GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 8

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom of carbon-14 has 6 protons. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 6
(B) 14
(C) 8
(D) 20
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Neutrons = mass number – proton number = 14 – 6 = 8.

Q2Atoms of the same element always have the same number of what?

(A) neutrons
(B) mass units in every atom
(C) electrons, even in their ions
(D) protons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The proton number (atomic number) defines the element; atoms of an element can differ in neutrons and electrons.

Q3Chlorine has atomic number 17. What is its electronic structure?

(A) 2,8,7
(B) 2,7,8
(C) 8,8,1
(D) 2,8,8,1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

17 electrons are arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 7 in the third shell.

Q4Why does the reactivity of the halogens decrease going down Group 7?

(A) The atoms lose electrons more easily down the group
(B) The outer electron shell is further from the nucleus, so an electron is gained less easily
(C) The boiling points decrease down the group
(D) The atoms get smaller down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Halogens react by gaining an electron; down the group the outer shell is further away and more shielded, so the attraction for an extra electron is weaker.

Q5Which description matches the plum pudding model of the atom?

(A) Electrons orbit the nucleus in fixed shells
(B) A tiny positive nucleus contains most of the mass
(C) Neutrons and protons are mixed in the nucleus
(D) A ball of positive charge with negative electrons embedded in it
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Thomson's plum pudding model had electrons dotted through a positively charged "pudding".

Q6The relative atomic mass of chlorine is about 35.5 even though no chlorine atom has this mass. Why?

(A) Chlorine is a mixture of isotopes (about 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37), and 35.5 is the weighted average mass
(B) Chlorine atoms each contain half a proton
(C) Chlorine molecules contain two different elements
(D) Chlorine loses electrons when it is weighed
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Relative atomic mass takes account of the abundance of each isotope: (75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = 35.5.

Q7What is seen when a small piece of potassium is added to cold water?

(A) Nothing happens at all
(B) The metal sinks and quietly dissolves
(C) The metal floats, melts into a ball, fizzes and moves around, and the hydrogen produced may ignite with a lilac flame
(D) Chlorine gas is produced
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Potassium reacts very vigorously with water, forming potassium hydroxide and hydrogen.

Q8In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in order of what?

(A) relative atomic mass only
(B) atomic (proton) number
(C) alphabetical order of their symbols
(D) decreasing reactivity
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Elements are ordered by increasing proton number, and this groups elements with similar properties together.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Between which types of atoms does ionic bonding usually occur?

(A) A metal and a non-metal, involving transfer of electrons
(B) Two non-metals, involving shared pairs of electrons
(C) Two metals, involving a sea of electrons
(D) Atoms of the same non-metal only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In ionic bonding, metal atoms lose electrons to form positive ions and non-metal atoms gain them to form negative ions.

Q10Why does sodium chloride conduct electricity when molten but not when solid?

(A) Solid sodium chloride contains no ions
(B) The covalent bonds break when it melts
(C) In the solid the ions are locked in fixed positions in the lattice; when molten the ions are free to move and carry charge to the electrodes
(D) Melting creates delocalised electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Charged particles must be able to move for a substance to conduct; in the solid lattice the ions cannot move.

Q11Which is a property and use of fullerenes such as Buckminsterfullerene?

(A) They are extremely hard and used for cutting tools
(B) They are hollow sphere-shaped molecules that can cage other molecules, for example to deliver drugs in the body
(C) They are giant lattices used to make electrical cables
(D) They are soft and slippery and used as lubricants
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fullerenes are molecules of carbon shaped as hollow balls or tubes, so other molecules can be trapped inside them.

Q12Why do thermosoftening polymers melt when heated?

(A) The covalent bonds inside the chains are very weak
(B) The chains are joined by strong cross-links
(C) The polymer contains free ions
(D) There are only weak intermolecular forces between the separate chains, so the chains can slide apart when heated
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Thermosoftening polymers have no cross-links, so heating overcomes the weak forces between chains and the polymer softens.

Q13Nanoparticles are useful as catalysts partly because they have what?

(A) A very small surface area to volume ratio
(B) Exactly the same properties as the bulk material
(C) A very large surface area to volume ratio
(D) No surface atoms at all
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

As particles get smaller their surface area to volume ratio increases hugely, giving more surface for reactions to occur on.

Q14Why do metals conduct electricity?

(A) Delocalised electrons are free to move through the whole structure
(B) Their positive ions can flow like a liquid
(C) Their atoms vibrate and pass on charge
(D) Their protons are free to move
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The delocalised electrons in metallic bonding can move and carry charge through the metal.

