IB Chemistry Practice Test 12

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1Relative atomic mass is best defined as

(A) The mass of one atom compared with carbon-12
(B) The simple average of the masses of all isotopes
(C) The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom
(D) The weighted average mass of the isotopes of an element
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Relative atomic mass accounts for both isotopic masses and their relative abundances.

Q2How many moles are present in 11 g of CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44)

(A) 0.025 mol
(B) 2.50 mol
(C) 0.250 mol
(D) 4.00 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

n = m/Mr = 11/44 = 0.250 mol.

Q3How many particles are present in 2.0 mol of helium atoms?

(A) 6.02 x 10^23
(B) 1.20 x 10^24
(C) 3.01 x 10^23
(D) 2.41 x 10^24
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Number of particles = 2.0 x 6.02 x 10^23 = 1.20 x 10^24.

Q4At STP, what is the approximate molar volume of an ideal gas in dm^3 mol^-1?

(A) 22.7
(B) 24.0
(C) 11.3
(D) 44.8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At STP (273 K and 100 kPa), one mole of an ideal gas occupies about 22.7 dm^3.

Q5What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in water, H2O? (Ar: H = 1, O = 16)

(A) 88.9%
(B) 11.1%
(C) 50.0%
(D) 94.1%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mr(H2O) = 18, so %O = (16/18) x 100 = 88.9%.

Q6Hydrogen and oxygen react by 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g). If 2.0 mol H2 and 2.0 mol O2 are mixed, what is the maximum amount of H2O formed?

(A) 1.0 mol
(B) 3.0 mol
(C) 4.0 mol
(D) 2.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

2.0 mol H2 needs only 1.0 mol O2 and forms 2.0 mol H2O; H2 is limiting.

Q7A 25.0 cm^3 sample of 2.00 mol dm^-3 solution is diluted to 250 cm^3. What is the new concentration?

(A) 20.0 mol dm^-3
(B) 2.00 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.0200 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Amount stays constant: n = 2.00 x 0.0250 = 0.0500 mol; c = 0.0500/0.250 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q8What is the electron arrangement of a magnesium atom?

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,8,2
(C) 8,2,2
(D) 2,2,8
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Magnesium has 12 electrons arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 2 in the third.

Q9Emission spectra provide evidence that electrons in atoms

(A) Have a continuous range of energies
(B) Occupy discrete energy levels
(C) Are identical to neutrons
(D) Move in random orbits with no energy changes
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Only certain photon energies are emitted, showing that electrons occupy discrete energy levels.

Q10What is the mass of 0.50 mol of CaCO3? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 50 g
(B) 25 g
(C) 100 g
(D) 200 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

m = n x Mr = 0.50 x 100 = 50 g.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11What is the molecular geometry of CO2?

(A) Bent
(B) Trigonal planar
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) Linear
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

CO2 has two electron domains around carbon arranged opposite each other, giving a linear molecule.

Q12Ionic bonding is best described as

(A) Sharing of electron pairs between atoms
(B) Attraction between delocalized electrons and metal ions
(C) Electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
(D) Attraction between temporary dipoles
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ionic bonds form from electrostatic attraction between cations and anions.

Q13Which compound contains covalent bonds only?

(A) NaCl
(B) MgO
(C) CH4
(D) NH4Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CH4 contains only shared-pair covalent bonds; NH4Cl also has ionic attraction between NH4^+ and Cl^-.

Q14How many electron domains are around the central carbon atom in CO2?

(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each double bond counts as one electron domain, so CO2 has two domains around carbon.

Q15Diamond has a very high melting point because it has

(A) A covalent network structure
(B) Hydrogen bonding between molecules
(C) Only London dispersion forces
(D) Weak ionic bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Diamond is a giant covalent network, so many strong covalent bonds must be broken to melt it.

Q16Which molecule has an expanded octet around the central atom?

(A) NH3
(B) H2O
(C) BF3
(D) SF6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur in SF6 is surrounded by 12 electrons, which is an expanded octet.

Q17What is the main intermolecular force between CH4 molecules?

(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) Dipole-dipole forces
(C) Ionic attraction
(D) London dispersion forces
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

CH4 is non-polar, so only London dispersion forces act between its molecules.

Q18Why is ice less dense than liquid water?

(A) Hydrogen bonding holds water molecules in an open structure
(B) Ice contains fewer molecules than liquid water
(C) The covalent bonds in ice are longer than in liquid water
(D) Ice has no intermolecular forces
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In ice, hydrogen bonds hold molecules in an open lattice, increasing volume and lowering density.

Q19What is the bond order in an O2 molecule?

(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

O2 has a double bond, O=O, so its bond order is 2.

Q20What is the formal charge on nitrogen in NH4^+?

(A) -1
(B) +1
(C) 0
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Formal charge = 5 – (0 + 8/2) = +1.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21How does reactivity of Group 1 metals change down the group?

(A) It increases
(B) It decreases
(C) It stays the same
(D) It depends only on colour
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is farther from the nucleus and more easily lost.

