IB Chemistry Practice Test 11

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1Which sample contains the greatest number of molecules?

(A) 2.0 mol of CO2
(B) 1.5 mol of H2O
(C) 1.0 mol of NH3
(D) 0.50 mol of O2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The number of molecules is proportional to the amount in moles, and 2.0 mol is the largest amount listed.

Q2A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CHO
(B) CH2O
(C) C2H4O2
(D) CH4O
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mole ratio C:H:O = 40.0/12.0 : 6.7/1.0 : 53.3/16.0 = 3.33 : 6.70 : 3.33 = 1 : 2 : 1, giving CH2O.

Q3What is the volume, in dm^3, occupied by 0.250 mol of an ideal gas at 100 kPa and 300 K? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 2.49
(B) 4.15
(C) 6.23
(D) 24.9
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

V = nRT/p = (0.250 x 8.31 x 300)/100000 = 0.00623 m^3 = 6.23 dm^3.

Q4A 5.85 g sample of NaCl (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water and made up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution in mol dm^-3?

(A) 0.050
(B) 0.100
(C) 0.150
(D) 0.200
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

n(NaCl) = 5.85/58.5 = 0.100 mol; c = 0.100/0.500 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q5What is the ground-state electron configuration of a chromium atom?

(A) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^4
(B) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5
(C) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^5
(D) [Ar] 3d^6
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chromium is an exception to the expected filling pattern; a half-filled 3d subshell gives [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5.

Q6An element X has isotopes ^20X with 90.0% abundance and ^21X with 10.0% abundance. What is the relative atomic mass of X?

(A) 20.0
(B) 20.05
(C) 20.1
(D) 20.9
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ar = (90.0 x 20 + 10.0 x 21)/100 = (1800 + 210)/100 = 20.1.

Q7How many ions are present in 0.50 mol of MgCl2 formula units?

(A) 3.01 x 10^23
(B) 6.02 x 10^23
(C) 1.20 x 10^24
(D) 9.03 x 10^23
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each MgCl2 unit gives 3 ions, so ions = 0.50 x 3 x 6.02 x 10^23 = 9.03 x 10^23.

Q8A fixed amount of gas is held in a sealed container of constant volume. If the temperature increases from 300 K to 600 K, what happens to the pressure?

(A) It doubles
(B) It halves
(C) It stays the same
(D) It quadruples
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At constant volume, p is proportional to T in kelvin, so doubling T doubles p.

Q9How many moles of hydrogen atoms are present in 18 g of water? (Mr of H2O = 18)

(A) 0.50 mol
(B) 1.0 mol
(C) 2.0 mol
(D) 3.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

18 g of H2O is 1.0 mol of water molecules, and each molecule contains 2 H atoms, giving 2.0 mol of H atoms.

Q10A reaction has a theoretical yield of 24.0 g. If 18.0 g of product is obtained, what is the percentage yield?

(A) 25.0%
(B) 33.3%
(C) 66.7%
(D) 75.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (18.0/24.0) x 100 = 75.0%.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11What is the molecular geometry of NH3?

(A) Trigonal pyramidal
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Trigonal planar
(D) Bent
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

NH3 has three bonding pairs and one lone pair, so the molecular geometry is trigonal pyramidal.

Q12Which intermolecular force is mainly responsible for the relatively high boiling point of ethanol?

(A) London dispersion forces only
(B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Ionic bonding
(D) Covalent bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethanol contains an O-H group, so molecules form hydrogen bonds with each other.

Q13Which substance is an ionic compound?

(A) CO2
(B) H2O
(C) SiO2
(D) MgCl2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

MgCl2 consists of Mg^2+ and Cl^- ions held together by electrostatic attraction.

Q14In the best Lewis structure of CO2, how many lone pairs are on each oxygen atom?

(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

CO2 has O=C=O, and each oxygen atom has two non-bonding pairs.

Q15What is the approximate H-C-H bond angle in CH4?

(A) 90°
(B) 109.5°
(C) 120°
(D) 180°
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Four bonding pairs arrange tetrahedrally, giving bond angles of about 109.5°.

