GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 8
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1An atom of carbon-14 has 6 protons. How many neutrons does it contain?
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Correct: (C)
Neutrons = mass number – proton number = 14 – 6 = 8.
Q2Atoms of the same element always have the same number of what?
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Correct: (D)
The proton number (atomic number) defines the element; atoms of an element can differ in neutrons and electrons.
Q3Chlorine has atomic number 17. What is its electronic structure?
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Correct: (A)
17 electrons are arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 7 in the third shell.
Q4Why does the reactivity of the halogens decrease going down Group 7?
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Correct: (B)
Halogens react by gaining an electron; down the group the outer shell is further away and more shielded, so the attraction for an extra electron is weaker.
Q5Which description matches the plum pudding model of the atom?
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Correct: (D)
Thomson's plum pudding model had electrons dotted through a positively charged "pudding".
Q6The relative atomic mass of chlorine is about 35.5 even though no chlorine atom has this mass. Why?
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Correct: (A)
Relative atomic mass takes account of the abundance of each isotope: (75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = 35.5.
Q7What is seen when a small piece of potassium is added to cold water?
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Correct: (C)
Potassium reacts very vigorously with water, forming potassium hydroxide and hydrogen.
Q8In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in order of what?
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Correct: (B)
Elements are ordered by increasing proton number, and this groups elements with similar properties together.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Between which types of atoms does ionic bonding usually occur?
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Correct: (A)
In ionic bonding, metal atoms lose electrons to form positive ions and non-metal atoms gain them to form negative ions.
Q10Why does sodium chloride conduct electricity when molten but not when solid?
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Correct: (C)
Charged particles must be able to move for a substance to conduct; in the solid lattice the ions cannot move.
Q11Which is a property and use of fullerenes such as Buckminsterfullerene?
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Correct: (B)
Fullerenes are molecules of carbon shaped as hollow balls or tubes, so other molecules can be trapped inside them.
Q12Why do thermosoftening polymers melt when heated?
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Correct: (D)
Thermosoftening polymers have no cross-links, so heating overcomes the weak forces between chains and the polymer softens.
Q13Nanoparticles are useful as catalysts partly because they have what?
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Correct: (C)
As particles get smaller their surface area to volume ratio increases hugely, giving more surface for reactions to occur on.
Q14Why do metals conduct electricity?
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Correct: (A)
The delocalised electrons in metallic bonding can move and carry charge through the metal.
Q15Which statement about silicon dioxide (silica, found in sand) is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Every silicon and oxygen atom is joined by strong covalent bonds in a giant lattice, and there are no free electrons or ions.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
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Correct: (D)
Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.
Q17What mass of sodium hydroxide is needed to make 2.5 mol of NaOH? (Mr of NaOH = 40)
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Correct: (B)
Mass = moles × Mr = 2.5 × 40 = 100 g.
Q18A solution contains 20 g of salt dissolved in 500 cm^3 of water. What is its concentration in g/dm^3?
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Correct: (C)
500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3; concentration = 20 / 0.5 = 40 g/dm^3.
Q19A reaction between a metal and an acid stops even though some acid is left. What is the best explanation?
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Correct: (A)
A reaction stops when one reactant runs out; that reactant limits how much product can form.
Q20What volume is occupied by 2 mol of a gas at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas = 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = 2 × 24 = 48 dm^3.
Q21Why is the actual yield of a reaction usually less than the theoretical yield?
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Correct: (B)
Losses in filtration or transfer, competing reactions and reversible reactions all reduce the amount of product collected.
Q22In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of sodium hydroxide solution is neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of hydrochloric acid with a concentration of 0.10 mol/dm^3. The equation is NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O. What is the concentration of the sodium hydroxide?
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Correct: (C)
Moles of HCl = 0.10 × (20.0 / 1000) = 0.002 mol, so moles of NaOH = 0.002; concentration = 0.002 / (25.0 / 1000) = 0.08 mol/dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23What are the products when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (B)
Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen; here the salt is zinc chloride.
Q24Which method is used to prepare a pure sample of the insoluble salt barium sulfate?
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Correct: (D)
Insoluble salts are made by precipitation from two solutions containing the needed ions.
Q25Copper sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so Cu^2+ ions are discharged at the cathode and pink-brown copper coats the electrode; oxygen forms at the anode.
Q26What is observed when zinc is added to copper sulfate solution?
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Correct: (C)
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces it: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu.
Q27In terms of oxygen, what is oxidation?
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Correct: (B)
Oxidation is the gain of oxygen (or the loss of electrons); reduction is the opposite.
Q28A solution has a pH of 1. What does this tell you about it?
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Correct: (D)
pH 1 is strongly acidic, meaning the acid has ionised fully and there are many H^+ ions in the solution.
Q29Which ions are present in large numbers in any alkaline solution?
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Correct: (A)
Alkalis release hydroxide ions in aqueous solution, which is what makes them alkaline.
Q30Why are graphite electrodes often used in electrolysis?
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Correct: (C)
Graphite conducts because of its delocalised electrons and is unreactive, so the electrodes are not consumed.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (D)
Dissolving ammonium nitrate takes in energy from the surroundings, so the temperature falls; combustion, neutralisation and respiration are exothermic.
