GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 5

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative charge of -1 and a relative mass that is almost zero?

(A) proton
(B) electron
(C) neutron
(D) nucleus
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Electrons have a relative charge of -1 and a negligible mass (about 1/1836 of a proton).

Q2An atom of sodium has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 11
(B) 23
(C) 12
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.

Q3Which element is found in Group 2 and Period 3 of the periodic table?

(A) magnesium
(B) calcium
(C) sodium
(D) aluminium
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Magnesium is in Period 3 and Group 2; calcium is also Group 2 but is in Period 4.

Q4Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in the number of which particle?

(A) protons
(B) electrons in a neutral atom
(C) electron shells
(D) neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Isotopes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.

Q5In some early versions of the periodic table, the elements were arranged in order of…

(A) atomic number
(B) relative atomic mass
(C) reactivity
(D) melting point
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Early tables ordered elements by relative atomic mass; the modern table uses atomic (proton) number.

Q6The atomic number of chlorine is 17. What is the electronic structure of a chlorine atom?

(A) 2,8,8
(B) 2,7,8
(C) 2,8,7
(D) 8,8,1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The 17 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 7 in the third shell.

Q7Why are the noble gases very unreactive?

(A) They have a full outer shell of electrons
(B) They have no electrons
(C) They have only one electron shell
(D) They are all solids at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A full outer shell makes noble gas atoms stable, so they do not easily gain, lose or share electrons.

Q8What happens to the reactivity of the Group 1 metals as you go down the group?

(A) It decreases steadily
(B) It stays the same
(C) It increases then decreases
(D) It increases
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9In ionic bonding, what happens to the electrons?

(A) They are shared equally between two atoms
(B) They are shared in pairs between atoms
(C) They are transferred from metal atoms to non-metal atoms
(D) They are delocalised over the whole structure
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Metal atoms lose electrons to form positive ions and non-metal atoms gain them to form negative ions.

Q10Sodium chloride has a very high melting point. Why?

(A) The ions in the solid are free to move
(B) It has a giant covalent structure
(C) There are weak forces between its molecules
(D) A large amount of energy is needed to break the strong ionic bonds in the giant lattice
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions act in all directions, so a lot of thermal energy is needed to break them.

Q11Diamond is one of the hardest known substances. Why is diamond so hard?

(A) It contains delocalised electrons
(B) Each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a rigid giant structure
(C) It is made of layers that cannot slide
(D) It contains oppositely charged ions
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Every carbon atom is bonded to four others by strong covalent bonds, making the whole structure very rigid and hard.

Q12Which statement is a typical property of a simple molecular substance such as carbon dioxide?

(A) It has a low boiling point
(B) It conducts electricity when molten
(C) It has a very high melting point
(D) It forms a giant lattice
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Only the weak intermolecular forces between molecules need to be overcome to boil it, so the boiling point is low.

Q13Metals are good conductors of electricity. Why?

(A) Their ions are free to move through the solid
(B) Their electrons are held in fixed positions
(C) Delocalised electrons can move through the structure carrying charge
(D) They contain free positive and negative ions
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a solid metal the delocalised electrons are free to move and carry the current, while the ions stay in place.

Q14Nanoparticles are particles with diameters in the range…

(A) 1 to 10 mm
(B) 100 to 1000 nm
(C) 1 to 100 micrometres
(D) 1 to 100 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Nanoparticles measure between 1 nm and 100 nm and contain only a few hundred atoms.

Q15Graphite can conduct electricity, but diamond cannot. Why?

(A) Graphite is a metal
(B) Each carbon atom in graphite forms only three bonds, leaving one delocalised electron per atom
(C) Graphite contains ions
(D) Diamond contains no electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The fourth outer electron of each carbon atom in graphite is delocalised and can move along the layers to carry charge.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16The relative formula mass of methane, CH4, is 16. How many moles are there in 8 g of methane?

(A) 0.5 mol
(B) 2.0 mol
(C) 0.2 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q17Carbon burns completely in oxygen: C + O2 → CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide is formed when 12 g of carbon burns completely? (Mr of CO2 = 44)

(A) 12 g
(B) 28 g
(C) 32 g
(D) 44 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

12 g of carbon is 1 mol, which forms 1 mol of CO2 = 44 g.

Q18A student dissolves 10 g of sodium hydroxide in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 5 g/dm^3
(B) 10 g/dm^3
(C) 20 g/dm^3
(D) 50 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3, so concentration = 10 / 0.5 = 20 g/dm^3.

Q19In a reaction, the theoretical yield of a product is 40 g but only 30 g is actually obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 25%
(B) 75%
(C) 133%
(D) 60%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

percentage yield = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.

Q20Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. Calcium oxide is the useful product. What is the atom economy of this reaction? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)

(A) 56%
(B) 44%
(C) 100%
(D) 36%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.

