GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 6
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1What is the relative mass of a neutron?
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Correct: (C)
Protons and neutrons each have a relative mass of 1; electrons have a negligible mass.
Q2The atomic number of calcium is 20. How many protons are in a calcium atom?
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Correct: (B)
The atomic (proton) number equals the number of protons, so a calcium atom has 20 protons.
Q3The elements fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, found in Group 7, are known as the…
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Correct: (A)
Group 7 elements are called the halogens.
Q4Mendeleev improved on the early periodic tables because he…
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Correct: (D)
The later discovery of elements such as gallium, matching his predictions, convinced scientists that his table was correct.
Q5What happens to the reactivity of the Group 7 elements as you go down the group?
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Correct: (A)
Halogens become less reactive down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so an extra electron is gained less easily.
Q6An atom has the electronic structure 2,8,1. In which group of the periodic table is this element?
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Correct: (D)
The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is 1.
Q7The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5, not a whole number. This is because chlorine…
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine has two main isotopes, Cl-35 and Cl-37, in roughly a 3:1 ratio, giving an average mass of 35.5.
Q8Which statement describes a typical property of the transition metals?
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Correct: (C)
Transition metals and their compounds are often coloured, unlike Group 1 metal compounds, which are usually white.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Ionic compounds conduct electricity when molten but not when solid. Why?
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Correct: (B)
Charge can only be carried through the compound when the charged particles are free to move.
Q10A covalent bond is best described as…
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Correct: (A)
In covalent bonding, atoms share pairs of electrons so that each atom achieves a stable outer shell.
Q11Which substance has a giant covalent structure?
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Correct: (D)
Diamond is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure; iodine and water are simple molecular, and sodium chloride is ionic.
Q12Fullerenes are…
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Correct: (C)
Fullerenes such as buckminsterfullerene, C60, are hollow spheres or tubes made of carbon atoms.
Q13Metals can be bent and shaped (they are malleable) because…
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Correct: (B)
The regular layers of positive ions can slide while the delocalised electrons still hold the structure together.
Q14Water has a much lower boiling point than sodium chloride because…
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Correct: (A)
Boiling water only overcomes weak intermolecular forces; the strong O-H covalent bonds stay intact.
Q15Why might nanoparticles used in products such as cosmetics be a cause for concern?
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Correct: (D)
Because nanoparticles are so small they can pass into the body, so possible risks must be investigated.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate, CaCO3, is 100. How many moles are in 100 g of CaCO3?
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Correct: (D)
moles = mass / Mr = 100 / 100 = 1 mol.
Q17What is the mass of 2 moles of water? (Mr of H2O = 18)
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Correct: (B)
mass = moles × Mr = 2 × 18 = 36 g.
Q18A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?
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Correct: (A)
250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2 mol/dm^3.
Q19Atom economy is best defined as…
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Correct: (C)
atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of all reactants) × 100.
Q20At room temperature and pressure (24 dm^3 per mole), what volume is occupied by 2 moles of carbon dioxide gas?
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Correct: (D)
volume = 2 × 24 = 48 dm^3.
Q21In a reaction between two substances, the limiting reactant is…
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Correct: (B)
Once the limiting reactant is used up the reaction stops, so it controls the maximum amount of product.
Q22What is the percentage by mass of nitrogen in ammonia, NH3? (Mr of NH3 = 17)
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Correct: (A)
percentage = (14 / 17) × 100 = 82%.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23When a metal carbonate reacts with a dilute acid, the gas produced (along with a salt and water) is…
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Correct: (C)
acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.
Q24A concentrated solution of sodium chloride is electrolysed. What is formed at the cathode (negative electrode)?
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Correct: (D)
Sodium is too reactive to be discharged from solution, so hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen.
Q25Universal indicator is added to a neutral solution. What colour is seen?
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Correct: (A)
Neutral solutions have pH 7 and turn universal indicator green.
Q26Potassium hydroxide reacts with nitric acid. What is the salt formed?
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Correct: (B)
Nitric acid forms nitrate salts, so the products are potassium nitrate and water.
Q27Which of these metals is the most reactive?
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Correct: (C)
Of these metals, magnesium is highest in the reactivity series and reacts vigorously with dilute acids and with steam.
Q28Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed. What is formed at the anode (positive electrode)?
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Correct: (D)
Negative chloride ions move to the positive anode and lose electrons to form chlorine gas.
Q29Which ionic equation correctly represents a neutralisation reaction?
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Correct: (A)
In neutralisation, hydrogen ions from the acid react with hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water.
Q30Copper can be extracted by heating copper oxide with carbon because…
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Correct: (B)
Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31In an endothermic reaction…
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Correct: (D)
Endothermic reactions absorb energy, so the surroundings get colder.
