IB Chemistry Practice Test 10

60 original IB Paper 1-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all six themes of the IB Chemistry syllabus (SL & HL).

Note: These are original practice questions written in the IB Paper 1 style — not reproduced IB exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real IB Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 6 IB themes: Structure 1 (particulate matter), Structure 2 (bonding & structure), Structure 3 (classification), Reactivity 1 (drivers of reactions), Reactivity 2 (amount, rate & equilibrium), and Reactivity 3 (mechanisms).

⚛ Structure 1: Models of the Particulate Nature of Matter

Q1Which sample contains the greatest number of molecules?

(A) 0.10 mol O2
(B) 0.20 mol H2
(C) 0.050 mol CO2
(D) 0.30 mol He
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The number of molecules is proportional to the amount in moles, and 0.30 mol is the largest amount listed.

Q2What is the electron configuration of Mg^2+?

(A) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2
(B) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^4
(C) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6
(D) 1s^2 2s^2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mg (12 electrons) loses its two 3s electrons, leaving 10 electrons with configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6, the same as Ne.

Q3What is the relative formula mass of Ca(OH)2? (Ar: Ca = 40, O = 16, H = 1)

(A) 57
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 114
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mr = 40 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 40 + 34 = 74.

Q4How many moles are present in 11.0 g of CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44.0)

(A) 0.250 mol
(B) 4.00 mol
(C) 0.500 mol
(D) 1.00 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

n = m / Mr = 11.0 / 44.0 = 0.250 mol.

Q5A 25.0 cm^3 portion of 2.00 mol dm^-3 HCl is diluted with water to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the new concentration?

(A) 2.00 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.0200 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.100 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.200 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of HCl stay constant: 0.0250 × 2.00 = 0.0500 mol; c = 0.0500 / 0.250 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q6An element X has two isotopes: 75% of ^35X and 25% of ^37X. What is the relative atomic mass of X?

(A) 35.0
(B) 36.0
(C) 35.5
(D) 37.0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ar = (0.75 × 35) + (0.25 × 37) = 26.25 + 9.25 = 35.5.

Q7What is the total number of ions in 0.500 mol of NaCl? (Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)

(A) 3.01 × 10^23
(B) 6.02 × 10^23
(C) 1.20 × 10^24
(D) 1.51 × 10^23
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

0.500 mol NaCl contains 0.500 mol Na^+ and 0.500 mol Cl^-, a total of 1.00 mol of ions = 6.02 × 10^23 ions.

Q8A compound contains C, H and O in the mole ratio 2 : 6 : 1. What is its empirical formula?

(A) C2H6O
(B) CH3O
(C) C2H6O2
(D) CH6O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The mole ratio is already in its simplest whole-number form, so the empirical formula is C2H6O.

Q9What volume of gas is occupied by 2.00 mol of an ideal gas at 300 K and 100 kPa? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 24.9 dm^3
(B) 12.5 dm^3
(C) 49.9 dm^3
(D) 99.7 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

V = nRT / p = (2.00 × 8.31 × 300) / 100000 = 0.0499 m^3 = 49.9 dm^3.

Q10How many moles of electrons are present in 1.00 mol of Mg^2+ ions?

(A) 2.00 mol
(B) 12.0 mol
(C) 20.0 mol
(D) 10.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mg has 12 electrons; Mg^2+ has lost two, leaving 10 electrons per ion, so 1.00 mol of ions contains 10.0 mol of electrons.

🔗 Structure 2: Models of Bonding & Structure

Q11What is the molecular shape of BF3?

(A) Trigonal pyramidal
(B) Trigonal planar
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) Bent
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Boron has three bonding pairs and no lone pair, so the atoms lie in one plane with 120° bond angles.

Q12Which bond is the most ionic in character?

(A) Cs-F
(B) C-H
(C) H-H
(D) Cl-Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Caesium and fluorine have the largest electronegativity difference of the pairs listed, giving the most ionic bond.

Q13What is the main intermolecular force between HCl molecules in liquid HCl?

(A) Ionic bonding
(B) Metallic bonding
(C) Hydrogen bonding
(D) Dipole-dipole forces
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

HCl is polar but hydrogen bonding needs H attached to N, O or F, so dipole-dipole forces dominate between HCl molecules.

Q14Which molecule has a linear shape?

(A) H2O
(B) NH3
(C) CO2
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon in CO2 has two electron domains (two double bonds) that repel to opposite sides, making the molecule linear.

Q15Why is diamond extremely hard?