Q21At room temperature and pressure, one mole of any gas occupies 24 dm^3. What volume does 0.25 mol of hydrogen occupy?

(A) 2.4 dm^3
(B) 60 dm^3
(C) 0.6 dm^3
(D) 6.0 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.

Q22What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Mr of H2SO4 = 98)

(A) 16%
(B) 33%
(C) 65%
(D) 98%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mass of oxygen = 4 × 16 = 64, so percentage = (64 / 98) × 100 = 65%.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23Which gas is produced when zinc reacts with dilute sulfuric acid?

(A) oxygen
(B) hydrogen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metals above hydrogen in the reactivity series react with dilute acids to give a salt and hydrogen.

Q24Molten lead bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the cathode (negative electrode)?

(A) bromine
(B) hydrogen
(C) lead
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Positive lead ions, Pb^2+, move to the negative cathode and are discharged as lead metal.

Q25What is the name given to a base that is soluble in water?

(A) an alkali
(B) a salt
(C) an acid
(D) an indicator
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Soluble hydroxides and oxides that release OH^- ions in solution are called alkalis.

Q26What is the pH of a strong acid such as concentrated hydrochloric acid?

(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 4
(D) 1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Strong acids are fully ionised in solution and have very low pH values, around 1.

Q27Copper oxide reacts with sulfuric acid to form a salt and water. What is the salt?

(A) copper chloride
(B) copper nitrate
(C) copper sulfate
(D) copper carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfuric acid always forms sulfate salts, so the product here is copper sulfate.

Q28Which of these metals reacts most vigorously with cold water?

(A) copper
(B) potassium
(C) magnesium
(D) zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Potassium is near the top of the reactivity series and reacts violently with cold water; copper does not react at all.

Q29During electrolysis, cations (positive ions) move towards the…

(A) cathode, which is the negative electrode
(B) anode, which is the positive electrode
(C) power supply
(D) surface of the electrolyte
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Positive ions are attracted to the negative electrode, which is called the cathode.

Q30Iron is extracted from iron(III) oxide by heating with carbon in a blast furnace. Why does this method work?

(A) Carbon is less reactive than iron
(B) Iron oxide is an acid
(C) Electrolysis cannot be used for any metal
(D) Carbon is more reactive than iron, so it removes the oxygen from the oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31In an exothermic reaction…

(A) energy is transferred to the surroundings
(B) energy is taken in from the surroundings
(C) the temperature of the surroundings falls
(D) more energy is needed to break bonds than is released when bonds form
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Exothermic reactions release energy, usually warming up the surroundings.

Q32Use these bond energies (kJ/mol): H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431. For the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl, what is the overall energy change?

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -184 kJ/mol
(C) -862 kJ/mol
(D) +678 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy used breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released making bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q33On a reaction profile, the activation energy is…

(A) the energy released by the reaction
(B) the difference in energy between the reactants and the products
(C) the minimum energy that colliding particles must have for a reaction to occur
(D) the energy stored in the products
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Particles must collide with at least the activation energy for bonds to break and a reaction to happen.

Q34What is the overall reaction that takes place in a hydrogen fuel cell?

(A) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
(B) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(C) H2 → 2H^+ + 2e^-
(D) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen and oxygen combine to form only water, generating electricity.

Q35In a simple chemical cell made from two different metals in an electrolyte, the voltage produced depends mainly on…

(A) the type of wire used
(B) the difference in reactivity between the two metals
(C) the colour of the electrolyte
(D) the size of the beaker
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The greater the difference in reactivity between the two electrodes, the greater the voltage produced.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36In an experiment, 60 cm^3 of gas is collected in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 2 cm^3/s
(C) 30 cm^3/s
(D) 1800 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

mean rate = volume / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.

Q37Raising the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because…

(A) the particles move more slowly
(B) the activation energy is increased
(C) the particles expand and take up more space
(D) the particles move faster, so they collide more frequently and with more energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At a higher temperature more particles have energy greater than the activation energy, so successful collisions are more frequent.

Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…

(A) increasing the energy of all the particles
(B) providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) being used up so that the reaction can finish
(D) raising the temperature of the mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy and is not used up in the reaction.

Q39Nitrogen and hydrogen react to form ammonia: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the equilibrium yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?

(A) It increases
(B) It increases only because the rate is faster
(C) It decreases, because the equilibrium moves in the endothermic direction
(D) It stays exactly the same
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Increasing the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (reverse) direction, so less ammonia is present at equilibrium.

Q40Sulfur dioxide and oxygen react in a reversible reaction: 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3. What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the equilibrium yield of SO3?

(A) It increases, because the equilibrium shifts to the side with fewer gas molecules
(B) It decreases, because the equilibrium shifts to the left
(C) It has no effect at all
(D) The reaction stops
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

There are 3 gas molecules on the left and only 2 on the right, so a higher pressure shifts the position of equilibrium to the right.

