GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 7

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom contains 17 protons and 18 neutrons. Which element is it?

(A) sulfur
(B) chlorine
(C) argon
(D) potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The proton number (17) decides the element; 17 protons is chlorine.

Q2What is an isotope of an element?

(A) Atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons
(B) Atoms of different elements with the same mass number
(C) Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
(D) Ions of an element with different charges
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Isotopes have identical proton numbers but different neutron numbers, so their mass numbers differ.

Q3Magnesium has atomic number 12. What is its electronic structure?

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,10
(C) 2,8,2
(D) 8,2,2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

12 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 2 in the third shell.

Q4Which statement about the noble gases (Group 0) is correct?

(A) They react vigorously with water
(B) They have incomplete outer electron shells
(C) They exist as diatomic molecules
(D) They have full outer electron shells, so they are very unreactive
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A full outer shell is a stable arrangement, so noble gases do not easily gain, lose or share electrons.

Q5An atom has a mass number of 23 and contains 12 neutrons. How many protons does it contain?

(A) 12
(B) 11
(C) 23
(D) 35
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Protons = mass number – neutrons = 23 – 12 = 11.

Q6Why does the reactivity of the Group 1 metals increase going down the group?

(A) The atoms get smaller down the group
(B) The outer electron moves closer to the nucleus
(C) The outer electron is further from the nucleus, so it is less strongly attracted and is lost more easily
(D) Each atom has more electrons in its outer shell
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Down the group the outer electron is shielded more and further away, so less energy is needed to remove it.

Q7Which model of the atom replaced the plum pudding model?

(A) The nuclear model, with most of the mass concentrated in a small central nucleus
(B) A model with electrons embedded in a solid positive sphere
(C) A model with atoms as solid, indivisible balls
(D) A model with neutrons spread evenly through the atom
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alpha scattering experiments showed atoms are mostly empty space with a tiny, dense, positive nucleus.

Q8Which statement correctly compares transition metals with Group 1 metals?

(A) Transition metals have lower densities
(B) Transition metals react more violently with water
(C) Transition metals have lower melting points
(D) Transition metals are denser, stronger and form coloured compounds
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition metals are typical hard, dense metals and many of their compounds are coloured; Group 1 metals are soft and form white compounds.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Which substance has a giant ionic structure?

(A) diamond
(B) oxygen
(C) sodium chloride
(D) graphite
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium chloride is a giant lattice of Na^+ and Cl^- ions held together by electrostatic attraction.

Q10Why does sodium chloride have a very high melting point?

(A) A large amount of energy is needed to break the strong electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions in the lattice
(B) The intermolecular forces between its molecules are weak
(C) Its electrons are free to move
(D) The ions share pairs of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The ionic bonds act in all directions throughout the giant lattice and need a lot of thermal energy to break.

Q11Why can graphite conduct electricity?

(A) Its layers can slide over each other
(B) Its ions are free to move
(C) It has metallic bonding
(D) Each carbon atom bonds to three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The delocalised electrons are free to move through the structure and carry charge to the electrodes.

Q12Why is diamond extremely hard?

(A) It contains delocalised electrons
(B) Each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a rigid giant structure
(C) Its layers slide over each other easily
(D) It has weak intermolecular forces
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The four strong covalent bonds per atom in a 3D lattice make diamond very hard and give it a very high melting point.

Q13Which is a possible risk of using nanoparticles?

(A) They may be able to enter body cells because they are so small
(B) They are too large to be absorbed by the skin
(C) They always break down into harmless atoms instantly
(D) They have a very small surface area to volume ratio
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nanoparticles are 1-100 nm, so they may pass into cells; their long-term effects are still being studied.

Q14Why can metals be bent and shaped without breaking?

(A) Their atoms are held together by weak forces only
(B) Their covalent bonds can break and reform
(C) The layers of atoms can slide over each other while the delocalised electrons still hold the structure together
(D) Their atoms are arranged randomly with no bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In metallic bonding the positive ions sit in layers in a sea of delocalised electrons, and the layers can slide.

Q15Why do simple molecular substances such as carbon dioxide have low boiling points?

