GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 9
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1An atom of sodium has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is its mass number?
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Correct: (A)
Mass number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.
Q2Which subatomic particle has no electrical charge?
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Correct: (B)
Neutrons are neutral; protons are positive and electrons are negative.
Q3Magnesium has atomic number 12. What is its electronic structure?
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Correct: (C)
12 electrons are arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 2 in the third: 2,8,2.
Q4Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different masses. How do the atoms of two isotopes differ?
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Correct: (D)
Isotopes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
Q5Chlorine is made up of 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?
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Correct: (C)
Ar = (75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.
Q6How does the reactivity of the Group 1 metals change down the group?
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Correct: (A)
Reactivity increases down Group 1 because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.
Q7Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his periodic table?
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Correct: (D)
Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements and correctly predicted their properties.
Q8An element has the electronic structure 2,8,7. Which group of the periodic table is it in?
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Correct: (B)
The number of electrons in the outer shell is 7, which gives the group number.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Which statement describes how an ionic bond forms?
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Correct: (B)
In ionic bonding, electrons are transferred from metal atoms to non-metal atoms, forming positive and negative ions.
Q10A sodium atom loses one electron to form an ion. What is the formula of the sodium ion?
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Correct: (D)
Losing one negative electron leaves the ion with a single positive charge: Na^+.
Q11How many covalent bonds does each carbon atom form in diamond?
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Correct: (A)
Each carbon atom in diamond forms four strong covalent bonds in a giant covalent structure.
Q12Why can graphite conduct electricity?
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Correct: (C)
Each carbon atom in graphite bonds to only three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.
Q13Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
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Correct: (D)
Ionic compounds have giant structures with strong electrostatic attractions in all directions, which need large amounts of energy to break.
Q14What is the approximate size range of nanoparticles?
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Correct: (C)
Nanoparticles are between 1 and 100 nm in size and contain only a few hundred atoms.
Q15Which statement describes metallic bonding?
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Correct: (B)
Metals consist of a lattice of positive ions surrounded by delocalised electrons, and the attraction between them is the metallic bond.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (A)
Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.
Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of sodium hydroxide, NaOH? (Mr = 40)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 40 = 0.2 mol.
Q18When heated, 5.0 g of calcium carbonate decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide. What mass of carbon dioxide is produced? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (D)
Moles of CaCO3 = 5.0 / 100 = 0.05 mol, so moles of CO2 = 0.05 mol; mass = 0.05 × 44 = 2.2 g.
Q19A solution contains 0.50 mol of solute in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration?
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Correct: (C)
Concentration = moles / volume in dm^3 = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.
Q20A reaction has a theoretical yield of 40 g, but only 30 g of product is collected. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage yield = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.
Q21Calcium carbonate decomposes: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. Calcium oxide is the desired product. What is the atom economy of the reaction? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56, CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (B)
Atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of all products) × 100 = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.
Q22What volume does 0.50 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (1 mol of gas occupies 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (A)
Volume = moles × 24 = 0.50 × 24 = 12 dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23What is the pH of a neutral solution?
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Correct: (D)
Neutral solutions have a pH of 7; acids are below 7 and alkalis are above 7.
Q24What are the products when a dilute acid reacts with a metal carbonate?
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Correct: (C)
Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.
Q25In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride, which product forms at the cathode (negative electrode)?
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Correct: (C)
Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen, so hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode and hydrogen gas forms.
Q26A strip of zinc is placed in blue copper sulfate solution. What is observed?
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Correct: (B)
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc displaces copper from the solution; copper metal forms and the blue colour fades.
Q27Hydrochloric acid is neutralised by sodium hydroxide solution. What is the name of the salt formed?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrochloric acid forms chloride salts, so the salt is sodium chloride.
Q28Lead is produced by the electrolysis of molten lead bromide. At which electrode does the lead form, and why?
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Correct: (D)
Pb^2+ ions are positive, so they are attracted to the negative cathode, where they gain electrons and form lead atoms.
Q29In terms of electrons, what is oxidation?
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Correct: (D)
OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss of electrons and Reduction Is Gain of electrons.
