GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 4

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1Where is most of the mass of an atom concentrated?

(A) In the electron shells
(B) It is spread evenly through the atom
(C) In the nucleus
(D) In the outermost shell only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The nucleus contains the protons and neutrons, which account for almost all of the atom's mass; electrons have almost no mass.

Q2Potassium has atomic number 19. What is its electronic structure?

(A) 2,8,8,1
(B) 2,8,9
(C) 8,8,3
(D) 2,8,7,2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

19 electrons fill the shells as 2, then 8, then 8, leaving 1 electron in the fourth shell.

Q3The noble gases in Group 0 are very unreactive because their atoms…

(A) have no electrons
(B) have more protons than other elements
(C) are very small
(D) have a stable arrangement of electrons with a full outer shell
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Noble gas atoms already have full outer electron shells, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

Q4An element has the electronic structure 2,8,7. In which group of the periodic table is it found?

(A) Group 1
(B) Group 7
(C) Group 0
(D) Group 2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell; 7 outer electrons means Group 7 (the halogens).

Q5The atomic number of an element is the number of…

(A) protons in each atom
(B) neutrons in each atom
(C) protons and neutrons added together
(D) electron shells in each atom
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Atomic (proton) number is the number of protons in the nucleus, and it defines which element the atom is.

Q6Newlands' law of octaves was not accepted by many scientists mainly because…

(A) he arranged the elements in order of atomic number
(B) his table contained only gases
(C) he left too many gaps in the table
(D) it placed some metals and non-metals with very different properties in the same group
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Newlands forced elements into groups of eight without leaving gaps, so dissimilar elements (including metals and non-metals) ended up grouped together.

Q7What is the mass number of an atom?

(A) The number of electrons
(B) The number of protons plus the number of neutrons
(C) The number of protons minus the number of neutrons
(D) The number of electron shells
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mass number = protons + neutrons, the total number of particles in the nucleus.

Q8Chlorine-35 and chlorine-37 are isotopes. They have the same chemical properties because they have…

(A) the same number of neutrons
(B) the same mass number
(C) the same number of protons and the same electron arrangement
(D) the same density
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chemical properties depend on the electron arrangement, which is the same for isotopes of an element; only the neutron number differs.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9A covalent bond is formed when…

(A) electrons are transferred from a metal to a non-metal
(B) oppositely charged ions attract each other
(C) atoms are surrounded by delocalised electrons
(D) two atoms share a pair of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Covalent bonding involves pairs of electrons shared between atoms, usually non-metal atoms.

Q10Simple molecular substances such as chlorine have low boiling points because…

(A) their covalent bonds are very weak
(B) only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome when they boil
(C) the molecules contain very few atoms
(D) the atoms lose their electrons on heating
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

When a simple molecular substance boils, only the weak forces between molecules are broken; the strong covalent bonds inside the molecules stay intact.

Q11Ionic compounds have very high melting points because…

(A) they contain weak intermolecular forces
(B) the molecules are very large
(C) a large amount of energy is needed to break the strong electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions in the giant lattice
(D) ions have no charges
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The giant ionic lattice is held together by strong attractions in all directions, so a lot of thermal energy is needed to break the structure.

Q12Graphene is best described as…

(A) a single layer of graphite, one atom thick
(B) a hollow sphere of 60 carbon atoms
(C) a tube of carbon atoms
(D) a form of diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Graphene is a sheet of carbon atoms only one atom thick, separated from graphite; it is strong and conducts electricity.

Q13Metals can be bent and shaped (they are malleable) because…

(A) their atoms are joined by weak forces
(B) the layers of atoms can slide over each other without the bonding breaking
(C) they contain lots of empty space
(D) they melt at low temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The regular layers of positive ions in a metal can slide over one another while the delocalised electrons hold the structure together.

Q14Thermosoftening polymers soften when heated because…

(A) there are no covalent bonds in them
(B) the polymer chains are cross-linked together
(C) there are only weak intermolecular forces between the polymer chains, which are overcome on heating
(D) the chains break into monomers when warmed
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Thermosoftening polymers have tangled chains held by weak intermolecular forces, so heating lets the chains slide apart; thermosetting polymers have cross-links and do not soften.

Q15Nanoparticles are useful as catalysts because they have…

(A) a very large surface area compared with their volume
(B) a very low surface area compared with their volume
(C) no surface at all
(D) surfaces that cannot react
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nanoparticles have a huge surface area to volume ratio, giving many exposed atoms that can take part in reactions.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of sodium hydroxide, NaOH? (Ar: Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1)

(A) 32
(B) 38
(C) 24
(D) 40
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mr = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40.

