IB Chemistry Practice Test 10
60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).
Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).
⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter
Q1Which sample contains the greatest number of molecules?
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Correct: (D)
The number of molecules is proportional to the amount in moles, and 0.30 mol is the largest amount listed.
Q2What is the electron configuration of Mg^2+?
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Correct: (C)
Mg (12 electrons) loses its two 3s electrons, leaving 10 electrons with configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6, the same as Ne.
Q3What is the relative formula mass of Ca(OH)2? (Ar: Ca = 40, O = 16, H = 1)
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Correct: (B)
Mr = 40 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 40 + 34 = 74.
Q4How many moles are present in 11.0 g of CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44.0)
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Correct: (A)
n = m / Mr = 11.0 / 44.0 = 0.250 mol.
Q5A 25.0 cm^3 portion of 2.00 mol dm^-3 HCl is diluted with water to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the new concentration?
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Correct: (D)
Moles of HCl stay constant: 0.0250 × 2.00 = 0.0500 mol; c = 0.0500 / 0.250 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.
Q6An element X has two isotopes: 75% of ^35X and 25% of ^37X. What is the relative atomic mass of X?
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Correct: (C)
Ar = (0.75 × 35) + (0.25 × 37) = 26.25 + 9.25 = 35.5.
Q7What is the total number of ions in 0.500 mol of NaCl? (Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)
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Correct: (B)
0.500 mol NaCl contains 0.500 mol Na^+ and 0.500 mol Cl^-, a total of 1.00 mol of ions = 6.02 × 10^23 ions.
Q8A compound contains C, H and O in the mole ratio 2 : 6 : 1. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (A)
The mole ratio is already in its simplest whole-number form, so the empirical formula is C2H6O.
Q9What volume of gas is occupied by 2.00 mol of an ideal gas at 300 K and 100 kPa? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (C)
V = nRT / p = (2.00 × 8.31 × 300) / 100000 = 0.0499 m^3 = 49.9 dm^3.
Q10How many moles of electrons are present in 1.00 mol of Mg^2+ ions?
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Correct: (D)
Mg has 12 electrons; Mg^2+ has lost two, leaving 10 electrons per ion, so 1.00 mol of ions contains 10.0 mol of electrons.
🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure
Q11What is the molecular shape of BF3?
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Correct: (B)
Boron has three bonding pairs and no lone pair, so the atoms lie in one plane with 120° bond angles.
Q12Which bond is the most ionic in character?
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Correct: (A)
Caesium and fluorine have the largest electronegativity difference of the pairs listed, giving the most ionic bond.
Q13What is the main intermolecular force between HCl molecules in liquid HCl?
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Correct: (D)
HCl is polar but hydrogen bonding needs H attached to N, O or F, so dipole-dipole forces dominate between HCl molecules.
Q14Which molecule has a linear shape?
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Correct: (C)
Carbon in CO2 has two electron domains (two double bonds) that repel to opposite sides, making the molecule linear.
Q15Why is diamond extremely hard?
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Correct: (A)
Every carbon in diamond is covalently bonded to four others in a rigid 3D network, so breaking it means breaking strong covalent bonds.
Q16How many electrons are shared between the two nitrogen atoms in an N2 molecule?
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Correct: (B)
N2 contains a triple bond, which consists of three shared pairs, i.e. 6 electrons.
Q17Which substance is a simple molecular (covalent) substance?
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Correct: (C)
Iodine exists as discrete I2 molecules; NaCl is ionic, Mg is metallic and diamond is giant covalent.
Q18Which hydrogen halide has the highest boiling point because of hydrogen bonding?
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Correct: (D)
Only HF forms hydrogen bonds between its molecules, giving it an anomalously high boiling point despite its low molar mass.
Q19What is the shape of a CH4 molecule and why?
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Correct: (B)
Carbon has four bonding pairs and no lone pairs; they repel to the corners of a tetrahedron.
Q20Why can metals be hammered into sheets (malleable) without breaking?
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Correct: (A)
The delocalized electrons hold the ions together in their new positions when layers slide, so the metal changes shape without shattering.
📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter
Q21What name is given to the elements in group 17 of the periodic table?
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Correct: (C)
Group 17 elements (F, Cl, Br, I) are the halogens; group 18 are the noble gases and group 1 are the alkali metals.
Q22What happens to the reactivity of the group 1 metals down the group?
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Correct: (B)
Down group 1 the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily and reactivity increases.
Q23Which property is characteristic of transition metals?
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Correct: (A)
Transition metals characteristically form compounds with different oxidation states, as well as coloured ions and catalytic activity.
Q24What is the functional group in CH3COCH3?
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Correct: (D)
The C=O group is bonded to two carbons within the chain, making propanone a ketone, not an aldehyde.
Q25What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (B)
Saturated acyclic hydrocarbons have the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q26An atom has electron arrangement 2, 8, 6. In which group of the periodic table is the element?
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Correct: (C)
The element has 6 electrons in its outer shell, placing it in group 16 (period 3, sulfur).
Q27Which oxide is acidic?
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Correct: (D)
Non-metal oxides such as SO2 are acidic; Na2O and MgO are basic oxides and NH3 is a base, not an oxide.
Q28Consecutive members of a homologous series differ by which unit?
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Correct: (A)
Each successive member of a homologous series has one extra -CH2- unit, with a gradual change in physical properties.
🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions
Q29For a reaction at constant pressure, ΔH is positive. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (B)
A positive ΔH means the products have more enthalpy than the reactants, so heat is absorbed: the reaction is endothermic.
Q30A 50.0 g sample of a metal absorbs 1000 J of heat and its temperature rises by 20.0 °C. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?