Q15Which statement about silicon dioxide (silica, found in sand) is correct?

(A) It has a low melting point
(B) It has a giant covalent structure, a very high melting point and does not conduct electricity
(C) It conducts electricity when solid because of delocalised electrons
(D) It is made of small molecules with weak intermolecular forces
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Every silicon and oxygen atom is joined by strong covalent bonds in a giant lattice, and there are no free electrons or ions.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 49
(B) 82
(C) 100
(D) 98
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.

Q17What mass of sodium hydroxide is needed to make 2.5 mol of NaOH? (Mr of NaOH = 40)

(A) 16 g
(B) 100 g
(C) 40 g
(D) 0.0625 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mass = moles × Mr = 2.5 × 40 = 100 g.

Q18A solution contains 20 g of salt dissolved in 500 cm^3 of water. What is its concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 10 g/dm^3
(B) 0.04 g/dm^3
(C) 40 g/dm^3
(D) 25 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3; concentration = 20 / 0.5 = 40 g/dm^3.

Q19A reaction between a metal and an acid stops even though some acid is left. What is the best explanation?

(A) The metal has been completely used up, so it is the limiting reactant
(B) The reaction has reached equilibrium
(C) The catalyst has been used up
(D) The acid has become neutral
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A reaction stops when one reactant runs out; that reactant limits how much product can form.

Q20What volume is occupied by 2 mol of a gas at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas = 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 6 dm^3
(D) 48 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = 2 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q21Why is the actual yield of a reaction usually less than the theoretical yield?

(A) Atoms are destroyed during the reaction
(B) Some product is lost during separation, side reactions may occur, or the reaction may not go to completion
(C) The relative formula masses are always wrong
(D) The reaction happens too quickly to measure
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Losses in filtration or transfer, competing reactions and reversible reactions all reduce the amount of product collected.

Q22In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of sodium hydroxide solution is neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of hydrochloric acid with a concentration of 0.10 mol/dm^3. The equation is NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O. What is the concentration of the sodium hydroxide?

(A) 0.125 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.05 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.08 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.8 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of HCl = 0.10 × (20.0 / 1000) = 0.002 mol, so moles of NaOH = 0.002; concentration = 0.002 / (25.0 / 1000) = 0.08 mol/dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23What are the products when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Zinc chloride + water
(B) Zinc chloride + hydrogen
(C) Zinc chloride + carbon dioxide
(D) Zinc chloride + oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen; here the salt is zinc chloride.

Q24Which method is used to prepare a pure sample of the insoluble salt barium sulfate?

(A) Titration of an acid with an alkali
(B) Adding excess insoluble base to an acid and filtering
(C) Evaporating seawater to dryness
(D) Precipitation: mix solutions of a soluble barium salt and a soluble sulfate, then filter, wash and dry the precipitate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Insoluble salts are made by precipitation from two solutions containing the needed ions.

Q25Copper sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?

(A) Copper metal is deposited
(B) Hydrogen gas
(C) Oxygen gas
(D) Sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so Cu^2+ ions are discharged at the cathode and pink-brown copper coats the electrode; oxygen forms at the anode.

Q26What is observed when zinc is added to copper sulfate solution?

(A) Nothing happens
(B) The solution turns bright green
(C) The blue colour fades and a pink-brown solid (copper) forms on the zinc
(D) Bubbles of chlorine are given off
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces it: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu.

Q27In terms of oxygen, what is oxidation?

(A) Loss of oxygen
(B) Gain of oxygen
(C) Gain of electrons only
(D) Loss of hydrogen only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxidation is the gain of oxygen (or the loss of electrons); reduction is the opposite.

Q28A solution has a pH of 1. What does this tell you about it?

(A) It is a weak acid
(B) It is a weak alkali
(C) It is neutral
(D) It is a strong acid with a high concentration of H^+ ions
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

pH 1 is strongly acidic, meaning the acid has ionised fully and there are many H^+ ions in the solution.

Q29Which ions are present in large numbers in any alkaline solution?

(A) OH^- (hydroxide) ions
(B) H^+ ions
(C) Cl^- ions
(D) Na^+ ions only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alkalis release hydroxide ions in aqueous solution, which is what makes them alkaline.

Q30Why are graphite electrodes often used in electrolysis?

(A) Graphite is a metal
(B) Graphite melts easily into the mixture
(C) Graphite conducts electricity and is inert, so it does not react with the products
(D) Graphite dissolves to form ions in the electrolyte
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Graphite conducts because of its delocalised electrons and is unreactive, so the electrodes are not consumed.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which process is endothermic?