Q17How many moles are there in 5.6 g of iron? (Ar of Fe = 56)

(A) 0.1 mol
(B) 10 mol
(C) 1 mol
(D) 0.01 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Ar = 5.6 / 56 = 0.1 mol.

Q18Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2. What mass of zinc chloride is formed from 6.5 g of zinc? (Ar of Zn = 65; Mr of ZnCl2 = 136)

(A) 6.8 g
(B) 13.6 g
(C) 27.2 g
(D) 3.4 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of Zn = 6.5 / 65 = 0.1 mol, so 0.1 mol of ZnCl2 forms. Mass = 0.1 × 136 = 13.6 g.

Q19A solution contains 20 g of sodium chloride dissolved in 500 cm^3 of water. What is its concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 10 g/dm^3
(B) 20 g/dm^3
(C) 0.04 g/dm^3
(D) 40 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3. Concentration = 20 / 0.5 = 40 g/dm^3.

Q20What is the percentage by mass of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3? (Mr of NH4NO3 = 80; Ar of N = 14)

(A) 17.5%
(B) 28%
(C) 35%
(D) 70%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

There are 2 nitrogen atoms: mass of N = 2 × 14 = 28. Percentage = 28 / 80 × 100 = 35%.

Q21In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of sodium hydroxide solution was neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of hydrochloric acid with a concentration of 0.10 mol/dm^3. What is the concentration of the sodium hydroxide? (NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O)

(A) 0.125 mol/dm^3
(B) 0.10 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.080 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.050 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of HCl = 0.10 × (20.0 / 1000) = 0.0020 mol, so 0.0020 mol of NaOH is in 25.0 cm^3. Concentration = 0.0020 / 0.025 = 0.080 mol/dm^3.

Q22Magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid: Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2. What is the atom economy for producing magnesium chloride, MgCl2? (Mr: MgCl2 = 95, H2 = 2)

(A) 50%
(B) 95%
(C) 2%
(D) 98%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Atom economy = 95 / (95 + 2) × 100 = 95 / 97 × 100 ≈ 98%.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23What colour does universal indicator turn in a strong alkali?

(A) Red
(B) Purple
(C) Green
(D) Orange
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Universal indicator is purple in strong alkali, green in neutral solutions and red in strong acid.

Q24Zinc reacts with dilute sulfuric acid. The products are…

(A) zinc sulfate and hydrogen
(B) zinc oxide and hydrogen
(C) zinc sulfate and oxygen
(D) zinc hydroxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen, so zinc + sulfuric acid gives zinc sulfate and hydrogen.

Q25Copper sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert (platinum) electrodes. What is formed at the cathode?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Sulfur
(D) Copper metal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so copper ions (Cu^2+) are discharged at the cathode and copper metal coats the electrode.

Q26In the same electrolysis of copper sulfate solution with inert electrodes, the gas produced at the anode is…

(A) oxygen
(B) hydrogen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydroxide ions are discharged at the anode to form oxygen and water (there are no halide ions present).

Q27Iron is extracted from iron oxide in the blast furnace by heating with carbon. This works because…

(A) iron is more reactive than carbon
(B) carbon is a metal
(C) carbon is more reactive than iron, so it removes the oxygen from the iron oxide
(D) the iron oxide melts and runs out
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon; carbon takes the oxygen from the iron oxide.

Q28Magnesium reacts with copper ions: Mg + Cu^2+ → Mg^2+ + Cu. In this reaction the magnesium atoms are…

(A) reduced, because they gain electrons
(B) oxidised, because they lose electrons
(C) neither oxidised nor reduced
(D) oxidised, because they gain oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each magnesium atom loses two electrons to form Mg^2+; loss of electrons is oxidation (OILRIG).

Q29Which statement about strong and weak acids is correct?

(A) A weak acid has a lower concentration than a strong acid
(B) A strong acid fully ionises in aqueous solution, while a weak acid only partially ionises
(C) A weak acid produces no hydrogen ions
(D) Strong acids do not react with metals
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acid strength describes the proportion of molecules that ionise: strong acids ionise completely, weak acids (e.g. ethanoic acid) only partially.

Q30Concentrated sodium chloride solution (brine) is electrolysed. The gas formed at the anode is…

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) steam
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chloride ions are present in high concentration, so they are discharged at the anode to form chlorine gas.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which process is endothermic?

(A) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(B) Combustion of methane
(C) Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(D) Freezing of water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings; combustion, neutralisation and freezing are all exothermic.