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Correct: (D)
c = q / (mΔT) = 1000 / (50.0 × 20.0) = 1.00 J g^-1 °C^-1.
Q31Given N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), ΔH = -92 kJ mol^-1. What is ΔH for the reverse reaction, 2 NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3 H2(g)?
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Correct: (C)
Reversing a reaction changes the sign of ΔH, so the decomposition of ammonia is endothermic with ΔH = +92 kJ mol^-1.
Q32Which statement about bond breaking and bond forming is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Energy must be supplied to break bonds, while energy is released when new bonds form.
Q33At constant temperature and pressure, a reaction is spontaneous when:
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Correct: (D)
A negative Gibbs energy change means the reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous (feasible) under those conditions.
Q34Which process is accompanied by a decrease in the entropy of the system?
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Correct: (B)
Condensation turns a gas into a liquid, so the particles become much more ordered and entropy decreases.
Q35In a calorimetry experiment some heat is lost to the surroundings, so the measured temperature rise is smaller than it should be. What is the effect on the calculated enthalpy change?
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Correct: (A)
Less measured heat means q is underestimated, so the calculated |ΔH| is smaller than the true value.
Q36Which set of conditions is used for standard enthalpy changes in thermochemistry?
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Correct: (C)
Standard conditions are a pressure of 100 kPa (1 bar) with a specified temperature, commonly 298 K.
⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far
Q37Which expression correctly defines the rate of a reaction in terms of a reactant A?
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Correct: (A)
Rate is the change in concentration per unit time; the negative sign makes the rate positive for a reactant being used up.
Q38The half-life of a first-order reaction is given by t1/2 = ln 2 / k. If k = 0.0693 s^-1, what is the half-life?
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Correct: (D)
t1/2 = 0.693 / 0.0693 = 10.0 s.
Q39What is meant by the activation energy of a reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Only collisions with energy at least equal to the activation energy can lead to products.
Q40Why does increasing the concentration of a reactant increase the rate of reaction?
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Correct: (C)
More particles in the same volume collide more often, so successful collisions happen more frequently.
Q41An equilibrium has a very large value of Kc. What does this indicate?
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Correct: (D)
A large Kc means the equilibrium mixture contains far more products than reactants; it says nothing about the rate.
Q42For the equilibrium 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), what is the effect of increasing the pressure at constant temperature?
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Correct: (A)
There are 3 mol of gas on the left and 2 mol on the right; higher pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules, the products.
Q43What is the equilibrium constant expression for CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
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Correct: (C)
Pure solids are omitted from the expression, leaving only the gas: Kc = [CO2].
Q44In a series of experiments with [A] held constant, doubling [B] increased the rate four times. What is the rate law if A does not appear in it?
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Correct: (B)
A fourfold rate increase on doubling concentration (2^2 = 4) shows the reaction is second order in B.
Q45Why does raising the temperature increase the rate of a reaction so strongly?
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Correct: (A)
At higher temperature many more particles exceed the activation energy, so the rate rises sharply, as shown by the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution.
Q46Which statement describes a closed system at equilibrium?
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Correct: (C)
At equilibrium the forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates, so observable properties stay constant.
Q47What is the effect of adding a catalyst to a system at equilibrium?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst speeds up both directions by the same factor, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position is unchanged.
Q48At a certain point in a reversible reaction the reaction quotient Q is less than Kc. What happens next?
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Correct: (B)
If Q is less than Kc, more products must form to raise Q to Kc, so the net reaction goes forward.
⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change
Q49Which conjugate base is the weakest base?
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Correct: (D)
The strongest acid has the weakest conjugate base; HCl is a strong acid, so Cl^- is an extremely weak base.
Q50What is the pOH of a 0.010 mol dm^-3 solution of NaOH?
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Correct: (B)
NaOH is a strong base, so [OH^-] = 0.010 and pOH = -log(0.010) = 2.00.
Q51In terms of electrons, oxidation is:
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Correct: (A)
Oxidation is the loss of electrons (OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain).
Q52During the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride, what is the main product at the anode?
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Correct: (C)
With concentrated chloride solution, Cl^- ions are discharged at the anode to form chlorine gas; hydrogen forms at the cathode.
Q53A buffer solution is made from a weak acid with pKa = 4.74 and its sodium salt, with equal concentrations of acid and salt. What is the pH of the buffer?
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Correct: (B)
By the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, pH = pKa + log([salt]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(1) = 4.74.
Q54What is the oxidation number of manganese in MnO4^-?
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Correct: (D)
Let the oxidation number of Mn be x: x + 4(-2) = -1, so x = +7.
Q55The substitution of a hydrogen atom in an alkane by bromine, forming a bromoalkane, is initiated by:
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Correct: (A)
UV light provides the energy to split Br2 into free radicals, starting the free radical substitution chain reaction.
Q56What is a nucleophile?
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Correct: (C)
A nucleophile donates a pair of electrons to an electron-deficient centre; an electrophile accepts a pair.
Q57What are the products when an ester is hydrolysed by heating with dilute acid?
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Correct: (D)
Acid hydrolysis splits the ester at the ester link, regenerating the carboxylic acid and the alcohol.
Q58A salt solution is made by titrating a weak acid with a strong base. What is the pH at the equivalence point?
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Correct: (A)
The anion of the weak acid hydrolyses to produce OH^-, so the equivalence point of a weak acid-strong base titration is alkaline (pH greater than 7).
Q59What value is assigned to the standard electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode?
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Correct: (B)
The standard hydrogen electrode is the reference electrode and is assigned E = 0.00 V by definition.
Q60Which feature must a monomer have to undergo addition polymerization?
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Correct: (C)
Addition polymerization opens the C=C bond of monomers such as ethene so they can join into a long chain with no by-product.
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