IB Chemistry Practice Test 11
60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).
⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter
Q1Which sample contains the greatest number of molecules?
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Correct: (A)
The number of molecules is proportional to the amount in moles, and 2.0 mol is the largest amount listed.
Q2A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (B)
Mole ratio C:H:O = 40.0/12.0 : 6.7/1.0 : 53.3/16.0 = 3.33 : 6.70 : 3.33 = 1 : 2 : 1, giving CH2O.
Q3What is the volume, in dm^3, occupied by 0.250 mol of an ideal gas at 100 kPa and 300 K? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (C)
V = nRT/p = (0.250 x 8.31 x 300)/100000 = 0.00623 m^3 = 6.23 dm^3.
Q4A 5.85 g sample of NaCl (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water and made up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution in mol dm^-3?
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Correct: (D)
n(NaCl) = 5.85/58.5 = 0.100 mol; c = 0.100/0.500 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.
Q5What is the ground-state electron configuration of a chromium atom?
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Correct: (B)
Chromium is an exception to the expected filling pattern; a half-filled 3d subshell gives [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5.
Q6An element X has isotopes ^20X with 90.0% abundance and ^21X with 10.0% abundance. What is the relative atomic mass of X?
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Correct: (C)
Ar = (90.0 x 20 + 10.0 x 21)/100 = (1800 + 210)/100 = 20.1.
Q7How many ions are present in 0.50 mol of MgCl2 formula units?
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Correct: (D)
Each MgCl2 unit gives 3 ions, so ions = 0.50 x 3 x 6.02 x 10^23 = 9.03 x 10^23.
Q8A fixed amount of gas is held in a sealed container of constant volume. If the temperature increases from 300 K to 600 K, what happens to the pressure?
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Correct: (A)
At constant volume, p is proportional to T in kelvin, so doubling T doubles p.
Q9How many moles of hydrogen atoms are present in 18 g of water? (Mr of H2O = 18)
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Correct: (C)
18 g of H2O is 1.0 mol of water molecules, and each molecule contains 2 H atoms, giving 2.0 mol of H atoms.
Q10A reaction has a theoretical yield of 24.0 g. If 18.0 g of product is obtained, what is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (D)
Percentage yield = (18.0/24.0) x 100 = 75.0%.
🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure
Q11What is the molecular geometry of NH3?
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Correct: (A)
NH3 has three bonding pairs and one lone pair, so the molecular geometry is trigonal pyramidal.
Q12Which intermolecular force is mainly responsible for the relatively high boiling point of ethanol?
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Correct: (B)
Ethanol contains an O-H group, so molecules form hydrogen bonds with each other.
Q13Which substance is an ionic compound?
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Correct: (D)
MgCl2 consists of Mg^2+ and Cl^- ions held together by electrostatic attraction.
Q14In the best Lewis structure of CO2, how many lone pairs are on each oxygen atom?
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Correct: (A)
CO2 has O=C=O, and each oxygen atom has two non-bonding pairs.
Q15What is the approximate H-C-H bond angle in CH4?
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Correct: (B)
Four bonding pairs arrange tetrahedrally, giving bond angles of about 109.5°.
Q16Which molecule is polar?
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Correct: (C)
CHCl3 is not symmetrical because one substituent is H and three are Cl, so the bond dipoles do not cancel.
Q17Which allotrope of carbon consists of layers of carbon atoms, with each atom bonded to three others, held together by weak forces?
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Correct: (A)
In graphite each carbon is bonded to three others in layers, and the layers are held by weak intermolecular forces.
Q18Which substance has strong electrostatic attractions throughout a lattice and therefore a very high melting point?
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Correct: (C)
Sodium chloride is an ionic lattice, so strong attractions between oppositely charged ions must be overcome on melting.
Q19What is the hybridization of each carbon atom in ethene, C2H4?
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Correct: (B)
Each carbon in ethene has three electron domains in a trigonal planar arrangement, corresponding to sp^2 hybridization.
Q20Which material contains metallic bonding?
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Correct: (D)
Bronze is an alloy of metals, with positive metal ions in a sea of delocalized electrons.
📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter
Q21What happens to atomic radius across Period 3 from Na to Cl?
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Correct: (B)
Across a period the nuclear charge increases while electrons are added to the same shell, pulling the electrons closer.
Q22An atom has electron configuration [Ar] 3d^6 4s^2. Which element is it?
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Correct: (D)
The atom has 26 electrons, so it is iron, Fe.
Q23Which functional group is present in CH3COOH?
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Correct: (A)
CH3COOH contains the -COOH group, which is the carboxylic acid functional group.
Q24Members of the same homologous series differ by which unit?
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Correct: (C)
Successive members of a homologous series differ by a CH2 unit.
Q25Which molecular formula could represent an acyclic alkene?
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Correct: (C)
Acyclic alkenes have general formula CnH2n; for n = 5 this is C5H10.
Q26Why does first ionization energy generally increase across a period?
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Correct: (A)
Across a period, greater nuclear charge and smaller radius make the outer electron harder to remove.
Q27Why are many transition metal compounds coloured?
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Correct: (D)
Partially filled d orbitals can split in energy, and electrons absorb visible light when moving between them.
Q28Which compound is an ester?
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Correct: (B)
CH3COOCH3 contains the -COO- linkage characteristic of an ester.
🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions
Q29In an exothermic reaction, the products have
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Correct: (D)
Exothermic reactions release heat to the surroundings, so the enthalpy of the products is lower.
Q30How much heat is absorbed when 100 g of water is warmed by 5.00°C? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 J g^-1 °C^-1)
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Correct: (B)
q = mcΔT = 100 x 4.18 x 5.00 = 2090 J = 2.09 kJ.
Q31Using bond enthalpies H-H = 436 kJ mol^-1, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ mol^-1 and H-Cl = 431 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)?
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Correct: (C)
Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ mol^-1; bonds formed = 2 x 431 = 862 kJ mol^-1; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ mol^-1.
Q32What is the standard enthalpy change of combustion?
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Correct: (A)
Standard combustion refers to complete burning of 1 mol of substance in oxygen under standard conditions.
Q33In a Born-Haber cycle, lattice enthalpy refers to the enthalpy change when
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Correct: (A)
Lattice formation enthalpy is for gaseous ions combining to form 1 mol of the ionic solid.
Q34Which process is accompanied by an increase in entropy of the system?
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Correct: (D)
Dissolving a solid to form mobile aqueous ions increases the disorder of the system.
Q35A reaction has ΔG = -20 kJ mol^-1 under standard conditions. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (B)
A negative Gibbs energy change indicates a spontaneous process under the stated conditions.
Q36Given ΔHf values: CH4(g) = -75 kJ mol^-1, CO2(g) = -394 kJ mol^-1 and H2O(l) = -286 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)?
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Correct: (C)
ΔH = [-394 + 2(-286)] – [-75] = -966 + 75 = -891 kJ mol^-1, approximately -890 kJ mol^-1.
⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far
Q37Which definition best describes the rate of reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Rate measures how concentration changes with time.
Q38When the temperature increases, the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution for molecular energies changes so that
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Correct: (A)
At higher temperature more molecules have higher energies, so the peak moves right and flattens while total area stays constant.
Q39A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst works by lowering the activation energy through a different mechanism.
Q40Doubling [A] doubles the rate, while doubling [B] quadruples the rate. What is the rate law?
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Correct: (C)
The reaction is first order in A and second order in B, so rate = k[A][B]^2.
Q41For a first-order reaction, the half-life
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Correct: (C)
First-order half-life depends only on k, not on the starting concentration.
Q42What is the Kc expression for N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)?
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Correct: (B)
Products are placed over reactants, each raised to its stoichiometric coefficient.
Q43For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), increasing the pressure at constant temperature shifts the equilibrium
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Correct: (A)
Higher pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules; N2O4 has 1 mol of gas compared with 2 mol for NO2.
Q44If Q is greater than Kc for a reversible reaction, the net reaction proceeds
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Correct: (D)
When Q > K there is too much product relative to equilibrium, so the net change is towards reactants.
Q45What are the units of k for a reaction that is second order overall?
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Correct: (D)
For rate = k[A]^2, k = rate/[A]^2, giving dm^3 mol^-1 s^-1.
Q46A first-order reaction has a half-life of 20 minutes. What fraction of the reactant remains after 60 minutes?
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Correct: (C)
60 minutes is three half-lives, so the fraction remaining is (1/2)^3 = 1/8.
Q47At dynamic equilibrium,
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Correct: (B)
Equilibrium is dynamic because both reactions continue at equal rates.
Q48What is the effect of adding a catalyst to a system already at equilibrium?
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst speeds both directions equally, so the equilibrium position and Kc do not change.
⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change
Q49What is the pH of 0.010 mol dm^-3 HCl(aq)?
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Correct: (A)
HCl is a strong acid, so [H^+] = 0.010 mol dm^-3 and pH = -log(0.010) = 2.00.
Q50What is the conjugate base of HCO3^-?
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Correct: (D)
Removing one H^+ from HCO3^- gives CO3^2-.
Q51Which mixture forms a buffer solution?
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Correct: (C)
A buffer contains significant amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate base.
Q52What is the oxidation number of sulfur in SO4^2-?
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Correct: (B)
If sulfur is x, x + 4(-2) = -2, so x = +6.
Q53During electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate using inert electrodes, what is produced at the cathode?
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Correct: (B)
Cu^2+ ions are reduced at the cathode to form copper metal.
Q54A metal with a very negative standard electrode potential is generally
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Correct: (C)
A very negative electrode potential means the metal readily loses electrons, so it is a strong reducing agent.
Q55Which conditions most favour an SN2 reaction of a halogenoalkane?
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Correct: (A)
SN2 requires backside attack, so it is fastest for primary, unhindered halogenoalkanes.
Q56In electrophilic addition to ethene, the first step forms
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Correct: (D)
The electrophile adds to the double bond and the other carbon becomes a carbocation.
Q57A primary alcohol is oxidized with acidified dichromate(VI) and the product is distilled off as it forms. The main product is
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Correct: (C)
Controlled oxidation of a primary alcohol gives an aldehyde, which can be removed by distillation before further oxidation.
Q58What are the products when a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate?
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Correct: (A)
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.
Q59At the equivalence point of a titration between a weak acid and a strong base, the pH is
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Correct: (D)
The conjugate base formed hydrolyses water to produce OH^- ions, so the solution is basic.
Q60In a voltaic cell, electrons flow through the external circuit
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Correct: (B)
Oxidation at the anode releases electrons, which travel through the external circuit to the cathode.
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