GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 6

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1What is the relative mass of a neutron?

(A) 0
(B) -1
(C) 1
(D) 2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Protons and neutrons each have a relative mass of 1; electrons have a negligible mass.

Q2The atomic number of calcium is 20. How many protons are in a calcium atom?

(A) 40
(B) 20
(C) 60
(D) 10
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The atomic (proton) number equals the number of protons, so a calcium atom has 20 protons.

Q3The elements fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, found in Group 7, are known as the…

(A) halogens
(B) noble gases
(C) alkali metals
(D) transition metals
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Group 7 elements are called the halogens.

Q4Mendeleev improved on the early periodic tables because he…

(A) arranged all the elements by atomic number
(B) listed the elements in alphabetical order
(C) included only the metals
(D) left gaps for elements that had not yet been discovered and predicted their properties
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The later discovery of elements such as gallium, matching his predictions, convinced scientists that his table was correct.

Q5What happens to the reactivity of the Group 7 elements as you go down the group?

(A) It decreases
(B) It increases
(C) It stays the same
(D) It increases then decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Halogens become less reactive down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so an extra electron is gained less easily.

Q6An atom has the electronic structure 2,8,1. In which group of the periodic table is this element?

(A) Group 0
(B) Group 2
(C) Group 7
(D) Group 1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is 1.

Q7The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5, not a whole number. This is because chlorine…

(A) has atoms containing half a proton
(B) is made up of isotopes with different abundances, and 35.5 is their weighted average mass
(C) loses electrons very easily
(D) exists as diatomic molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine has two main isotopes, Cl-35 and Cl-37, in roughly a 3:1 ratio, giving an average mass of 35.5.

Q8Which statement describes a typical property of the transition metals?

(A) They have very low densities
(B) They react very violently with water
(C) They form coloured compounds
(D) They are soft and can be cut with a knife
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Transition metals and their compounds are often coloured, unlike Group 1 metal compounds, which are usually white.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Ionic compounds conduct electricity when molten but not when solid. Why?

(A) In the solid, the electrons are delocalised
(B) In the liquid the ions are free to move, but in the solid they are held in fixed positions in the lattice
(C) The ionic bonds are broken when the compound is solid
(D) Molten compounds contain electrons supplied by the power supply
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Charge can only be carried through the compound when the charged particles are free to move.

Q10A covalent bond is best described as…

(A) a shared pair of electrons between two atoms
(B) the transfer of electrons from one atom to another
(C) an attraction between oppositely charged ions
(D) a sea of delocalised electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In covalent bonding, atoms share pairs of electrons so that each atom achieves a stable outer shell.

Q11Which substance has a giant covalent structure?

(A) iodine
(B) water
(C) sodium chloride
(D) diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Diamond is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure; iodine and water are simple molecular, and sodium chloride is ionic.

Q12Fullerenes are…

(A) ions of carbon
(B) only found as giant lattices
(C) molecules of carbon atoms arranged in hollow cages or tubes
(D) a type of alloy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fullerenes such as buckminsterfullerene, C60, are hollow spheres or tubes made of carbon atoms.

Q13Metals can be bent and shaped (they are malleable) because…

(A) their ions are free to flow like a liquid
(B) layers of atoms can slide over one another without the bonding breaking
(C) their covalent bonds are very weak
(D) electrons escape from the surface
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The regular layers of positive ions can slide while the delocalised electrons still hold the structure together.

Q14Water has a much lower boiling point than sodium chloride because…

(A) only weak forces between water molecules need to be broken, not strong bonds
(B) the covalent bonds inside water molecules are very weak
(C) water molecules are charged
(D) water contains hydrogen ions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Boiling water only overcomes weak intermolecular forces; the strong O-H covalent bonds stay intact.

Q15Why might nanoparticles used in products such as cosmetics be a cause for concern?

(A) They are too large to react with anything
(B) They can never enter the human body
(C) They are always completely safe
(D) They may be absorbed into cells, and their long-term effects on health are not yet fully known
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Because nanoparticles are so small they can pass into the body, so possible risks must be investigated.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate, CaCO3, is 100. How many moles are in 100 g of CaCO3?

(A) 0.1 mol
(B) 10 mol
(C) 0.01 mol
(D) 1 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

moles = mass / Mr = 100 / 100 = 1 mol.

Q17What is the mass of 2 moles of water? (Mr of H2O = 18)

(A) 18 g
(B) 36 g
(C) 9 g
(D) 20 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

mass = moles × Mr = 2 × 18 = 36 g.

Q18A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 2 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.5 mol/dm^3
(C) 1 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.125 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2 mol/dm^3.

Q19Atom economy is best defined as…

(A) the cost of making one tonne of a product
(B) how fast a reaction takes place
(C) the percentage of the mass of the reactants that ends up in the desired product
(D) the percentage yield of a reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of all reactants) × 100.

Q20At room temperature and pressure (24 dm^3 per mole), what volume is occupied by 2 moles of carbon dioxide gas?