(A) It has a giant covalent structure with strong bonds throughout
(B) It contains ions arranged in layers
(C) Its molecules are held by weak forces
(D) It contains delocalized electrons like a metal
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Every carbon in diamond is covalently bonded to four others in a rigid 3D network, so breaking it means breaking strong covalent bonds.

Q16How many electrons are shared between the two nitrogen atoms in an N2 molecule?

(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

N2 contains a triple bond, which consists of three shared pairs, i.e. 6 electrons.

Q17Which substance is a simple molecular (covalent) substance?

(A) NaCl
(B) Mg
(C) I2
(D) Diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Iodine exists as discrete I2 molecules; NaCl is ionic, Mg is metallic and diamond is giant covalent.

Q18Which hydrogen halide has the highest boiling point because of hydrogen bonding?

(A) HCl
(B) HBr
(C) HI
(D) HF
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Only HF forms hydrogen bonds between its molecules, giving it an anomalously high boiling point despite its low molar mass.

Q19What is the shape of a CH4 molecule and why?

(A) Square planar, because the bonds lie in one plane
(B) Tetrahedral, because four bonding pairs repel each other equally
(C) Trigonal pyramidal, because of a lone pair on carbon
(D) Linear, because carbon forms two double bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon has four bonding pairs and no lone pairs; they repel to the corners of a tetrahedron.

Q20Why can metals be hammered into sheets (malleable) without breaking?

(A) Layers of positive ions can slide over each other
(B) Electrons are transferred to non-metal atoms
(C) The molecules in the metal can slide apart
(D) Metallic bonds only act in one direction
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The delocalized electrons hold the ions together in their new positions when layers slide, so the metal changes shape without shattering.

📊 Structure 3: Classification of Matter

Q21What name is given to the elements in group 17 of the periodic table?

(A) Noble gases
(B) Alkali metals
(C) Halogens
(D) Transition metals
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Group 17 elements (F, Cl, Br, I) are the halogens; group 18 are the noble gases and group 1 are the alkali metals.

Q22What happens to the reactivity of the group 1 metals down the group?

(A) It decreases
(B) It increases
(C) It stays the same
(D) It decreases then increases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Down group 1 the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily and reactivity increases.

Q23Which property is characteristic of transition metals?

(A) They show variable oxidation states
(B) Their ions are always colourless
(C) They have very low densities compared with group 1 metals
(D) They form only ionic compounds
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Transition metals characteristically form compounds with different oxidation states, as well as coloured ions and catalytic activity.

Q24What is the functional group in CH3COCH3?

(A) Aldehyde group
(B) Carboxyl group
(C) Ester group
(D) Ketone group (carbonyl within the chain)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The C=O group is bonded to two carbons within the chain, making propanone a ketone, not an aldehyde.

Q25What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Saturated acyclic hydrocarbons have the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q26An atom has electron arrangement 2, 8, 6. In which group of the periodic table is the element?

(A) Group 2
(B) Group 6
(C) Group 16
(D) Group 18
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The element has 6 electrons in its outer shell, placing it in group 16 (period 3, sulfur).

Q27Which oxide is acidic?

(A) MgO
(B) Na2O
(C) NH3
(D) SO2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Non-metal oxides such as SO2 are acidic; Na2O and MgO are basic oxides and NH3 is a base, not an oxide.

Q28Consecutive members of a homologous series differ by which unit?

(A) CH2
(B) CH
(C) H2
(D) C
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each successive member of a homologous series has one extra -CH2- unit, with a gradual change in physical properties.




🔥 Reactivity 1: What Drives Chemical Reactions

Q29For a reaction at constant pressure, ΔH is positive. Which statement is correct?

(A) The reaction is exothermic
(B) The reaction is endothermic
(C) ΔH is always zero for gases
(D) Heat is released to the surroundings
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A positive ΔH means the products have more enthalpy than the reactants, so heat is absorbed: the reaction is endothermic.

Q30A 50.0 g sample of a metal absorbs 1000 J of heat and its temperature rises by 20.0 °C. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?

(A) 0.100 J g^-1 °C^-1
(B) 0.500 J g^-1 °C^-1
(C) 2.00 J g^-1 °C^-1
(D) 1.00 J g^-1 °C^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

c = q / (mΔT) = 1000 / (50.0 × 20.0) = 1.00 J g^-1 °C^-1.

Q31Given N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), ΔH = -92 kJ mol^-1. What is ΔH for the reverse reaction, 2 NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3 H2(g)?

(A) -92 kJ mol^-1
(B) -184 kJ mol^-1
(C) +92 kJ mol^-1
(D) +46 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Reversing a reaction changes the sign of ΔH, so the decomposition of ammonia is endothermic with ΔH = +92 kJ mol^-1.