Q32Using bond energies (H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol), calculate the energy change for H2 + Br2 → 2HBr.

(A) +629 kJ/mol
(B) -732 kJ/mol
(C) -103 kJ/mol
(D) +103 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ. Overall change = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol (exothermic).

Q33On a reaction profile diagram, the activation energy is the difference in energy between…

(A) the reactants and the highest point (peak) of the curve
(B) the reactants and the products
(C) the products and the lowest point of the curve
(D) the start and the end of the time axis
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The activation energy is the minimum energy particles need to react, shown as the height from the reactant level to the peak of the profile.

Q34On the reaction profile (energy level diagram) for an exothermic reaction, the products are…

(A) at the same energy level as the reactants
(B) higher in energy than the reactants
(C) lower in energy than the reactants, because energy has been transferred to the surroundings
(D) at zero energy
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In an exothermic reaction energy is released to the surroundings, so the products end up at a lower energy level than the reactants.

Q35The only product formed (apart from energy) when a hydrogen fuel cell operates is…

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) water
(C) hydrogen peroxide
(D) steam and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to produce water only: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Powdered marble reacts with acid much faster than the same mass of marble chips because the powder has…

(A) a smaller surface area
(B) more concentrated particles
(C) a lower temperature
(D) a larger surface area, so collisions happen more frequently
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Powdering increases the surface area exposed to the acid, so there are more frequent collisions and a faster rate.

Q37The mean rate of a reaction that produces 100 cm^3 of gas in 50 seconds is…

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 50 cm^3/s
(C) 100 cm^3/s
(D) 2 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = quantity of product formed / time taken = 100 / 50 = 2 cm^3/s.

Q38Increasing the concentration of an acid increases the rate of its reaction with marble chips because…

(A) the particles have more energy
(B) there are more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent
(C) the temperature of the acid rises
(D) the surface area of the chips increases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A higher concentration means more reacting particles in a given volume, leading to more frequent collisions.

Q39When a reversible reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed system, the concentrations of reactants and products…

(A) become equal to each other
(B) keep changing rapidly
(C) stay constant because the forward and reverse reactions happen at the same rate
(D) both fall to zero
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At equilibrium the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal, so concentrations stop changing (they are not necessarily equal).

Q40For the equilibrium CH4 + H2O ⇌ CO + 3H2, increasing the pressure will shift the position of equilibrium to the…

(A) right, because there are fewer gas molecules on the right
(B) left, because there are fewer gas molecules on the left
(C) right, because pressure always favours products
(D) neither side, because pressure has no effect
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

There are 2 gas molecules on the left and 4 on the right; increasing pressure shifts equilibrium towards the side with fewer molecules, the left.

Q41What effect does a catalyst have on the position of equilibrium of a reversible reaction?

(A) It shifts equilibrium to the right
(B) It shifts equilibrium to the left
(C) It increases the yield of products
(D) It has no effect on the position; it only makes equilibrium be reached faster
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the position of equilibrium and the yield are unchanged.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Long-chain hydrocarbons, compared with short-chain hydrocarbons, generally have…

(A) higher boiling points and are more viscous
(B) lower boiling points and flow more easily
(C) lower boiling points and are more flammable
(D) no difference in properties
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Longer molecules have stronger intermolecular forces, giving higher boiling points, greater viscosity and lower flammability.

Q43Cracking is a process used to…

(A) join small molecules into long polymers
(B) burn hydrocarbons completely
(C) break down long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes
(D) separate crude oil by boiling point
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cracking (using a catalyst or steam at high temperature) splits long-chain alkanes into shorter alkanes and alkenes to meet demand.

Q44What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnHn
(D) CnH2n
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n; ethene is C2H4.

Q45Ethanoic acid is a carboxylic acid. Which functional group does it contain?

(A) -OH only
(B) C=C
(C) -COOH
(D) -NH2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH functional group; ethanoic acid is CH3COOH and is the acid in vinegar.

Q46When ethanol is oxidised (for example by microbes in air), the product is…

(A) ethene
(B) ethanoic acid
(C) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
(D) an ester only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxidation of ethanol produces ethanoic acid, which is why wine left open to the air tastes sour (vinegary).

Q47Polyesters are condensation polymers. During their formation, the monomers join together and a small molecule is lost. That small molecule is usually…

(A) hydrogen
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen
(D) water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In condensation polymerisation, each new bond formed releases a small molecule, usually water, as when a diol and a dicarboxylic acid form a polyester.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48A lighted splint is held at the mouth of a test tube of hydrogen gas. The result that shows hydrogen is present is…

(A) a squeaky pop sound
(B) the splint is blown out quietly
(C) limewater turns cloudy
(D) a white smoke forms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen burns rapidly in air with a characteristic squeaky pop when tested with a lighted splint.