Q41Increasing the pressure increases the rate of a reaction between gases because…

(A) the particles gain more energy
(B) the particles are pushed closer together, so collisions happen more frequently
(C) the activation energy becomes lower
(D) the particles move faster
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At higher pressure the same number of particles occupies a smaller volume, so the frequency of collisions increases.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Crude oil is separated into fractions in industry by…

(A) cracking
(B) filtration
(C) fractional distillation
(D) combustion
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The hydrocarbons have different boiling points and condense at different levels of the fractionating column.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n
(C) CnHn
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q44A few drops of bromine water are added to an alkene and the mixture is shaken. What is observed?

(A) The mixture stays orange
(B) The mixture turns cloudy white
(C) The mixture turns blue
(D) The orange colour disappears (the bromine water is decolourised)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes react with bromine by addition across the double bond, so the orange colour fades.

Q45Ethanol for alcoholic drinks is manufactured by…

(A) cracking long-chain hydrocarbons
(B) hydrating glucose with steam
(C) the fermentation of glucose by yeast
(D) oxidising ethane
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Yeast enzymes convert glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide under anaerobic conditions.

Q46Which of the following is an addition polymer?

(A) poly(ethene)
(B) nylon
(C) a protein
(D) a polyester
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Poly(ethene) forms when ethene monomers join by opening their double bonds, with no other product formed.

Q47Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. As well as a salt and water, which gas is produced?

(A) hydrogen
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carboxylic acids react with carbonates to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide, so the mixture fizzes.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.0 cm and the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?

(A) 0.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 4.0
(D) 0.25
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.5.

Q49Which test is used to identify oxygen gas?

(A) It turns limewater milky
(B) It gives a squeaky pop with a lighted splint
(C) It turns a blue flame orange
(D) It relights a glowing splint
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; this is its standard chemical test.

Q50A white solid gives a yellow flame colour in a flame test. Which metal ion does it contain?

(A) potassium
(B) calcium
(C) sodium
(D) copper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium ions produce a persistent yellow flame colour.

Q51To test for sulfate ions in a solution, dilute hydrochloric acid is added followed by barium chloride solution. A positive result is…

(A) bubbles of gas are given off
(B) a white precipitate forms
(C) a blue solution forms
(D) a lilac flame is produced
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Barium sulfate is insoluble, so a white precipitate of BaSO4 forms.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere today is nitrogen?

(A) 21%
(B) 0.04%
(C) 45%
(D) 78%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Nitrogen makes up about 78% of the atmosphere and oxygen about 21%.

Q53Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?

(A) methane
(B) nitrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Methane absorbs long-wave radiation and contributes to the greenhouse effect, as does carbon dioxide.

Q54The pollutant carbon monoxide is produced when carbon-containing fuels burn…

(A) completely in a plentiful supply of air
(B) by incomplete combustion, when there is not enough oxygen
(C) during respiration in animals
(D) during photosynthesis in plants
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With a limited oxygen supply the carbon in the fuel is only partly oxidised, forming toxic carbon monoxide.

Q55The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of…

(A) oxygen
(B) nitrogen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Intense volcanic activity released gases, mainly carbon dioxide, which formed the early atmosphere.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Chlorine is added to drinking water in water treatment plants in order to…

(A) kill harmful microorganisms
(B) remove dissolved salts
(C) improve the taste only
(D) soften the water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine sterilises the water by killing microbes that could cause disease.

Q57The Haber process uses which set of conditions?

(A) 25°C, 1 atmosphere, no catalyst
(B) 1000°C, low pressure, copper catalyst
(C) room temperature, very high pressure, yeast
(D) 450°C, 200 atmospheres, iron catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The industrial Haber process runs at about 450°C and 200 atmospheres with an iron catalyst.

Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product examines its environmental impact…

(A) only while it is being manufactured
(B) only when it is thrown away
(C) at every stage of its life, from obtaining raw materials to disposal
(D) only while it is being transported
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An LCA covers extracting raw materials, manufacture, use, and disposal or recycling.

Q59Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis, but copper oxide can be reduced by carbon. This is because aluminium is…

(A) more reactive than carbon
(B) less reactive than carbon
(C) a non-metal
(D) a liquid at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metals more reactive than carbon cannot be extracted by carbon reduction, so electrolysis must be used.

Q60Extracting metals by mining and quarrying can damage the environment mainly because it…

(A) uses no energy at all
(B) produces no waste rock
(C) always improves local habitats
(D) creates large amounts of waste rock, dust and noise, and scars the landscape
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mining produces huge quantities of waste rock and dust, destroys habitats and leaves scars on the landscape – one reason recycling metals is preferred.