Q16Which molecule is polar?

(A) CO2
(B) BF3
(C) CHCl3
(D) CCl4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CHCl3 is not symmetrical because one substituent is H and three are Cl, so the bond dipoles do not cancel.

Q17Which allotrope of carbon consists of layers of carbon atoms, with each atom bonded to three others, held together by weak forces?

(A) Graphite
(B) Diamond
(C) Fullerene C60
(D) Carbon nanotubes only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In graphite each carbon is bonded to three others in layers, and the layers are held by weak intermolecular forces.

Q18Which substance has strong electrostatic attractions throughout a lattice and therefore a very high melting point?

(A) Ice
(B) Wax
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Solid carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium chloride is an ionic lattice, so strong attractions between oppositely charged ions must be overcome on melting.

Q19What is the hybridization of each carbon atom in ethene, C2H4?

(A) sp
(B) sp^2
(C) sp^3
(D) sp^3d
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each carbon in ethene has three electron domains in a trigonal planar arrangement, corresponding to sp^2 hybridization.

Q20Which material contains metallic bonding?

(A) Ice
(B) Diamond
(C) Sulfur
(D) Bronze
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bronze is an alloy of metals, with positive metal ions in a sea of delocalized electrons.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21What happens to atomic radius across Period 3 from Na to Cl?

(A) It increases steadily
(B) It decreases
(C) It stays constant
(D) It increases then decreases randomly
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Across a period the nuclear charge increases while electrons are added to the same shell, pulling the electrons closer.

Q22An atom has electron configuration [Ar] 3d^6 4s^2. Which element is it?

(A) Ca
(B) Sc
(C) Zn
(D) Fe
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The atom has 26 electrons, so it is iron, Fe.

Q23Which functional group is present in CH3COOH?

(A) Carboxylic acid
(B) Ketone
(C) Aldehyde
(D) Ester
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

CH3COOH contains the -COOH group, which is the carboxylic acid functional group.

Q24Members of the same homologous series differ by which unit?

(A) H2
(B) CH
(C) CH2
(D) CHO
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Successive members of a homologous series differ by a CH2 unit.

Q25Which molecular formula could represent an acyclic alkene?

(A) C3H8
(B) C4H10
(C) C5H10
(D) C6H14
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acyclic alkenes have general formula CnH2n; for n = 5 this is C5H10.

Q26Why does first ionization energy generally increase across a period?

(A) The nuclear charge increases and the atomic radius decreases
(B) The number of electron shells increases
(C) Shielding increases greatly
(D) Electrons are easier to remove from smaller atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Across a period, greater nuclear charge and smaller radius make the outer electron harder to remove.

Q27Why are many transition metal compounds coloured?

(A) Their d subshells are always full
(B) They contain no d electrons
(C) Their colour comes only from s electrons
(D) They have partially filled d orbitals that allow d-d transitions
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Partially filled d orbitals can split in energy, and electrons absorb visible light when moving between them.

Q28Which compound is an ester?

(A) CH3CHO
(B) CH3COOCH3
(C) CH3COOH
(D) CH3COCH3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

CH3COOCH3 contains the -COO- linkage characteristic of an ester.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29In an exothermic reaction, the products have

(A) higher enthalpy than the reactants
(B) the same enthalpy as the reactants
(C) no enthalpy change
(D) lower enthalpy than the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Exothermic reactions release heat to the surroundings, so the enthalpy of the products is lower.

Q30How much heat is absorbed when 100 g of water is warmed by 5.00°C? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1)

(A) 1.05 kJ
(B) 2.09 kJ
(C) 4.18 kJ
(D) 20.9 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

q = mcΔT = 100 x 4.18 x 5.00 = 2090 J = 2.09 kJ.

Q31Using bond enthalpies H-H = 436 kJ mol^-1, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ mol^-1 and H-Cl = 431 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)?

(A) +184 kJ mol^-1
(B) -92 kJ mol^-1
(C) -184 kJ mol^-1
(D) -862 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ mol^-1; bonds formed = 2 x 431 = 862 kJ mol^-1; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ mol^-1.