Q32Which statement about bond breaking and bond forming is correct?

(A) Breaking bonds is endothermic and forming bonds is exothermic
(B) Breaking bonds is exothermic and forming bonds is endothermic
(C) Breaking bonds releases energy to the surroundings
(D) Both processes have an enthalpy change of zero
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy must be supplied to break bonds, while energy is released when new bonds form.

Q33At constant temperature and pressure, a reaction is spontaneous when:

(A) ΔG is positive
(B) ΔG is zero
(C) ΔG is greater than ΔH
(D) ΔG is negative
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A negative Gibbs energy change means the reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous (feasible) under those conditions.

Q34Which process is accompanied by a decrease in the entropy of the system?

(A) Melting of ice
(B) Condensation of steam
(C) Evaporation of water
(D) Sublimation of iodine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Condensation turns a gas into a liquid, so the particles become much more ordered and entropy decreases.

Q35In a calorimetry experiment some heat is lost to the surroundings, so the measured temperature rise is smaller than it should be. What is the effect on the calculated enthalpy change?

(A) Its magnitude is smaller than the true value
(B) Its magnitude is larger than the true value
(C) It is unaffected by heat losses
(D) Its sign is reversed
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Less measured heat means q is underestimated, so the calculated |ΔH| is smaller than the true value.

Q36Which set of conditions is used for standard enthalpy changes in thermochemistry?

(A) 0 °C and 1000 kPa
(B) 273 K and 1 Pa
(C) 100 kPa and a stated temperature, usually 298 K
(D) Any room temperature and pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Standard conditions are a pressure of 100 kPa (1 bar) with a specified temperature, commonly 298 K.

⏱ Reactivity 2: How Much, How Fast & How Far

Q37Which expression correctly defines the rate of a reaction in terms of a reactant A?

(A) Rate = -Δ[A] / Δt
(B) Rate = Δt / Δ[A]
(C) Rate = [A] × t
(D) Rate = Δ[A] × Δt
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rate is the change in concentration per unit time; the negative sign makes the rate positive for a reactant being used up.

Q38The half-life of a first-order reaction is given by t1/2 = ln 2 / k. If k = 0.0693 s^-1, what is the half-life?

(A) 0.100 s
(B) 1.00 s
(C) 69.3 s
(D) 10.0 s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

t1/2 = 0.693 / 0.0693 = 10.0 s.

Q39What is meant by the activation energy of a reaction?

(A) The average kinetic energy of the particles
(B) The minimum energy colliding particles need for a successful reaction
(C) The energy released by the reaction
(D) The enthalpy of the strongest bond broken
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Only collisions with energy at least equal to the activation energy can lead to products.

Q40Why does increasing the concentration of a reactant increase the rate of reaction?

(A) It lowers the activation energy
(B) It makes collisions less frequent
(C) It increases the frequency of collisions between particles
(D) It shifts the equilibrium to the products
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

More particles in the same volume collide more often, so successful collisions happen more frequently.

Q41An equilibrium has a very large value of Kc. What does this indicate?

(A) Reactants are strongly favoured at equilibrium
(B) Reactants and products are present in equal amounts
(C) The reaction must be very fast
(D) Products are strongly favoured at equilibrium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A large Kc means the equilibrium mixture contains far more products than reactants; it says nothing about the rate.

Q42For the equilibrium 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), what is the effect of increasing the pressure at constant temperature?

(A) The equilibrium shifts to the right (products)
(B) The equilibrium shifts to the left (reactants)
(C) There is no change in the equilibrium position
(D) A catalyst is needed for the shift to occur
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

There are 3 mol of gas on the left and 2 mol on the right; higher pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules, the products.

Q43What is the equilibrium constant expression for CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?

(A) Kc = [CaO][CO2] / [CaCO3]
(B) Kc = 1 / [CO2]
(C) Kc = [CO2]
(D) Kc = [CaCO3] / [CO2]
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Pure solids are omitted from the expression, leaving only the gas: Kc = [CO2].

Q44In a series of experiments with [A] held constant, doubling [B] increased the rate four times. What is the rate law if A does not appear in it?

(A) rate = k[B]
(B) rate = k[B]^2
(C) rate = k[A][B]
(D) rate = k[B]^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A fourfold rate increase on doubling concentration (2^2 = 4) shows the reaction is second order in B.

Q45Why does raising the temperature increase the rate of a reaction so strongly?