(A) 24 dm^3
(B) 12 dm^3
(C) 44 dm^3
(D) 48 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

volume = 2 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q21In a reaction between two substances, the limiting reactant is…

(A) the one with the largest mass
(B) the reactant that is completely used up first, which limits the amount of product formed
(C) the catalyst
(D) the reactant that is left over at the end
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Once the limiting reactant is used up the reaction stops, so it controls the maximum amount of product.

Q22What is the percentage by mass of nitrogen in ammonia, NH3? (Mr of NH3 = 17)

(A) 82%
(B) 18%
(C) 14%
(D) 25%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

percentage = (14 / 17) × 100 = 82%.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23When a metal carbonate reacts with a dilute acid, the gas produced (along with a salt and water) is…

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q24A concentrated solution of sodium chloride is electrolysed. What is formed at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) sodium metal
(B) chlorine gas
(C) oxygen gas
(D) hydrogen gas
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sodium is too reactive to be discharged from solution, so hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen.

Q25Universal indicator is added to a neutral solution. What colour is seen?

(A) green
(B) red
(C) purple
(D) blue
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Neutral solutions have pH 7 and turn universal indicator green.

Q26Potassium hydroxide reacts with nitric acid. What is the salt formed?

(A) potassium chloride
(B) potassium nitrate
(C) potassium sulfate
(D) potassium carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nitric acid forms nitrate salts, so the products are potassium nitrate and water.

Q27Which of these metals is the most reactive?

(A) gold
(B) copper
(C) magnesium
(D) iron
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Of these metals, magnesium is highest in the reactivity series and reacts vigorously with dilute acids and with steam.

Q28Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed. What is formed at the anode (positive electrode)?

(A) potassium
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Negative chloride ions move to the positive anode and lose electrons to form chlorine gas.

Q29Which ionic equation correctly represents a neutralisation reaction?

(A) H^+ + OH^- → H2O
(B) Na^+ + Cl^- → NaCl
(C) 2H^+ → H2
(D) CO2 + H2O → H2CO3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In neutralisation, hydrogen ions from the acid react with hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water.

Q30Copper can be extracted by heating copper oxide with carbon because…

(A) copper is more reactive than carbon
(B) copper is less reactive than carbon, so carbon removes the oxygen from its oxide
(C) copper does not form compounds with oxygen
(D) carbon is a metal
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31In an endothermic reaction…

(A) the temperature of the surroundings increases
(B) energy is released only as light
(C) energy is given out to the surroundings
(D) energy is taken in from the surroundings
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Endothermic reactions absorb energy, so the surroundings get colder.

Q32A reaction is exothermic in terms of bond energies when…

(A) more energy is released when new bonds are formed than is used to break existing bonds
(B) no bonds are broken during the reaction
(C) the activation energy is zero
(D) energy is created by the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bond making releases energy; if this exceeds the energy needed for bond breaking, the overall energy change is negative (exothermic).

Q33A simple chemical cell produces a voltage until…

(A) it has been used forever
(B) it is placed in the dark
(C) one of the reactants in the cell is used up
(D) the wires get warm
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A non-rechargeable cell stops working when one of its reactants has been consumed.

Q34What is an advantage of a hydrogen fuel cell compared with a rechargeable battery for powering a car?

(A) It produces carbon dioxide
(B) It can keep running continuously as long as hydrogen fuel is supplied
(C) Hydrogen is very easy to store
(D) It is cheap to build
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fuel cells do not need lengthy electrical recharging; they generate electricity for as long as fuel is supplied.

Q35On the reaction profile for an endothermic reaction…

(A) the products are at a lower energy level than the reactants
(B) the products and reactants are at the same energy level
(C) there is no activation energy
(D) the products are at a higher energy level than the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The products store the extra energy that has been taken in from the surroundings.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 3 cm^3/s
(B) 0.33 cm^3/s
(C) 30 cm^3/s
(D) 2700 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

mean rate = volume / time = 90 / 30 = 3 cm^3/s.

Q37A solid reactant reacts faster when it is powdered than when it is in large lumps, because the powder has…

(A) a higher purity
(B) a smaller total mass
(C) a greater surface area, so collisions between particles are more frequent
(D) particles with more energy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Exposing a larger surface area increases the frequency of collisions with the other reactant.

Q38In a system at equilibrium…

(A) the concentrations of reactants and products keep changing rapidly
(B) the forward reaction has stopped completely
(C) no chemical reactions are taking place
(D) the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Equilibrium is dynamic: both reactions continue at the same rate, so concentrations stay constant.

Q39Ammonia is made by the Haber process: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the equilibrium yield of ammonia?

(A) It shifts the equilibrium to the left
(B) It shifts the equilibrium to the right, producing more ammonia
(C) The reaction stops completely
(D) The catalyst changes the equilibrium position
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

There are 4 gas molecules on the left and only 2 on the right, so a higher pressure favours the side with fewer molecules.

Q40In a reversible reaction at equilibrium, the concentration of one of the reactants is increased. The equilibrium position moves…

(A) to the right, so that some of the added reactant is used up
(B) to the left, making more reactant
(C) not at all
(D) and the reaction stops
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The system acts to oppose the change by using up the extra reactant (Le Chatelier's principle).