(A) Combustion of petrol
(B) Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(C) Respiration
(D) Dissolving ammonium nitrate in water in an injury cold pack
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Dissolving ammonium nitrate takes in energy from the surroundings, so the temperature falls; combustion, neutralisation and respiration are exothermic.

Q32In an exothermic reaction, what happens to the temperature of the surroundings?

(A) It increases because energy is transferred from the reaction mixture to the surroundings
(B) It decreases because energy is taken in
(C) It stays exactly the same
(D) It decreases first, then increases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Exothermic reactions release energy, so the surroundings get warmer.

Q33Which statement about bond breaking and bond making is correct?

(A) Both processes are exothermic
(B) Both processes are endothermic
(C) Breaking bonds is endothermic (energy must be supplied) and making bonds is exothermic (energy is released)
(D) Breaking bonds is exothermic and making bonds is endothermic
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy is needed to break bonds; when new bonds form, energy is given out.

Q34In a reaction, 500 kJ of energy is needed to break all the bonds in the reactants, and 650 kJ is released when the bonds in the products form. What is the overall energy change?

(A) +150 kJ
(B) -150 kJ
(C) -1150 kJ
(D) +1150 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ΔH = energy to break bonds – energy released making bonds = 500 – 650 = -150 kJ, so the reaction is exothermic.

Q35Which is an advantage of using a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell instead of burning petrol in a car engine?

(A) Water is the only product, so no carbon dioxide is produced at the point of use
(B) Hydrogen is a finite resource that needs no energy to produce
(C) Fuel cells never need refuelling
(D) Fuel cells are cheaper in every situation
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell is hydrogen + oxygen → water, so there are no polluting products in use.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Why does marble powder react faster with hydrochloric acid than the same mass of marble chips?

(A) The powder has a lower activation energy
(B) The powder has a larger surface area, so there are more frequent collisions between particles
(C) The powder is more concentrated than the chips
(D) The powder acts as a catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Powder exposes far more surface, so acid particles collide with the surface more often and the rate increases.

Q37Why does increasing the concentration of an acid increase the rate of its reaction with a metal?

(A) The particles move faster
(B) The activation energy decreases
(C) There are more acid particles in the same volume, so collisions happen more frequently
(D) The particles get bigger
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, giving more frequent collisions.

Q38In a closed system at equilibrium, which statement is true?

(A) Both reactions have stopped
(B) The concentrations of reactants and products are always equal
(C) The forward reaction has a rate of zero
(D) The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the backward reaction, so the concentrations stay constant
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Equilibrium is dynamic: both reactions continue at the same rate, so there is no overall change.

Q39The Haber process (N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3) is exothermic in the forward direction. What is the effect of using a lower temperature?

(A) The equilibrium yield of ammonia increases, but the rate of reaction is slower
(B) The equilibrium yield of ammonia decreases
(C) The catalyst stops working completely
(D) The ammonia decomposes instantly
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Lower temperatures favour the exothermic direction, giving more ammonia at equilibrium, but the slower rate is why compromise temperatures are used.

Q40On a graph of volume of gas produced against time, the reaction is fastest at the start. Why?

(A) The reactants are being used up
(B) The concentration of the reactants is highest at the start, so collisions are most frequent
(C) The temperature is highest at the end of the reaction
(D) The products act as catalysts later on
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

As the reaction proceeds the reactants are used up, their concentration falls and the curve becomes less steep.

Q41Why does increasing the pressure increase the rate of a reaction between gases?

(A) The activation energy falls to zero
(B) The particles gain mass
(C) The particles are pushed closer together, so they collide more frequently
(D) The temperature must decrease
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Higher pressure means the same number of particles in a smaller volume, so collisions are more frequent.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Which fraction of crude oil contains the longest hydrocarbon chains and has the highest boiling point?

(A) refinery gases
(B) petrol
(C) kerosene
(D) bitumen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bitumen is the thick residue with the longest chains; it is used for road surfaces and roofing.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnHn
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons (single bonds only) with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q44What are the products of the complete combustion of a hydrocarbon?

(A) Carbon dioxide and water
(B) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen only
(C) Carbon and hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

With a plentiful supply of oxygen, the carbon forms carbon dioxide and the hydrogen forms water.

Q45Ethanol is manufactured by reacting ethene with steam. Which conditions are used?

(A) Yeast at about 37°C with no oxygen
(B) Room temperature with no catalyst
(C) A phosphoric acid catalyst, about 300°C and a pressure of 60-70 atmospheres
(D) A temperature of 1100°C and aluminium oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The reaction ethene + steam ⇌ ethanol uses a phosphoric acid catalyst at high temperature and pressure (conditions differ from fermentation).

