GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 5
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative charge of -1 and a relative mass that is almost zero?
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Correct: (B)
Electrons have a relative charge of -1 and a negligible mass (about 1/1836 of a proton).
Q2An atom of sodium has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23. How many neutrons does it contain?
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Correct: (C)
Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.
Q3Which element is found in Group 2 and Period 3 of the periodic table?
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Correct: (A)
Magnesium is in Period 3 and Group 2; calcium is also Group 2 but is in Period 4.
Q4Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in the number of which particle?
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Correct: (D)
Isotopes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
Q5In some early versions of the periodic table, the elements were arranged in order of…
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Correct: (B)
Early tables ordered elements by relative atomic mass; the modern table uses atomic (proton) number.
Q6The atomic number of chlorine is 17. What is the electronic structure of a chlorine atom?
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Correct: (C)
The 17 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 7 in the third shell.
Q7Why are the noble gases very unreactive?
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Correct: (A)
A full outer shell makes noble gas atoms stable, so they do not easily gain, lose or share electrons.
Q8What happens to the reactivity of the Group 1 metals as you go down the group?
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Correct: (D)
Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9In ionic bonding, what happens to the electrons?
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Correct: (C)
Metal atoms lose electrons to form positive ions and non-metal atoms gain them to form negative ions.
Q10Sodium chloride has a very high melting point. Why?
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Correct: (D)
The electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions act in all directions, so a lot of thermal energy is needed to break them.
Q11Diamond is one of the hardest known substances. Why is diamond so hard?
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Correct: (B)
Every carbon atom is bonded to four others by strong covalent bonds, making the whole structure very rigid and hard.
Q12Which statement is a typical property of a simple molecular substance such as carbon dioxide?
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Correct: (A)
Only the weak intermolecular forces between molecules need to be overcome to boil it, so the boiling point is low.
Q13Metals are good conductors of electricity. Why?
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Correct: (C)
In a solid metal the delocalised electrons are free to move and carry the current, while the ions stay in place.
Q14Nanoparticles are particles with diameters in the range…
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Correct: (D)
Nanoparticles measure between 1 nm and 100 nm and contain only a few hundred atoms.
Q15Graphite can conduct electricity, but diamond cannot. Why?
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Correct: (B)
The fourth outer electron of each carbon atom in graphite is delocalised and can move along the layers to carry charge.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16The relative formula mass of methane, CH4, is 16. How many moles are there in 8 g of methane?
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Correct: (A)
moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.
Q17Carbon burns completely in oxygen: C + O2 → CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide is formed when 12 g of carbon burns completely? (Mr of CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (D)
12 g of carbon is 1 mol, which forms 1 mol of CO2 = 44 g.
Q18A student dissolves 10 g of sodium hydroxide in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in g/dm^3?
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Correct: (C)
500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3, so concentration = 10 / 0.5 = 20 g/dm^3.
Q19In a reaction, the theoretical yield of a product is 40 g but only 30 g is actually obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
percentage yield = (30 / 40) × 100 = 75%.
Q20Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. Calcium oxide is the useful product. What is the atom economy of this reaction? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)
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Correct: (A)
atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.
Q21At room temperature and pressure, one mole of any gas occupies 24 dm^3. What volume does 0.25 mol of hydrogen occupy?
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Correct: (D)
volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.
Q22What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Mr of H2SO4 = 98)
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Correct: (C)
Mass of oxygen = 4 × 16 = 64, so percentage = (64 / 98) × 100 = 65%.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23Which gas is produced when zinc reacts with dilute sulfuric acid?
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Correct: (B)
Metals above hydrogen in the reactivity series react with dilute acids to give a salt and hydrogen.
Q24Molten lead bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the cathode (negative electrode)?
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Correct: (C)
Positive lead ions, Pb^2+, move to the negative cathode and are discharged as lead metal.
Q25What is the name given to a base that is soluble in water?
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Correct: (A)
Soluble hydroxides and oxides that release OH^- ions in solution are called alkalis.
Q26What is the pH of a strong acid such as concentrated hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (D)
Strong acids are fully ionised in solution and have very low pH values, around 1.
Q27Copper oxide reacts with sulfuric acid to form a salt and water. What is the salt?
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Correct: (C)
Sulfuric acid always forms sulfate salts, so the product here is copper sulfate.
Q28Which of these metals reacts most vigorously with cold water?
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Correct: (B)
Potassium is near the top of the reactivity series and reacts violently with cold water; copper does not react at all.
Q29During electrolysis, cations (positive ions) move towards the…
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Correct: (A)
Positive ions are attracted to the negative electrode, which is called the cathode.