Q22Which element is in Period 3 and Group 13?

(A) B
(B) Na
(C) Al
(D) Si
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium is the Period 3 element in Group 13.

Q23Which property is typical of transition metals?

(A) They form only colourless compounds
(B) They have only one oxidation state
(C) They cannot act as catalysts
(D) They show variable oxidation states
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition metals commonly form ions with different charges, such as Fe^2+ and Fe^3+.

Q24What is the general formula of an alkane?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acyclic alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q25Ethanol, CH3CH2OH, belongs to which class of organic compounds?

(A) Ether
(B) Alcohol
(C) Aldehyde
(D) Amine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The -OH hydroxyl group makes ethanol an alcohol.

Q26Which element has the highest electronegativity?

(A) Cl
(B) O
(C) N
(D) F
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Fluorine is the most electronegative element.

Q27Which property decreases across Period 3 from Na to Cl?

(A) Atomic number
(B) Electronegativity
(C) Metallic character
(D) Nuclear charge
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Elements become less metallic and more non-metallic across a period.

Q28Structural isomers are compounds that have

(A) The same molecular formula but different structural arrangements
(B) The same structure but different molecular formulas
(C) Different numbers of neutrons only
(D) The same displayed formula in all cases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Structural isomers share a molecular formula but differ in how atoms are connected.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29Enthalpy change of reaction is the heat change measured at

(A) Constant volume only
(B) Zero pressure
(C) Constant pressure
(D) Constant temperature only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Standard enthalpy changes are measured for heat transfer at constant pressure.

Q30How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of 50.0 g of a substance by 10.0°C if its specific heat capacity is 2.00 J g^-1 °C^-1?

(A) 1.00 kJ
(B) 0.100 kJ
(C) 10.0 kJ
(D) 100 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

q = mcΔT = 50.0 x 2.00 x 10.0 = 1000 J = 1.00 kJ.

Q31Hess's law states that the enthalpy change for a reaction

(A) Depends on the exact route taken
(B) Is independent of the route, depending only on initial and final states
(C) Applies only to combustion reactions
(D) Is always zero for cyclic processes involving gases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Enthalpy is a state function, so the overall change depends only on the starting and finishing states.

Q32Average bond enthalpy is the enthalpy change when

(A) 1 mol of a compound is formed from its elements
(B) 1 mol of bonds is made in liquid molecules
(C) 1 mol of a solid ionic lattice is broken into ions
(D) 1 mol of bonds is broken in gaseous molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bond enthalpy refers to breaking one mole of a bond in gaseous molecules, averaged over similar compounds where relevant.

Q33In an endothermic reaction, the enthalpy profile shows that the products are

(A) At the same level as the reactants
(B) Lower in enthalpy than the reactants
(C) Always unstable gases
(D) Higher in enthalpy than the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Endothermic reactions absorb heat, so the products have higher enthalpy than the reactants.

Q34Which sample has the greatest entropy?

(A) 1 mol of ice at 0°C
(B) 1 mol of steam at 100°C
(C) 1 mol of liquid water at 25°C
(D) 1 mol of diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Gases have much greater disorder than liquids or solids, so steam has the greatest entropy.

Q35A reaction has ΔH negative and ΔS positive. It is spontaneous

(A) At all temperatures
(B) Only at very low temperatures
(C) Only at very high temperatures
(D) At no temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

With ΔG = ΔH – TΔS, negative ΔH and positive ΔS make ΔG negative at all temperatures.

Q36Standard enthalpy change of atomization refers to forming

(A) 1 mol of a compound from gaseous atoms
(B) 1 mol of ions from a solid element
(C) 1 mol of gaseous atoms from the element in its standard state
(D) 1 mol of molecules from a liquid element only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Atomization produces one mole of gaseous atoms from the element under standard conditions.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37According to collision theory, a successful collision must have particles with

(A) Energy at least equal to the activation energy and a suitable orientation
(B) Low energy and any orientation
(C) Equal concentrations at all times
(D) A catalyst present on the surface
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Particles must collide with enough energy and the correct geometry to react.

Q38In a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, the total area under the curve represents

(A) The activation energy
(B) The rate constant
(C) The total number of molecules
(D) The average bond enthalpy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The area is proportional to the total number of particles in the sample and stays constant for a fixed sample.

Q39If the rate is proportional to [X]^2, the reaction is which order with respect to X?

(A) Zero order
(B) Second order
(C) First order
(D) Third order
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The exponent of [X] in the rate law is 2, so the reaction is second order in X.

Q40A very large value of Kc indicates that at equilibrium

(A) Mostly reactants are present
(B) The reaction has not started
(C) Kc changes rapidly with time
(D) Products are strongly favoured
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Large Kc means the equilibrium concentration of products is much greater than that of reactants.

Q41Increasing the temperature of an equilibrium system favours

(A) The exothermic direction
(B) The endothermic direction
(C) Neither direction
(D) The direction with more catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Added heat shifts equilibrium in the direction that absorbs heat, which is the endothermic direction.