(A) Their covalent bonds are very weak
(B) Their molecules carry an overall charge
(C) Their atoms are held together by ionic bonds
(D) Only the weak intermolecular forces between molecules need to be overcome; the covalent bonds stay intact
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Boiling a molecular substance only separates the molecules, which takes little energy because intermolecular forces are weak.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 68
(B) 100
(C) 84
(D) 116
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.

Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 2 mol
(B) 128 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 0.5 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q18Magnesium reacts with oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide (Mr = 40) is made from 12 g of magnesium (Ar = 24)?

(A) 20 g
(B) 10 g
(C) 40 g
(D) 24 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of Mg = 12 / 24 = 0.5 mol, so 0.5 mol of MgO forms; mass = 0.5 × 40 = 20 g.

Q19Calculate the concentration, in mol/dm^3, when 0.5 mol of solute is dissolved to make 250 cm^3 of solution.

(A) 0.5 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.125 mol/dm^3
(C) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 125 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3; concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q20A reaction has a theoretical yield of 40 g but only 32 g of product is collected. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 125%
(B) 80%
(C) 8%
(D) 72%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (32 / 40) × 100 = 80%.

Q21Methane burns: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O. What is the atom economy for making carbon dioxide as the desired product? (Mr: CO2 = 44, H2O = 18)

(A) 44%
(B) 80%
(C) 22%
(D) 55%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Atom economy = 44 / (44 + 2 × 18) × 100 = 44 / 80 × 100 = 55%.

Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of any gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas = 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)

(A) 6 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 96 dm^3
(D) 0.6 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23What are the products when a metal carbonate reacts with a dilute acid?

(A) Salt + hydrogen
(B) Salt + oxygen
(C) Salt + water + carbon dioxide
(D) Salt only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q24A student adds excess insoluble copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid to make copper sulfate solution. What should be done next?

(A) Filter the mixture to remove the excess copper oxide, then evaporate or crystallise the filtrate
(B) Distil the mixture to collect the salt
(C) Use a titration with an indicator instead
(D) Add even more acid until the oxide dissolves
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Filtration removes unreacted oxide; the pure salt is then obtained by evaporation or crystallisation.

Q25What are the products when aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes?

(A) Sodium at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
(B) Oxygen at the cathode and sodium at the anode
(C) Chlorine at the cathode and hydrogen at the anode
(D) Hydrogen at the cathode and chlorine at the anode
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen forms at the cathode because sodium is too reactive to be discharged; chloride ions give chlorine at the anode.

Q26Which metal reacts steadily with cold water to give an alkaline solution and hydrogen?

(A) copper
(B) calcium
(C) iron
(D) silver
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Calcium is reactive enough to react with cold water; copper and silver do not react, and iron only reacts very slowly with steam.

Q27Aluminium seems unreactive even though it is high in the reactivity series. Why?

(A) It is below iron in the reactivity series
(B) It is always alloyed with other metals
(C) It has a protective layer of aluminium oxide on its surface
(D) It cannot react with oxygen at any temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The thin, tough oxide coating forms instantly in air and stops the metal below from reacting further.

Q28Molten lead bromide is electrolysed. What forms at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) lead
(B) bromine
(C) hydrogen
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Pb^2+ ions are attracted to the negative electrode, gain electrons and form lead metal.

Q29Which statement correctly compares strong and weak acids?

(A) Strong acids are always more concentrated than weak acids
(B) Weak acids contain no hydrogen ions
(C) Strong acids have a lower pH than weak acids at every concentration
(D) Strong acids ionise completely in aqueous solution, while weak acids only partially ionise
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Acid strength describes the proportion of molecules that ionise, not the concentration.

Q30What is the ionic equation for neutralisation between an acid and an alkali?

(A) H^+ + OH^- → 2H2O
(B) H^+ + OH^- → H2O
(C) 2H^+ + O^2- → H2O
(D) H^+ + Cl^- → HCl
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen ions from the acid react with hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which process is exothermic?

(A) Combustion of methane
(B) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) Photosynthesis
(D) Dissolving ammonium nitrate in a cold pack
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Combustion transfers energy to the surroundings, so the temperature rises; the others take in energy.