Q30A soluble salt is made by adding excess insoluble copper oxide to warm sulfuric acid. How is the excess copper oxide removed?
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Correct: (A)
The mixture is filtered to remove the unreacted solid copper oxide before the filtrate is crystallised.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Exothermic reactions transfer energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings rises.
Q32Calculate the energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. Bond energies (kJ/mol): H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431.
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Correct: (B)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; energy change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q33What is the activation energy of a reaction?
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Correct: (A)
Particles must collide with at least the activation energy for bonds to break and a reaction to take place.
Q34What is the only chemical product of a hydrogen fuel cell?
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Correct: (C)
In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen and the only product is water.
Q35During a reaction, a student holding the test tube notices that the outside of the tube feels colder. What type of reaction is this?
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Correct: (B)
The reaction takes in energy from the surroundings, so their temperature falls; this is an endothermic reaction.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Higher temperature gives particles more energy, so collisions are more frequent and a greater proportion of them are successful.
Q37How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing a different pathway, and it is not used up in the reaction.
Q38A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Mean rate = volume of gas produced / time = 60 / 30 = 2.0 cm^3/s.
Q39What is meant by a reversible system being at equilibrium?
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Correct: (C)
At equilibrium in a closed system, the forward and reverse reactions take place at exactly the same rate.
Q40In a reversible reaction involving gases, increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards…
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Correct: (A)
Higher pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules, because this lowers the pressure again.
Q41Why does increasing the concentration of a reactant increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (C)
A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, so they collide more often.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42How is crude oil separated into fractions?
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Correct: (A)
Crude oil is separated by fractional distillation, which uses the different boiling points of the hydrocarbons.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (B)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q44How can you test whether a hydrocarbon is an alkene?
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Correct: (D)
Alkenes contain a C=C double bond, which reacts with bromine and decolourises bromine water; alkanes do not.
Q45Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid to form water and an ester. What is the ester called?
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Correct: (D)
An ester takes its first name from the alcohol (ethyl) and its second name from the acid (ethanoate), giving ethyl ethanoate.
Q46Which statement about addition polymerisation is correct?
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Correct: (B)
In addition polymerisation, the C=C bonds in the monomers open up and the molecules join to form only the polymer.
Q47What happens during cracking?
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Correct: (A)
Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter alkanes and alkenes, which are in greater demand.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48What is the test for hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (C)
Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is held at the mouth of the tube.
Q49What is the test for carbon dioxide gas?
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Correct: (A)
Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky, which is the standard test for the gas.
Q50A student carries out a flame test on a lithium compound. What colour flame is seen?
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Correct: (D)
Lithium compounds produce a crimson red flame in a flame test.
Q51In a paper chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.0 cm and the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?
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Correct: (B)
Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.5.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52What was the main gas in the Earth's early atmosphere?
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Correct: (C)
Intense volcanic activity released gases, so the early atmosphere was mostly carbon dioxide, with little or no oxygen.
Q53What percentage of the modern atmosphere is nitrogen?
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Correct: (B)
Air is about 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.
Q54Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (C)
Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases; they absorb infrared radiation and help to keep the Earth warm.
Q55Why is carbon monoxide dangerous to humans?
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Correct: (D)
Carbon monoxide is toxic because it combines with haemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen around the body.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56During the treatment of water to make it potable, what does filtration remove?
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Correct: (A)
Filtration, for example through sand beds, removes insoluble solids; sterilisation is then used to kill microbes.
Q57What is phytomining?
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Correct: (C)
In phytomining, plants absorb metal compounds from low-grade ores; the plants are harvested and burned, and the metal is extracted from the ash.
Q58What does a life cycle assessment (LCA) measure?
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Correct: (D)
An LCA assesses the environmental impact of obtaining raw materials, manufacture, use and disposal of a product.
Q59Which substance is used as the catalyst in the Haber process?
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Correct: (A)
The Haber process uses an iron catalyst, at about 450°C and 200 atmospheres pressure.
Q60Why is recycling metals better than extracting new metal from ores?
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Correct: (B)
Recycling saves energy, reduces waste and conserves finite metal ores.
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