GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 9

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom of sodium has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is its mass number?

(A) 23
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mass number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.

Q2Which subatomic particle has no electrical charge?

(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Ion
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Neutrons are neutral; protons are positive and electrons are negative.

Q3Magnesium has atomic number 12. What is its electronic structure?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,8,3
(C) 2,8,2
(D) 2,6,4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

12 electrons are arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 2 in the third: 2,8,2.

Q4Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different masses. How do the atoms of two isotopes differ?

(A) They have different numbers of protons
(B) They have different numbers of electrons
(C) They have different electron arrangements
(D) They have different numbers of neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Isotopes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.

Q5Chlorine is made up of 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?

(A) 35.0
(B) 36.0
(C) 35.5
(D) 36.5
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ar = (75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.

Q6How does the reactivity of the Group 1 metals change down the group?

(A) It increases
(B) It decreases
(C) It stays the same
(D) It increases then decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Reactivity increases down Group 1 because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.

Q7Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his periodic table?

(A) To make the table a regular shape
(B) Because some elements had not been measured accurately
(C) To group metals and non-metals together
(D) For elements that had not yet been discovered
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements and correctly predicted their properties.

Q8An element has the electronic structure 2,8,7. Which group of the periodic table is it in?

(A) Group 1
(B) Group 7
(C) Group 0
(D) Group 2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The number of electrons in the outer shell is 7, which gives the group number.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Which statement describes how an ionic bond forms?

(A) Pairs of electrons are shared between atoms
(B) Electrons are transferred from a metal atom to a non-metal atom
(C) Positive ions attract delocalised electrons
(D) Atoms are held together by weak intermolecular forces
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In ionic bonding, electrons are transferred from metal atoms to non-metal atoms, forming positive and negative ions.

Q10A sodium atom loses one electron to form an ion. What is the formula of the sodium ion?

(A) Na^-
(B) Na^2+
(C) Na^2-
(D) Na^+
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Losing one negative electron leaves the ion with a single positive charge: Na^+.

Q11How many covalent bonds does each carbon atom form in diamond?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each carbon atom in diamond forms four strong covalent bonds in a giant covalent structure.

Q12Why can graphite conduct electricity?

(A) Its ions are free to move
(B) It has weak forces between its layers
(C) It has delocalised electrons that can move
(D) It contains metal atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each carbon atom in graphite bonds to only three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.

Q13Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

(A) They contain weak intermolecular forces
(B) Their molecules are very large
(C) Their covalent bonds are very strong
(D) A lot of energy is needed to break the strong electrostatic attractions between the ions
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ionic compounds have giant structures with strong electrostatic attractions in all directions, which need large amounts of energy to break.

Q14What is the approximate size range of nanoparticles?

(A) 1 to 10 cm
(B) 100 to 1000 nm
(C) 1 to 100 nm
(D) 0.01 to 0.1 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nanoparticles are between 1 and 100 nm in size and contain only a few hundred atoms.

Q15Which statement describes metallic bonding?

(A) A shared pair of electrons between two atoms
(B) The attraction between positive metal ions and delocalised electrons
(C) The attraction between positive and negative ions
(D) Weak forces between separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metals consist of a lattice of positive ions surrounded by delocalised electrons, and the attraction between them is the metallic bond.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 100
(B) 68
(C) 84
(D) 120
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.

Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of sodium hydroxide, NaOH? (Mr = 40)

(A) 0.2 mol
(B) 5.0 mol
(C) 0.5 mol
(D) 2.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 40 = 0.2 mol.

Q18When heated, 5.0 g of calcium carbonate decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide. What mass of carbon dioxide is produced? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CO2 = 44)

(A) 1.1 g
(B) 4.4 g
(C) 0.22 g
(D) 2.2 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of CaCO3 = 5.0 / 100 = 0.05 mol, so moles of CO2 = 0.05 mol; mass = 0.05 × 44 = 2.2 g.

Q19A solution contains 0.50 mol of solute in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?

(A) 0.5 mol/dm^3
(B) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 4.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q20A reaction has a theoretical yield of 40 g, but only 30 g of product is collected. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 67%
(B) 75%
(C) 133%
(D) 25%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.

Q21Calcium carbonate decomposes: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. Calcium oxide is the desired product. What is the atom economy of the reaction? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56, CO2 = 44)

(A) 44%
(B) 56%
(C) 64%
(D) 100%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of all products) × 100 = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.