(A) A much larger proportion of collisions have energy greater than or equal to the activation energy
(B) The activation energy increases with temperature
(C) Collisions become less energetic at higher temperature
(D) The concentration of the reactants increases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At higher temperature many more particles exceed the activation energy, so the rate rises sharply, as shown by the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution.

Q46Which statement describes a closed system at equilibrium?

(A) The forward and reverse reactions have both stopped
(B) The concentrations of reactants and products are always equal
(C) Macroscopic properties such as concentration remain constant
(D) Only the forward reaction takes place
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At equilibrium the forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates, so observable properties stay constant.

Q47What is the effect of adding a catalyst to a system at equilibrium?

(A) It shifts the equilibrium towards the products
(B) It shifts the equilibrium towards the reactants
(C) It decreases the rates of both reactions
(D) It increases the rates of the forward and reverse reactions equally, with no shift
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst speeds up both directions by the same factor, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position is unchanged.

Q48At a certain point in a reversible reaction the reaction quotient Q is less than Kc. What happens next?

(A) The net reaction proceeds in the reverse direction
(B) The net reaction proceeds in the forward direction
(C) The system is already at equilibrium
(D) Both reactions stop
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

If Q is less than Kc, more products must form to raise Q to Kc, so the net reaction goes forward.

⚖ Reactivity 3: Mechanisms of Chemical Change

Q49Which conjugate base is the weakest base?

(A) CH3COO^- from CH3COOH
(B) NH3 from NH4^+
(C) HCO3^- from H2CO3
(D) Cl^- from HCl
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The strongest acid has the weakest conjugate base; HCl is a strong acid, so Cl^- is an extremely weak base.

Q50What is the pOH of a 0.010 mol dm^-3 solution of NaOH?

(A) 12.00
(B) 2.00
(C) 7.00
(D) 10.00
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NaOH is a strong base, so [OH^-] = 0.010 and pOH = -log(0.010) = 2.00.

Q51In terms of electrons, oxidation is:

(A) Loss of electrons
(B) Gain of electrons
(C) Gain of hydrogen ions
(D) Loss of oxygen atoms only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Oxidation is the loss of electrons (OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain).

Q52During the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride, what is the main product at the anode?

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Sodium
(C) Chlorine
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

With concentrated chloride solution, Cl^- ions are discharged at the anode to form chlorine gas; hydrogen forms at the cathode.

Q53A buffer solution is made from a weak acid with pKa = 4.74 and its sodium salt, with equal concentrations of acid and salt. What is the pH of the buffer?

(A) 7.00
(B) 4.74
(C) 9.26
(D) 1.00
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

By the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, pH = pKa + log([salt]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(1) = 4.74.

Q54What is the oxidation number of manganese in MnO4^-?

(A) +2
(B) +4
(C) +5
(D) +7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Let the oxidation number of Mn be x: x + 4(-2) = -1, so x = +7.

Q55The substitution of a hydrogen atom in an alkane by bromine, forming a bromoalkane, is initiated by:

(A) Ultraviolet light
(B) Aqueous sodium hydroxide
(C) Concentrated sulfuric acid
(D) Keeping the mixture in the dark at low temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

UV light provides the energy to split Br2 into free radicals, starting the free radical substitution chain reaction.

Q56What is a nucleophile?

(A) A species that accepts an electron pair
(B) A proton donor
(C) A species that donates an electron pair to form a bond
(D) A species with one unpaired electron
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A nucleophile donates a pair of electrons to an electron-deficient centre; an electrophile accepts a pair.

Q57What are the products when an ester is hydrolysed by heating with dilute acid?

(A) An alkane and water
(B) Only a sodium salt
(C) Carbon dioxide and water
(D) A carboxylic acid and an alcohol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Acid hydrolysis splits the ester at the ester link, regenerating the carboxylic acid and the alcohol.

Q58A salt solution is made by titrating a weak acid with a strong base. What is the pH at the equivalence point?

(A) Greater than 7
(B) Less than 7
(C) Exactly 7
(D) Impossible to predict because a salt is neutral
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The anion of the weak acid hydrolyses to produce OH^-, so the equivalence point of a weak acid-strong base titration is alkaline (pH greater than 7).

Q59What value is assigned to the standard electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode?

(A) +1.00 V
(B) 0.00 V
(C) -0.76 V
(D) +0.34 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The standard hydrogen electrode is the reference electrode and is assigned E = 0.00 V by definition.

Q60Which feature must a monomer have to undergo addition polymerization?

(A) An -OH group
(B) A -COOH group
(C) A C=C double bond
(D) Only a C=O group
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Addition polymerization opens the C=C bond of monomers such as ethene so they can join into a long chain with no by-product.