Q30Iron is extracted from iron(III) oxide by heating with carbon in a blast furnace. Why does this method work?
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Correct: (D)
Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31In an exothermic reaction…
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Correct: (A)
Exothermic reactions release energy, usually warming up the surroundings.
Q32Use these bond energies (kJ/mol): H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431. For the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl, what is the overall energy change?
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Correct: (B)
Energy used breaking bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released making bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q33On a reaction profile, the activation energy is…
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Correct: (C)
Particles must collide with at least the activation energy for bonds to break and a reaction to happen.
Q34What is the overall reaction that takes place in a hydrogen fuel cell?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen and oxygen combine to form only water, generating electricity.
Q35In a simple chemical cell made from two different metals in an electrolyte, the voltage produced depends mainly on…
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Correct: (B)
The greater the difference in reactivity between the two electrodes, the greater the voltage produced.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36In an experiment, 60 cm^3 of gas is collected in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?
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Correct: (B)
mean rate = volume / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.
Q37Raising the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because…
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Correct: (D)
At a higher temperature more particles have energy greater than the activation energy, so successful collisions are more frequent.
Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst lowers the activation energy and is not used up in the reaction.
Q39Nitrogen and hydrogen react to form ammonia: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. The forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the equilibrium yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (C)
Increasing the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (reverse) direction, so less ammonia is present at equilibrium.
Q40Sulfur dioxide and oxygen react in a reversible reaction: 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3. What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the equilibrium yield of SO3?
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Correct: (A)
There are 3 gas molecules on the left and only 2 on the right, so a higher pressure shifts the position of equilibrium to the right.
Q41Increasing the pressure increases the rate of a reaction between gases because…
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Correct: (B)
At higher pressure the same number of particles occupies a smaller volume, so the frequency of collisions increases.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42Crude oil is separated into fractions in industry by…
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Correct: (C)
The hydrocarbons have different boiling points and condense at different levels of the fractionating column.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (A)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q44A few drops of bromine water are added to an alkene and the mixture is shaken. What is observed?
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Correct: (D)
Alkenes react with bromine by addition across the double bond, so the orange colour fades.
Q45Ethanol for alcoholic drinks is manufactured by…
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Correct: (C)
Yeast enzymes convert glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide under anaerobic conditions.
Q46Which of the following is an addition polymer?
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Correct: (A)
Poly(ethene) forms when ethene monomers join by opening their double bonds, with no other product formed.
Q47Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. As well as a salt and water, which gas is produced?
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Correct: (B)
Carboxylic acids react with carbonates to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide, so the mixture fizzes.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.0 cm and the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?
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Correct: (A)
Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent = 4.0 / 8.0 = 0.5.
Q49Which test is used to identify oxygen gas?
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Correct: (D)
Oxygen relights a glowing splint; this is its standard chemical test.
Q50A white solid gives a yellow flame colour in a flame test. Which metal ion does it contain?
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Correct: (C)
Sodium ions produce a persistent yellow flame colour.
Q51To test for sulfate ions in a solution, dilute hydrochloric acid is added followed by barium chloride solution. A positive result is…
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Correct: (B)
Barium sulfate is insoluble, so a white precipitate of BaSO4 forms.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere today is nitrogen?
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Correct: (D)
Nitrogen makes up about 78% of the atmosphere and oxygen about 21%.
Q53Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (A)
Methane absorbs long-wave radiation and contributes to the greenhouse effect, as does carbon dioxide.
Q54The pollutant carbon monoxide is produced when carbon-containing fuels burn…
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Correct: (B)
With a limited oxygen supply the carbon in the fuel is only partly oxidised, forming toxic carbon monoxide.
Q55The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of…
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Correct: (C)
Intense volcanic activity released gases, mainly carbon dioxide, which formed the early atmosphere.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Chlorine is added to drinking water in water treatment plants in order to…
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Correct: (A)
Chlorine sterilises the water by killing microbes that could cause disease.
Q57The Haber process uses which set of conditions?
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Correct: (D)
The industrial Haber process runs at about 450°C and 200 atmospheres with an iron catalyst.
Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product examines its environmental impact…
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Correct: (C)
An LCA covers extracting raw materials, manufacture, use, and disposal or recycling.
Q59Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis, but copper oxide can be reduced by carbon. This is because aluminium is…
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Correct: (A)
Metals more reactive than carbon cannot be extracted by carbon reduction, so electrolysis must be used.
Q60Extracting metals by mining and quarrying can damage the environment mainly because it…
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Correct: (D)
Mining produces huge quantities of waste rock and dust, destroys habitats and leaves scars on the landscape – one reason recycling metals is preferred.
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