Q49Carbon dioxide is tested for using limewater. What is observed if carbon dioxide is present?

(A) The limewater turns milky (cloudy)
(B) The limewater catches fire
(C) A white precipitate of copper forms
(D) The limewater turns bright blue
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon dioxide reacts with limewater (calcium hydroxide solution) to form insoluble calcium carbonate, turning it milky.

Q50Flame emission spectroscopy is used by scientists instead of simple flame tests because it…

(A) uses no flames at all
(B) is slower but cheaper
(C) changes the elements into new ones
(D) can identify elements and measure their concentrations quickly and accurately, even in mixtures
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Flame emission spectroscopy is rapid, sensitive and accurate, and can detect several elements in a mixture and find their concentrations.

Q51To test for chloride ions in a solution, you add dilute nitric acid followed by silver nitrate solution. A positive result is…

(A) a cream precipitate
(B) a white precipitate
(C) a yellow precipitate
(D) bubbles of gas
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Silver chloride is insoluble and forms a white precipitate; (silver bromide is cream and silver iodide is yellow).

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52Which gas makes up about 78% of the present-day Earth's atmosphere?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Today's atmosphere is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and small amounts of argon, carbon dioxide and other gases.

Q53The amount of oxygen in the early atmosphere increased mainly because of…

(A) volcanic eruptions
(B) lightning storms
(C) animals respiring
(D) algae and plants producing oxygen by photosynthesis
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Photosynthesising algae (later plants) released oxygen over billions of years, while the carbon dioxide level fell.

Q54Burning fossil fuels increases the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere because…

(A) fossil fuels contain no carbon
(B) the carbon that was locked up in the fuels for millions of years is released as carbon dioxide
(C) burning destroys oxygen in the air
(D) the fuels are made from carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Coal, oil and gas contain carbon stored since the organisms died millions of years ago; combustion converts it to CO2, adding to the atmosphere.

Q55Particulate matter (soot) released by incomplete combustion of fuels is a problem because it can cause…

(A) acid rain
(B) the ozone hole
(C) global dimming and damage to human health (breathing problems)
(D) eutrophication of rivers
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon particulates reflect sunlight (global dimming) and can be inhaled, causing respiratory and health problems; sulfur dioxide, not particulates, causes acid rain.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56During sewage (waste water) treatment, the sludge separated from the water is broken down by bacteria in the absence of air. A useful product of this anaerobic digestion is…

(A) pure drinking water
(B) biogas (methane), which can be burned as a fuel
(C) nitrogen fertiliser gas
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Anaerobic digestion of sludge by microorganisms produces biogas containing methane, used as a fuel; the remaining solid can be used as fertiliser.

Q57NPK fertilisers are formulations that supply plants with which three elements?

(A) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(B) Nickel, platinum and krypton
(C) Nitrogen, potassium and calcium
(D) Phosphorus, sulfur and iron
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

NPK fertilisers contain compounds of nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K) in proportions suited to different crops.

Q58In the Haber process, the nitrogen and hydrogen used come from…

(A) nitrogen from the air and hydrogen from natural gas (methane)
(B) nitrogen from fertilisers and hydrogen from water electrolysis only
(C) both gases from crude oil distillation
(D) nitrogen from the sea and hydrogen from the air
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nitrogen is obtained from the air and hydrogen mainly from natural gas; they react over an iron catalyst at about 450 °C and 200 atmospheres.

Q59Phytomining is a method of extracting metals such as copper from low-grade ores. It involves…

(A) using bacteria to produce an acidic solution of metal ions
(B) growing plants in metal-rich ground, then harvesting and burning them so the ash contains the metal compound
(C) heating the ore with carbon in a furnace
(D) electrolysing seawater
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In phytomining, plants absorb metal compounds as they grow; burning the harvested plants gives ash rich in the metal. (Using bacteria describes bioleaching instead.)

Q60Which statement about life cycle assessments (LCAs) is correct?

(A) They only measure the cost of making a product
(B) They are always completely objective and exact
(C) They ignore what happens when a product is thrown away
(D) They assess the environmental impact of a product at every stage of its life, from raw materials to disposal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An LCA evaluates impacts at each stage: extracting raw materials, manufacture, use, and disposal; some stages involve value judgements, so LCAs are not purely objective.