Q41Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction because…

(A) the particles move faster
(B) every particle has more energy
(C) there are more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent
(D) the activation energy is lowered
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume and therefore a greater collision frequency.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42In fractional distillation, crude oil fractions are collected at different heights in the column because the hydrocarbons have different…

(A) densities only
(B) boiling points
(C) colours
(D) smells
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each fraction condenses where the temperature in the column matches its boiling range.

Q43Cracking is an important industrial process used to convert long-chain hydrocarbons into…

(A) pure carbon
(B) crude oil
(C) shorter, more useful hydrocarbons, including alkenes
(D) long-chain polymers
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cracking produces shorter alkanes, which are in demand as fuels, and alkenes, which are used to make polymers.

Q44Ethene reacts with steam at high temperature and pressure with a catalyst to produce…

(A) ethanol
(B) ethanoic acid
(C) methane
(D) poly(ethene)
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The hydration of ethene is the industrial method of making ethanol for solvents and fuels.

Q45In condensation polymerisation…

(A) only one type of monomer can ever be used
(B) no by-product is formed
(C) carbon-carbon double bonds simply open up
(D) monomers join together and a small molecule, such as water, is given off
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Condensation polymers such as polyesters form when monomers with two functional groups react together, eliminating water.

Q46What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnHn
(C) CnH2n
(D) C2nHn
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n.

Q47Complete combustion of methane in a plentiful supply of air produces…

(A) carbon and water
(B) carbon dioxide and water
(C) carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(D) soot only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48Paper chromatography can show that a substance is pure if the chromatogram shows…

(A) the spot runs off the paper
(B) many different spots
(C) only one spot for the substance
(D) a colour change in the solvent
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A pure substance produces a single spot; a mixture separates into two or more spots.

Q49Which test identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) A lighted splint gives a squeaky pop
(B) Limewater turns milky
(C) A glowing splint relights
(D) Damp litmus paper is bleached
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is placed at the mouth of the tube.

Q50To test for chloride ions in solution, dilute nitric acid is added followed by silver nitrate solution. A positive result is…

(A) a white precipitate of barium sulfate forms
(B) a blue precipitate forms
(C) a crimson flame is produced
(D) a white precipitate of silver chloride forms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chloride ions react with silver ions to form insoluble white silver chloride.

Q51A flame test on a potassium compound produces a flame of which colour?

(A) yellow
(B) green
(C) lilac
(D) brick red
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Potassium ions give a lilac (purple) flame colour.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is oxygen?

(A) 78%
(B) 21%
(C) 0.04%
(D) 1%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen makes up about 21% of the atmosphere; nitrogen makes up about 78%.

Q53Acid rain is mainly caused by which pollutant gas dissolving in rainwater?

(A) sulfur dioxide
(B) nitrogen, N2
(C) oxygen
(D) water vapour
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sulfur dioxide released by burning fossil fuels forms acidic solutions in clouds, producing acid rain.

Q54Soot and other particulates released by burning fuels are a problem because they can cause…

(A) the air to be cleaned
(B) extra oxygen to form
(C) no harm at all
(D) global dimming and breathing problems in humans
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Particulates reflect sunlight back into space (global dimming) and can damage the lungs when inhaled.

Q55Which action would reduce a person's carbon footprint?

(A) Burning more coal at home
(B) Using electricity generated by wind turbines instead of fossil fuels
(C) Making more journeys by car
(D) Cutting down forests
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Renewable energy sources release far less carbon dioxide over their life cycle than fossil fuels.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56In the treatment of fresh water to make it potable, filtration is used to…

(A) kill microorganisms
(B) add chlorine
(C) remove insoluble solids such as sand and grit
(D) dissolve salts in the water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The water passes through filter beds that trap insoluble particles; sterilisation is a separate stage.

Q57Phytoextraction is a method of obtaining metals in which…

(A) plants are grown on low-grade ores and absorb metal compounds through their roots
(B) metal ores are burned in huge furnaces
(C) bacteria are used to dissolve all metals
(D) metals are always extracted by electrolysis
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The plants are harvested and burned, and the metal is extracted from the ash; the method is slow but avoids digging up and processing large amounts of rock.

Q58Which of these is a finite (non-renewable) resource?

(A) water from rain
(B) wind
(C) solar energy
(D) crude oil
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Crude oil formed over millions of years and is being used up much faster than it can be replaced.

Q59Most of the ammonia produced by the Haber process is used to manufacture…

(A) plastics
(B) fuels
(C) nitrogen-based fertilisers
(D) medicines
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ammonia is converted into fertilisers such as ammonium nitrate, which improve crop growth.

Q60Recycling metals instead of extracting new metal from ores…

(A) uses more energy in every case
(B) saves energy and conserves metal ore supplies
(C) increases the amount of mining needed
(D) always gives a purer metal
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Recycling usually needs much less energy than extraction and preserves finite ore reserves.