-); lead forms at the cathode.

Q55Standard electrode potentials: E°(Zn^2+/Zn) = -0.76 V, E°(Fe^2+/Fe) = -0.44 V, E°(Cu^2+/Cu) = +0.34 V, E°(Ag^+/Ag) = +0.80 V. Which metal is the strongest reducing agent?

(A) Cu
(B) Zn
(C) Ag
(D) Fe
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The strongest reducing agent is the metal most easily oxidised, which has the most negative E° value: zinc.

Q56Methane reacts with chlorine in sunlight. The first step of the mechanism involves:

(A) Heterolytic fission of a C-H bond
(B) Nucleophilic attack by Cl^-
(C) Homolytic fission of a Cl-Cl bond, forming free radicals
(D) Electrophilic addition to a double bond
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ultraviolet light causes homolytic fission of Cl2 into two chlorine radicals, which then start the free radical substitution chain.

Q57Ethanoic acid is warmed with ethanol in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid. What is the organic product?

(A) Ethyl methanoate
(B) Ethyl ethanoate
(C) Methyl ethanoate
(D) Ethanoic anhydride
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Esterification gives an ester named from the alcohol (ethyl) and the acid (ethanoate): ethyl ethanoate, plus water.

Q58Ethene reacts with hydrogen bromide to form a single organic product. What is the product?

(A) Dibromoethane
(B) Ethanol
(C) Bromoethane
(D) Ethane
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

HBr adds across the double bond (electrophilic addition), giving bromoethane.

Q59Which species is amphiprotic (can act as both a Bronsted-Lowry acid and a base)?

(A) CO3^2-
(B) NH4^+
(C) CH3COO^-
(D) HCO3^-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

HCO3^- can donate a proton (forming CO3^2-) and accept a proton (forming H2CO3), so it is amphiprotic.

Q60In the reaction Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s), which species is the oxidising agent?

(A) Cu^2+
(B) Zn
(C) Zn^2+
(D) Cu
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cu^2+ gains electrons (it is reduced to Cu), so it is the oxidising agent; Zn is the reducing agent.