Q32On a reaction profile, what is the activation energy?

(A) The overall energy change of the reaction
(B) The energy stored in the products
(C) The minimum energy that particles must have to react, shown by the rise from the reactants to the peak of the profile
(D) The energy released when bonds form
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Activation energy is the energy barrier that colliding particles must overcome for a reaction to happen.

Q33Use bond energies to calculate the energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. Bond energies: H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol.

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -184 kJ/mol
(C) -1540 kJ/mol
(D) +678 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released making bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q34In a simple chemical cell, what most affects the voltage produced?

(A) The colour of the electrodes
(B) The size of the beaker used
(C) The temperature of the room only
(D) The difference in reactivity between the two electrode metals
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The further apart the two metals are in the reactivity series, the greater the voltage of the cell.

Q35What is the only product of a hydrogen fuel cell?

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) hydrogen peroxide
(C) water
(D) methane
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In the fuel cell hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce water, releasing electrical energy.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 1800 cm^3/s
(C) 90 cm^3/s
(D) 2 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = volume / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.

Q37Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) The particles get bigger
(B) The particles collide more often and with more energy, so more collisions are successful
(C) The activation energy of the reaction decreases
(D) The concentration of the reactants increases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At higher temperatures particles move faster, collide more frequently and more of them have at least the activation energy.

Q38How does a catalyst speed up a reaction?

(A) It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(B) It increases the overall energy change of the reaction
(C) It is used up and releases energy as it reacts
(D) It raises the energy of the reactant particles permanently
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy and is not used up in the reaction.

Q39Nitrogen and hydrogen react: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. If the pressure is increased, what happens to the position of equilibrium?

(A) It shifts to the left, towards more gas molecules
(B) It does not change
(C) It shifts to the right, towards the side with fewer gas molecules (2 molecules instead of 4)
(D) The reaction stops completely
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Increasing pressure shifts equilibrium to the side with fewer molecules of gas, which is the ammonia side.

Q40Which method is suitable for measuring the rate of a reaction that produces a gas?

(A) Titrate samples of the mixture every hour
(B) Observe the colour of the solution once at the end
(C) Measure the temperature before and after only
(D) Collect the gas in a gas syringe and record the volume at regular time intervals
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Recording gas volume against time lets you calculate the rate and plot a graph of the results.

Q41Making ammonia (N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3) is exothermic in the forward direction. What happens if the temperature is increased?

(A) The yield of ammonia increases
(B) The equilibrium shifts to the left, towards the endothermic direction, so the yield of ammonia falls
(C) Nothing changes because a catalyst is present
(D) The equilibrium shifts to the right
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Raising the temperature favours the endothermic direction (the reverse reaction), so less ammonia is formed at equilibrium.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Crude oil is separated by fractional distillation because its fractions have different what?

(A) Boiling points, depending on the length of the hydrocarbon chains
(B) Colours
(C) Reactivities with bromine water
(D) Densities only, identical boiling points
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Longer chains have higher boiling points, so each fraction condenses at a different height in the column.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnHn
(C) CnH2n
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with a C=C double bond and the general formula CnH2n.

Q44Which test shows that a hydrocarbon is an alkene?

(A) It turns limewater cloudy
(B) It decolourises bromine water, turning it from orange to colourless
(C) It gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint
(D) It turns universal indicator blue
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkenes react with bromine in an addition reaction, removing its orange colour; alkanes do not.

Q45What are the products of cracking a long-chain alkane?

(A) Only short-chain alkanes
(B) Only hydrogen
(C) Carbon and water
(D) Shorter-chain alkanes and alkenes
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cracking breaks long chains into shorter, more useful alkanes and reactive alkenes.

Q46Ethanol can be made by fermenting glucose solution. Which conditions are needed?

(A) Yeast enzymes, a warm temperature of about 30-37°C and anaerobic conditions (no oxygen)
(B) A pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst
(C) Distilling the glucose from crude oil
(D) Bubbling oxygen through the solution at 300°C
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Yeast respires anaerobically, converting glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q47Poly(ethene) is an addition polymer. What is its monomer?