Q22What volume does 0.50 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (1 mol of gas occupies 24 dm^3)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 48 dm^3
(D) 6 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = moles × 24 = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23What is the pH of a neutral solution?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 14
(D) 7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Neutral solutions have a pH of 7; acids are below 7 and alkalis are above 7.

Q24What are the products when a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

(A) Salt + hydrogen
(B) Salt + water only
(C) Salt + water + carbon dioxide
(D) Salt + oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q25In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride, which product forms at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) Sodium
(B) Chlorine
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen, so hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode and hydrogen gas forms.

Q26A strip of zinc is placed in blue copper sulfate solution. What is observed?

(A) Nothing happens
(B) The blue colour fades and a pink-brown solid forms
(C) Bubbles of chlorine gas form
(D) Hydrogen gas is given off rapidly
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc displaces copper from the solution; copper metal forms and the blue colour fades.

Q27Hydrochloric acid is neutralised by sodium hydroxide solution. What is the name of the salt formed?

(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium sulfate
(C) Sodium nitrate
(D) Sodium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrochloric acid forms chloride salts, so the salt is sodium chloride.

Q28Lead is produced by the electrolysis of molten lead bromide. At which electrode does the lead form, and why?

(A) Anode, because lead ions are negative
(B) Anode, because lead is oxidised there
(C) Cathode, because lead ions lose electrons there
(D) Cathode, because positive lead ions gain electrons there
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Pb^2+ ions are positive, so they are attracted to the negative cathode, where they gain electrons and form lead atoms.

Q29In terms of electrons, what is oxidation?

(A) Gain of electrons
(B) Sharing of electrons
(C) No change in electrons
(D) Loss of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss of electrons and Reduction Is Gain of electrons.

Q30A soluble salt is made by adding excess insoluble copper oxide to warm sulfuric acid. How is the excess copper oxide removed?

(A) Filtration
(B) Distillation
(C) Evaporation
(D) Chromatography
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The mixture is filtered to remove the unreacted solid copper oxide before the filtrate is crystallised.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?

(A) The temperature of the surroundings falls
(B) A gas is produced
(C) The temperature of the surroundings rises
(D) A solid forms
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Exothermic reactions transfer energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings rises.

Q32Calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. Bond energies (kJ/mol): H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431.

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -184 kJ/mol
(C) -862 kJ/mol
(D) +678 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; energy change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q33What is the activation energy of a reaction?

(A) The minimum energy that particles must have for a reaction to occur when they collide
(B) The total energy released by the reaction
(C) The energy stored in the products
(D) The energy needed to boil the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Particles must collide with at least the activation energy for bonds to break and a reaction to take place.

Q34What is the only chemical product of a hydrogen fuel cell?

(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Water
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen and the only product is water.

Q35During a reaction, a student holding the test tube notices that the outside of the tube feels colder. What type of reaction is this?

(A) Exothermic
(B) Endothermic
(C) Neutralisation
(D) Combustion
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The reaction takes in energy from the surroundings, so their temperature falls; this is an endothermic reaction.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It lowers the activation energy
(B) It increases the concentration of the reactants
(C) It makes the particles smaller
(D) The particles move faster and collide more frequently, and more collisions have enough energy to react
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Higher temperature gives particles more energy, so collisions are more frequent and a greater proportion of them are successful.

Q37How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It increases the energy of the particles
(B) It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) It increases the concentration of the reactants
(D) It is used up and releases energy
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing a different pathway, and it is not used up in the reaction.

Q38A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 1.0 cm^3/s
(C) 30 cm^3/s
(D) 2.0 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = volume of gas produced / time = 60 / 30 = 2.0 cm^3/s.

Q39What is meant by a reversible system being at equilibrium?

(A) The reaction has stopped completely
(B) All of the reactants have been used up
(C) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal
(D) Only products are present
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At equilibrium in a closed system, the forward and reverse reactions take place at exactly the same rate.

Q40In a reversible reaction involving gases, increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards…

(A) the side with fewer molecules of gas
(B) the side with more molecules of gas
(C) neither side, because pressure has no effect
(D) the reactants in every case
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Higher pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules, because this lowers the pressure again.

Q41Why does increasing the concentration of a reactant increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It lowers the activation energy
(B) It increases the energy of each particle
(C) There are more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent
(D) It increases the surface area of the particles
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, so they collide more often.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42How is crude oil separated into fractions?