Q32A reaction is exothermic in terms of bond energies when…
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Correct: (A)
Bond making releases energy; if this exceeds the energy needed for bond breaking, the overall energy change is negative (exothermic).
Q33A simple chemical cell produces a voltage until…
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Correct: (C)
A non-rechargeable cell stops working when one of its reactants has been consumed.
Q34What is an advantage of a hydrogen fuel cell compared with a rechargeable battery for powering a car?
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Correct: (B)
Fuel cells do not need lengthy electrical recharging; they generate electricity for as long as fuel is supplied.
Q35On the reaction profile for an endothermic reaction…
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Correct: (D)
The products store the extra energy that has been taken in from the surroundings.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?
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Correct: (A)
mean rate = volume / time = 90 / 30 = 3 cm^3/s.
Q37A solid reactant reacts faster when it is powdered than when it is in large lumps, because the powder has…
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Correct: (C)
Exposing a larger surface area increases the frequency of collisions with the other reactant.
Q38In a system at equilibrium…
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Correct: (D)
Equilibrium is dynamic: both reactions continue at the same rate, so concentrations stay constant.
Q39Ammonia is made by the Haber process: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the equilibrium yield of ammonia?
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Correct: (B)
There are 4 gas molecules on the left and only 2 on the right, so a higher pressure favours the side with fewer molecules.
Q40In a reversible reaction at equilibrium, the concentration of one of the reactants is increased. The equilibrium position moves…
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Correct: (A)
The system acts to oppose the change by using up the extra reactant (Le Chatelier's principle).
Q41Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction because…
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Correct: (C)
A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume and therefore a greater collision frequency.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42In fractional distillation, crude oil fractions are collected at different heights in the column because the hydrocarbons have different…
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Correct: (B)
Each fraction condenses where the temperature in the column matches its boiling range.
Q43Cracking is an important industrial process used to convert long-chain hydrocarbons into…
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Correct: (C)
Cracking produces shorter alkanes, which are in demand as fuels, and alkenes, which are used to make polymers.
Q44Ethene reacts with steam at high temperature and pressure with a catalyst to produce…
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Correct: (A)
The hydration of ethene is the industrial method of making ethanol for solvents and fuels.
Q45In condensation polymerisation…
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Correct: (D)
Condensation polymers such as polyesters form when monomers with two functional groups react together, eliminating water.
Q46What is the general formula of the alkenes?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n.
Q47Complete combustion of methane in a plentiful supply of air produces…
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Correct: (B)
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48Paper chromatography can show that a substance is pure if the chromatogram shows…
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Correct: (C)
A pure substance produces a single spot; a mixture separates into two or more spots.
Q49Which test identifies hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lighted splint is placed at the mouth of the tube.
Q50To test for chloride ions in solution, dilute nitric acid is added followed by silver nitrate solution. A positive result is…
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Correct: (D)
Chloride ions react with silver ions to form insoluble white silver chloride.
Q51A flame test on a potassium compound produces a flame of which colour?
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Correct: (C)
Potassium ions give a lilac (purple) flame colour.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is oxygen?
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen makes up about 21% of the atmosphere; nitrogen makes up about 78%.
Q53Acid rain is mainly caused by which pollutant gas dissolving in rainwater?
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Correct: (A)
Sulfur dioxide released by burning fossil fuels forms acidic solutions in clouds, producing acid rain.
Q54Soot and other particulates released by burning fuels are a problem because they can cause…
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Correct: (D)
Particulates reflect sunlight back into space (global dimming) and can damage the lungs when inhaled.
Q55Which action would reduce a person's carbon footprint?
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Correct: (B)
Renewable energy sources release far less carbon dioxide over their life cycle than fossil fuels.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56In the treatment of fresh water to make it potable, filtration is used to…
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Correct: (C)
The water passes through filter beds that trap insoluble particles; sterilisation is a separate stage.
Q57Phytoextraction is a method of obtaining metals in which…
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Correct: (A)
The plants are harvested and burned, and the metal is extracted from the ash; the method is slow but avoids digging up and processing large amounts of rock.
Q58Which of these is a finite (non-renewable) resource?
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Correct: (D)
Crude oil formed over millions of years and is being used up much faster than it can be replaced.
Q59Most of the ammonia produced by the Haber process is used to manufacture…
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Correct: (C)
Ammonia is converted into fertilisers such as ammonium nitrate, which improve crop growth.
Q60Recycling metals instead of extracting new metal from ores…
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Correct: (B)
Recycling usually needs much less energy than extraction and preserves finite ore reserves.
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