(A) ethane
(B) ethanol
(C) ethene
(D) chloroethene
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Addition polymers are named after their monomer; poly(ethene) is made from many ethene molecules joining at their double bonds.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48In chromatography a spot moves 4 cm while the solvent front moves 10 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?

(A) 2.5
(B) 0.4
(C) 40
(D) 14
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent = 4 / 10 = 0.4.

Q49Which test identifies chlorine gas?

(A) It relights a glowing splint
(B) It gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint
(C) It turns limewater cloudy
(D) It bleaches damp litmus paper
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine is a bleach, so it turns damp litmus paper white (it may turn it red first).

Q50What flame colour does a sodium compound give in a flame test?

(A) yellow
(B) lilac
(C) brick-red
(D) blue-green
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sodium ions give an intense yellow flame; potassium gives lilac and calcium gives orange-red.

Q51How can you test for carbonate ions in a solid?

(A) Warm it with sodium hydroxide and test for ammonia
(B) Add silver nitrate solution and look for a white precipitate
(C) Add dilute acid; if it effervesces and the gas turns limewater cloudy, carbonate ions are present
(D) Add barium chloride solution and look for a white precipitate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbonates react with acids to give carbon dioxide, which turns limewater milky.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What is the approximate composition of the Earth's atmosphere today?

(A) 78% oxygen and 21% nitrogen
(B) 50% nitrogen and 50% oxygen
(C) About 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen, with small amounts of argon and carbon dioxide
(D) Mostly carbon dioxide with some oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrogen is roughly four-fifths of the air and oxygen roughly one-fifth; other gases make up about 1%.

Q53Which gas is a greenhouse gas?

(A) methane
(B) nitrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Methane (like carbon dioxide and water vapour) absorbs infrared radiation and keeps the Earth warm.

Q54The gases in the Earth's early atmosphere were mainly released by what?

(A) Photosynthesis by the first plants
(B) Respiration of early animals
(C) Evaporation of the oceans
(D) Volcanic activity (degassing of the Earth's interior)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Intense volcanic activity released gases such as carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water vapour, methane and ammonia.

Q55Why is carbon monoxide dangerous to humans?

(A) It causes acid rain
(B) It is toxic because it binds to haemoglobin and reduces the amount of oxygen the blood can carry
(C) It directly destroys the ozone layer
(D) It makes the air too acidic to breathe
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon monoxide is a colourless, odourless toxic gas produced by incomplete combustion.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Which steps are used to make fresh water potable (safe to drink)?

(A) Distillation followed by electrolysis
(B) Filtration to remove solids, then sterilisation with chlorine, ozone or ultraviolet light
(C) Adding salt, then cracking
(D) Sedimentation only, with no sterilisation
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Filtering removes insoluble solids and sterilising kills microbes, making the water safe to drink.

Q57Aluminium is extracted from its ore by which method?

(A) Reduction with carbon in a blast furnace
(B) Heating the ore on its own
(C) Fractional distillation
(D) Electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide dissolved in cryolite
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium is too reactive to be extracted by carbon, so electrolysis is used; cryolite lowers the melting point of the mixture.

Q58What does a life cycle assessment (LCA) evaluate?

(A) Only the cost of making a product
(B) Only how the product is disposed of
(C) The environmental impact of every stage of a product's life, from raw materials to disposal
(D) Only the energy used in the factory
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An LCA covers extracting and processing raw materials, manufacturing, use, transport and final disposal.

Q59Which conditions are used in the Haber process to make ammonia?

(A) 450°C, a pressure of about 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst
(B) 25°C, 1 atmosphere and no catalyst
(C) 1000°C and a very low pressure
(D) 800°C and a platinum catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

These are compromise conditions that give a reasonable yield at a reasonable rate and cost.

Q60Which is an advantage of recycling metals instead of extracting them from ores?

(A) Recycling always uses more energy than extraction
(B) It conserves finite metal ores and usually uses much less energy than extraction
(C) Recycled metal is always completely pure
(D) It increases the amount of waste sent to landfill
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Recycling saves raw materials and energy and reduces mining and waste.