Q32What is the standard enthalpy change of combustion?

(A) The enthalpy change when 1 mol of a substance burns completely in oxygen under standard conditions
(B) The enthalpy change when 1 mol of a fuel is formed from its elements
(C) The enthalpy change when any amount of fuel burns in air
(D) The enthalpy change when 1 mol of bonds is broken in a fuel
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Standard combustion refers to complete burning of 1 mol of substance in oxygen under standard conditions.

Q33In a Born-Haber cycle, lattice enthalpy refers to the enthalpy change when

(A) 1 mol of an ionic compound forms from its gaseous ions
(B) 1 mol of an ionic compound dissolves in water
(C) 1 mol of atoms forms gaseous ions
(D) 1 mol of an element is atomized
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Lattice formation enthalpy is for gaseous ions combining to form 1 mol of the ionic solid.

Q34Which process is accompanied by an increase in entropy of the system?

(A) Freezing of water
(B) Condensation of steam
(C) Compression of a gas at constant temperature
(D) Dissolving ammonium nitrate solid in water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Dissolving a solid to form mobile aqueous ions increases the disorder of the system.

Q35A reaction has ΔG = -20 kJ mol^-1 under standard conditions. Which statement is correct?

(A) The reaction is non-spontaneous under standard conditions
(B) The reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions
(C) The reaction must be at equilibrium
(D) The reaction must be endothermic
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A negative Gibbs energy change indicates a spontaneous process under the stated conditions.

Q36Given ΔHf values: CH4(g) = -75 kJ mol^-1, CO2(g) = -394 kJ mol^-1 and H2O(l) = -286 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)?

(A) -965 kJ mol^-1
(B) -1041 kJ mol^-1
(C) -891 kJ mol^-1
(D) +891 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔH = [-394 + 2(-286)] – [-75] = -966 + 75 = -891 kJ mol^-1, approximately -890 kJ mol^-1.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37Which definition best describes the rate of reaction?

(A) The total amount of product formed
(B) The change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit time
(C) The time taken for a reaction to finish
(D) The minimum energy needed for a reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rate measures how concentration changes with time.

Q38When the temperature increases, the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution for molecular energies changes so that

(A) The peak shifts to higher energy and becomes lower and broader
(B) The peak shifts to lower energy and becomes higher
(C) The total area under the curve decreases
(D) All molecules have the same energy
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At higher temperature more molecules have higher energies, so the peak moves right and flattens while total area stays constant.

Q39A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by

(A) Increasing the temperature of the reactants
(B) Increasing the enthalpy change of the reaction
(C) Shifting the equilibrium towards products
(D) Providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst works by lowering the activation energy through a different mechanism.

Q40Doubling [A] doubles the rate, while doubling [B] quadruples the rate. What is the rate law?

(A) rate = k[A][B]
(B) rate = k[A]^2[B]
(C) rate = k[A][B]^2
(D) rate = k[A]^2[B]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The reaction is first order in A and second order in B, so rate = k[A][B]^2.

Q41For a first-order reaction, the half-life

(A) Decreases as the initial concentration increases
(B) Increases as the initial concentration increases
(C) Is independent of the initial concentration
(D) Is directly proportional to the initial concentration
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

First-order half-life depends only on k, not on the starting concentration.

Q42What is the Kc expression for N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)?

(A) [NH3] / ([N2][H2])
(B) [NH3]^2 / ([N2][H2]^3)
(C) ([N2][H2]^3) / [NH3]^2
(D) [NH3]^2 / ([N2] + 3[H2])
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Products are placed over reactants, each raised to its stoichiometric coefficient.

Q43For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), increasing the pressure at constant temperature shifts the equilibrium

(A) To the left, towards N2O4
(B) To the right, towards NO2
(C) Not at all, because Kc changes
(D) To the right, because there are more product molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Higher pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules; N2O4 has 1 mol of gas compared with 2 mol for NO2.

Q44If Q is greater than Kc for a reversible reaction, the net reaction proceeds

(A) Towards products
(B) Not at all
(C) Only in the forward direction forever
(D) Towards reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

When Q > K there is too much product relative to equilibrium, so the net change is towards reactants.