Q46Ethanoic acid is the main acid found in which common household substance?

(A) table salt
(B) bleach
(C) lemonade flavouring only
(D) vinegar
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Vinegar is a dilute solution of ethanoic acid, a weak carboxylic acid.

Q47DNA is a natural polymer found in cells. What are its monomers called?

(A) amino acids
(B) nucleotides
(C) glucose molecules
(D) ethene molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

DNA is made from nucleotide monomers; by comparison, proteins are made from amino acids and starch from glucose.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48A pure substance is analysed by paper chromatography. What would you expect to see?

(A) Two clear spots at different heights
(B) No spot at all
(C) A single spot
(D) A continuous smear from bottom to top
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A pure substance contains one chemical, so it produces just one spot on the chromatogram.

Q49Which test identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) A lit splint gives a squeaky pop
(B) It relights a glowing splint
(C) It turns limewater cloudy
(D) It bleaches damp litmus paper
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lit splint is held at the mouth of the tube.

Q50How are sulfate ions tested for in a solution?

(A) Add silver nitrate solution and look for a cream precipitate
(B) Do a flame test and look for a lilac flame
(C) Add sodium hydroxide and look for a green precipitate
(D) Add dilute hydrochloric acid, then barium chloride solution; a white precipitate of barium sulfate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ba^2+ ions react with sulfate ions to give an insoluble white precipitate; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions that would also give a white precipitate.

Q51Which test identifies oxygen gas?

(A) A squeaky pop with a lit splint
(B) It relights a glowing splint
(C) It turns limewater milky
(D) It bleaches damp litmus paper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen is needed for burning, so it relights a splint that is glowing but has no flame.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52How did the amount of oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere increase over time?

(A) Algae and plants produced oxygen by photosynthesis
(B) Volcanoes released large amounts of oxygen
(C) Lightning split water in the oceans
(D) Animals produced oxygen by respiration
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, which built up in the atmosphere over billions of years.

Q53Sulfur dioxide released from burning fossil fuels causes which environmental problem?

(A) Global warming only
(B) Destruction of the ozone layer only
(C) Eutrophication of lakes
(D) Acid rain
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur dioxide (and nitrogen oxides) dissolve in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages buildings, trees and aquatic life.

Q54Which action reduces the carbon footprint of a product?

(A) Burning more coal to make electricity
(B) Generating electricity from renewable sources such as wind instead of fossil fuels
(C) Releasing more methane from landfill sites
(D) Cutting down forests for farmland
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Using renewables reduces the total greenhouse gas emissions caused over the product's life cycle.

Q55Particulates (soot) from incomplete combustion cause which problem?

(A) Acid rain
(B) A stronger greenhouse effect only
(C) Global dimming, because they reflect sunlight, and health problems when breathed in
(D) Depletion of the ozone layer
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon particulates reflect sunlight back into space (global dimming) and can damage people's lungs.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Which substance is commonly added to drinking water to kill microbes?

(A) oxygen
(B) nitrogen
(C) chlorine
(D) carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chlorine is used to sterilise drinking water; ozone and ultraviolet light are other sterilising methods.

Q57In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron. Which substance removes the oxygen from the iron oxide?

(A) Carbon (coke) and carbon monoxide
(B) Oxygen blown through the furnace
(C) Limestone by itself
(D) Water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon and carbon monoxide are the reducing agents in the blast furnace; limestone is added to remove sandy impurities as slag.

Q58What is phytomining?

(A) Growing plants in soil containing metal compounds; the plants absorb the metal, and the plants are then burned so the metal compound can be extracted from the ash
(B) Blasting rocks apart with explosives to reach metal ores
(C) Electrolysing seawater to extract metals
(D) Melting scrap metal to purify it
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Phytomining is a biological method of extraction used for low-grade ores, often of copper.

Q59What are the raw materials for the Haber process?

(A) Methane and steam only
(B) Iron and ammonia
(C) Oxygen from the air and nitrogen from fertilisers
(D) Nitrogen from the air and hydrogen obtained mainly from natural gas
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Nitrogen is extracted from air and hydrogen is produced from natural gas; they react over an iron catalyst to form ammonia.

Q60Which of the following is a finite (non-renewable) resource?

(A) wood from managed forests
(B) cotton
(C) wool
(D) crude oil
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Crude oil formed over millions of years and is being used up far faster than it can be replaced; wood, cotton and wool are renewable.