Q42The value of an equilibrium constant changes only when

(A) Concentration changes
(B) Pressure changes
(C) A catalyst is added
(D) Temperature changes
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

K depends on temperature; changing concentration or pressure changes position, not K.

Q43For A(aq) ⇌ B(aq), a mixture starts with [A] = 0.80 mol dm^-3 and no B. At equilibrium [B] = 0.30 mol dm^-3. What is Kc?

(A) 0.60
(B) 0.375
(C) 1.67
(D) 0.24
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At equilibrium [A] = 0.80 – 0.30 = 0.50, so Kc = [B]/[A] = 0.30/0.50 = 0.60.

Q44A catalyst increases the rate of reaction mainly because it

(A) Increases the concentration of reactants
(B) Raises the temperature of the mixture
(C) Lowers the activation energy
(D) Makes the reaction more exothermic
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst provides an alternative pathway requiring less activation energy.

Q45For a second-order reaction, the half-life

(A) Is the same for all reactions
(B) Is independent of temperature only
(C) Depends on the initial concentration
(D) Is always equal to ln2/k
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Unlike first-order reactions, second-order half-life changes with the starting concentration.

Q46What are the usual units of reaction rate?

(A) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(B) dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1
(C) s^-1 only
(D) mol dm^-3 only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rate is concentration change per unit time, commonly mol dm^-3 s^-1.

Q47Adding an inert gas at constant volume to an equilibrium mixture of gases causes

(A) A shift towards products
(B) A shift towards reactants
(C) A change in Kc
(D) No shift in equilibrium position
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At constant volume the reactant and product partial pressures do not change, so there is no shift.

Q48What is the Kc expression for CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?

(A) [CaO][CO2]/[CaCO3]
(B) [CO2]
(C) 1/[CO2]
(D) [CO2]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Pure solids are omitted from the expression, leaving Kc = [CO2].

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49What is the pH of 0.0010 mol dm^-3 NaOH(aq)? (Kw = 1.0 x 10^-14 at 25°C)

(A) 3.00
(B) 7.00
(C) 10.00
(D) 11.00
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

[OH^-] = 0.0010, so pOH = 3.00 and pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.00.

Q50An aqueous solution of NH4Cl is best described as

(A) Neutral
(B) Acidic
(C) Strongly basic
(D) A buffer in all concentrations
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NH4^+ is the conjugate acid of a weak base and donates H^+ to water, making the solution acidic.

Q51For weak acids at the same concentration, a larger Ka value means

(A) A weaker acid
(B) A lower pH only if the acid is diprotic
(C) A stronger acid
(D) No ionisation in water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Larger Ka means a greater extent of ionisation, so the acid is stronger.

Q52In redox terms, reduction is

(A) Gain of electrons
(B) Loss of electrons
(C) Increase in oxidation number
(D) Gain of oxygen only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Reduction is gain of electrons, with a decrease in oxidation number.

Q53In electroplating an object with silver, the object should be connected as the

(A) Cathode, connected to the negative terminal
(B) Anode, connected to the negative terminal
(C) Salt bridge
(D) Positive electrode only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metal ions are reduced at the cathode; in an electrolytic cell the cathode is connected to the negative terminal.

Q54In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, the overall reaction is

(A) H2 + O2 → H2O2
(B) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
(C) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(D) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen is oxidized and oxygen is reduced, giving water as the overall product.

Q55The rate of an SN1 reaction depends mainly on the concentration of

(A) The nucleophile only
(B) The halogenoalkane only
(C) Both reactants equally in the slow step
(D) The leaving group product only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The slow step of SN1 is unimolecular and involves only the halogenoalkane forming a carbocation.

Q56Electrophilic substitution in benzene is favoured over addition because substitution

(A) Destroys the aromatic ring
(B) Requires no electrophile
(C) Preserves the aromatic ring
(D) Always forms a single product without a catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Substitution replaces one H atom while keeping the delocalized aromatic system intact.

Q57Reduction of a ketone gives

(A) A primary alcohol
(B) A secondary alcohol
(C) A carboxylic acid
(D) An alkane directly in all cases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The carbonyl carbon in a ketone is bonded to two carbon groups, so reduction gives a secondary alcohol.

Q58A buffer contains equal concentrations of ethanoic acid and ethanoate ions. If pKa of ethanoic acid is 4.76, what is the approximate pH of the buffer?

(A) 3.76
(B) 5.76
(C) 4.76
(D) 7.00
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

By Henderson-Hasselbalch, pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]); with equal concentrations the log term is 0, so pH = 4.76.

Q59Which gas forms an acidic solution when dissolved in water?

(A) SO2
(B) O2
(C) N2
(D) Ar
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sulfur dioxide dissolves to form sulfurous acid and can be oxidized further to sulfuric acid in acid rain chemistry.

Q60The standard hydrogen electrode is assigned a potential of

(A) +1.00 V
(B) -1.00 V
(C) +0.76 V
(D) 0.00 V
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The standard hydrogen electrode is the reference electrode and is assigned E = 0.00 V.