Q45What are the units of k for a reaction that is second order overall?

(A) s^-1
(B) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(C) dimensionless
(D) dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

For rate = k[A]^2, k = rate/[A]^2, giving dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1.

Q46A first-order reaction has a half-life of 20 minutes. What fraction of the reactant remains after 60 minutes?

(A) 1/2
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/8
(D) 1/16
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

60 minutes is three half-lives, so the fraction remaining is (1/2)^3 = 1/8.

Q47At dynamic equilibrium,

(A) The concentrations of reactants and products must be equal
(B) The forward and reverse reaction rates are equal
(C) Both reactions stop
(D) Only the forward reaction continues
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Equilibrium is dynamic because both reactions continue at equal rates.

Q48What is the effect of adding a catalyst to a system already at equilibrium?

(A) No change in the position of equilibrium
(B) More products are formed at equilibrium
(C) Kc increases
(D) The reverse reaction is stopped
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst speeds both directions equally, so the equilibrium position and Kc do not change.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49What is the pH of 0.010 mol dm^-3 HCl(aq)?

(A) 2.00
(B) 1.00
(C) 12.00
(D) 0.010
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

HCl is a strong acid, so [H^+] = 0.010 mol dm^-3 and pH = -log(0.010) = 2.00.

Q50What is the conjugate base of HCO3^-?

(A) H2CO3
(B) OH^-
(C) H2O
(D) CO3^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Removing one H^+ from HCO3^- gives CO3^2-.

Q51Which mixture forms a buffer solution?

(A) A strong acid and a strong base
(B) A weak acid only
(C) A weak acid and a salt containing its conjugate base
(D) An acid and an indicator
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A buffer contains significant amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base.

Q52What is the oxidation number of sulfur in SO4^2-?

(A) +4
(B) +6
(C) -2
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

If sulfur is x, x + 4(-2) = -2, so x = +6.

Q53During electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate using inert electrodes, what is produced at the cathode?

(A) Hydrogen gas
(B) Copper metal
(C) Oxygen gas
(D) Sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cu^2+ ions are reduced at the cathode to form copper metal.

Q54A metal with a very negative standard electrode potential is generally

(A) A strong oxidizing agent
(B) A weak reducing agent
(C) A strong reducing agent
(D) Unreactive in all conditions
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A very negative electrode potential means the metal readily loses electrons, so it is a strong reducing agent.

Q55Which conditions most favour an SN2 reaction of a halogenoalkane?

(A) A primary halogenoalkane with little steric hindrance
(B) A tertiary halogenoalkane with bulky groups
(C) No nucleophile present
(D) A very weak nucleophile in a non-polar solvent only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

SN2 requires backside attack, so it is fastest for primary, unhindered halogenoalkanes.

Q56In electrophilic addition to ethene, the first step forms

(A) A free radical
(B) A carbanion
(C) A hydroxide ion
(D) A carbocation intermediate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The electrophile adds to the double bond and the other carbon becomes a carbocation.

Q57A primary alcohol is oxidized with acidified dichromate(VI) and the product is distilled off as it forms. The main product is

(A) An alkene
(B) A ketone
(C) An aldehyde
(D) An ether
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Controlled oxidation of a primary alcohol gives an aldehyde, which can be removed by distillation before further oxidation.

Q58What are the products when a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

(A) Salt + water + carbon dioxide
(B) Salt + hydrogen
(C) Salt + oxygen
(D) Salt + carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q59At the equivalence point of a titration between a weak acid and a strong base, the pH is

(A) Less than 7
(B) Exactly 7
(C) Unpredictable and always acidic
(D) Greater than 7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The conjugate base formed hydrolyses water to produce OH^- ions, so the solution is basic.

Q60In a voltaic cell, electrons flow through the external circuit

(A) From cathode to anode
(B) From anode to cathode
(C) Only through the salt bridge
(D) In no definite direction
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxidation at the anode releases electrons, which travel through the external circuit to the cathode.