Q32In an exothermic reaction, what happens to the temperature of the surroundings?
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Correct: (A)
Exothermic reactions release energy, so the surroundings get warmer.
Q33Which statement about bond breaking and bond making is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Energy is needed to break bonds; when new bonds form, energy is given out.
Q34In a reaction, 500 kJ of energy is needed to break all the bonds in the reactants, and 650 kJ is released when the bonds in the products form. What is the overall energy change?
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Correct: (B)
ΔH = energy to break bonds – energy released making bonds = 500 – 650 = -150 kJ, so the reaction is exothermic.
Q35Which is an advantage of using a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell instead of burning petrol in a car engine?
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Correct: (A)
The overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell is hydrogen + oxygen → water, so there are no polluting products in use.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Why does marble powder react faster with hydrochloric acid than the same mass of marble chips?
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Correct: (B)
Powder exposes far more surface, so acid particles collide with the surface more often and the rate increases.
Q37Why does increasing the concentration of an acid increase the rate of its reaction with a metal?
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Correct: (C)
A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, giving more frequent collisions.
Q38In a closed system at equilibrium, which statement is true?
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Correct: (D)
Equilibrium is dynamic: both reactions continue at the same rate, so there is no overall change.
Q39The Haber process (N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3) is exothermic in the forward direction. What is the effect of using a lower temperature?
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Correct: (A)
Lower temperatures favour the exothermic direction, giving more ammonia at equilibrium, but the slower rate is why compromise temperatures are used.
Q40On a graph of volume of gas produced against time, the reaction is fastest at the start. Why?
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Correct: (B)
As the reaction proceeds the reactants are used up, their concentration falls and the curve becomes less steep.
Q41Why does increasing the pressure increase the rate of a reaction between gases?
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Correct: (C)
Higher pressure means the same number of particles in a smaller volume, so collisions are more frequent.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42Which fraction of crude oil contains the longest hydrocarbon chains and has the highest boiling point?
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Correct: (D)
Bitumen is the thick residue with the longest chains; it is used for road surfaces and roofing.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (B)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons (single bonds only) with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q44What are the products of the complete combustion of a hydrocarbon?
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Correct: (A)
With a plentiful supply of oxygen, the carbon forms carbon dioxide and the hydrogen forms water.
Q45Ethanol is manufactured by reacting ethene with steam. Which conditions are used?
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Correct: (C)
The reaction ethene + steam ⇌ ethanol uses a phosphoric acid catalyst at high temperature and pressure (conditions differ from fermentation).
Q46Ethanoic acid is the main acid found in which common household substance?
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Correct: (D)
Vinegar is a dilute solution of ethanoic acid, a weak carboxylic acid.
Q47DNA is a natural polymer found in cells. What are its monomers called?
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Correct: (B)
DNA is made from nucleotide monomers; by comparison, proteins are made from amino acids and starch from glucose.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48A pure substance is analysed by paper chromatography. What would you expect to see?
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Correct: (C)
A pure substance contains one chemical, so it produces just one spot on the chromatogram.
Q49Which test identifies hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lit splint is held at the mouth of the tube.
Q50How are sulfate ions tested for in a solution?
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Correct: (D)
Ba^2+ ions react with sulfate ions to give an insoluble white precipitate; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions that would also give a white precipitate.
Q51Which test identifies oxygen gas?
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen is needed for burning, so it relights a splint that is glowing but has no flame.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52How did the amount of oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere increase over time?
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Correct: (A)
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, which built up in the atmosphere over billions of years.
Q53Sulfur dioxide released from burning fossil fuels causes which environmental problem?
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Correct: (D)
Sulfur dioxide (and nitrogen oxides) dissolve in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages buildings, trees and aquatic life.
Q54Which action reduces the carbon footprint of a product?
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Correct: (B)
Using renewables reduces the total greenhouse gas emissions caused over the product's life cycle.
Q55Particulates (soot) from incomplete combustion cause which problem?
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Correct: (C)
Carbon particulates reflect sunlight back into space (global dimming) and can damage people's lungs.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Which substance is commonly added to drinking water to kill microbes?
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Correct: (C)
Chlorine is used to sterilise drinking water; ozone and ultraviolet light are other sterilising methods.
Q57In the blast furnace, iron(III) oxide is reduced to iron. Which substance removes the oxygen from the iron oxide?
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Correct: (A)
Carbon and carbon monoxide are the reducing agents in the blast furnace; limestone is added to remove sandy impurities as slag.
Q58What is phytomining?
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Correct: (A)
Phytomining is a biological method of extraction used for low-grade ores, often of copper.
Q59What are the raw materials for the Haber process?
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Correct: (D)
Nitrogen is extracted from air and hydrogen is produced from natural gas; they react over an iron catalyst to form ammonia.
Q60Which of the following is a finite (non-renewable) resource?
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Correct: (D)
Crude oil formed over millions of years and is being used up far faster than it can be replaced; wood, cotton and wool are renewable.
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