(A) Fractional distillation
(B) Cracking
(C) Filtration
(D) Electrolysis
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Crude oil is separated by fractional distillation, which uses the different boiling points of the hydrocarbons.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q44How can you test whether a hydrocarbon is an alkene?

(A) It burns with a clean blue flame
(B) It turns limewater cloudy
(C) A lighted splint gives a pop
(D) It decolourises bromine water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes contain a C=C double bond, which reacts with bromine and decolourises bromine water; alkanes do not.

Q45Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid to form water and an ester. What is the ester called?

(A) Ethyl methanoate
(B) Methyl ethanoate
(C) Ethanoic ester
(D) Ethyl ethanoate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An ester takes its first name from the alcohol (ethyl) and its second name from the acid (ethanoate), giving ethyl ethanoate.

Q46Which statement about addition polymerisation is correct?

(A) Water is produced as the monomers join together
(B) Many monomer molecules join together and no other product is formed
(C) Only one monomer molecule is needed
(D) The monomers must contain two different functional groups
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In addition polymerisation, the C=C bonds in the monomers open up and the molecules join to form only the polymer.

Q47What happens during cracking?

(A) Long-chain hydrocarbons are broken down into shorter, more useful molecules
(B) Short-chain hydrocarbons are joined into long chains
(C) Hydrocarbons are separated by their boiling points
(D) Hydrocarbons react with oxygen to give carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter alkanes and alkenes, which are in greater demand.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48What is the test for hydrogen gas?

(A) It relights a glowing splint
(B) It turns limewater cloudy
(C) A lighted splint gives a squeaky pop
(D) It bleaches damp litmus paper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is held at the mouth of the tube.

Q49What is the test for carbon dioxide gas?

(A) Limewater turns milky (cloudy)
(B) A lighted splint gives a pop
(C) It relights a glowing splint
(D) Damp litmus paper is bleached
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky, which is the standard test for the gas.

Q50A student carries out a flame test on a lithium compound. What colour flame is seen?

(A) Yellow
(B) Green
(C) Lilac
(D) Crimson red
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Lithium compounds produce a crimson red flame in a flame test.

Q51In a paper chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.0 cm and the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.25
(D) 4.0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.5.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What was the main gas in the Earth's early atmosphere?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Intense volcanic activity released gases, so the early atmosphere was mostly carbon dioxide, with little or no oxygen.

Q53What percentage of the modern atmosphere is nitrogen?

(A) About 21%
(B) About 78%
(C) About 0.04%
(D) About 50%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Air is about 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.

Q54Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Nitrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Methane
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases; they absorb infrared radiation and help to keep the Earth warm.

Q55Why is carbon monoxide dangerous to humans?

(A) It causes acid rain
(B) It damages the ozone layer
(C) It makes the blood too acidic
(D) It binds to haemoglobin and reduces the amount of oxygen the blood can carry
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon monoxide is toxic because it combines with haemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen around the body.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56During the treatment of water to make it potable, what does filtration remove?

(A) Insoluble solids such as sand and grit
(B) Dissolved salts
(C) Microbes
(D) Dissolved gases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Filtration, for example through sand beds, removes insoluble solids; sterilisation is then used to kill microbes.

Q57What is phytomining?

(A) Extracting metals using bacteria
(B) Extracting metals from ores by electrolysis
(C) Using plants to absorb metal compounds from the soil, then burning the plants to obtain the metal
(D) Digging deep mines to find metal ores
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In phytomining, plants absorb metal compounds from low-grade ores; the plants are harvested and burned, and the metal is extracted from the ash.

Q58What does a life cycle assessment (LCA) measure?

(A) The cost of making a product
(B) How long a product lasts before it breaks
(C) The number of products sold each year
(D) The environmental impact of each stage of a product's life
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An LCA assesses the environmental impact of obtaining raw materials, manufacture, use and disposal of a product.

Q59Which substance is used as the catalyst in the Haber process?

(A) Iron
(B) Vanadium(V) oxide
(C) Platinum
(D) An enzyme
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The Haber process uses an iron catalyst, at about 450°C and 200 atmospheres pressure.

Q60Why is recycling metals better than extracting new metal from ores?

(A) Recycled metals are always purer
(B) Recycling uses less energy and conserves limited supplies of ore
(C) Recycling produces no waste at all
(D) Metal ores can no longer be mined
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Recycling saves energy, reduces waste and conserves finite metal ores.